Module 1-3 Aviation Resource Management Test
MODULE 1-3 AVIATION RESOURCE MANAGEMENT TEST
- 1.
What are the sections included in Part 1 of the CFETP?
- A.
Provides general information such as purpose and use of plan
- B.
Identifies career progression, duties, and training strategies
- C.
qualification requirements such as knowledge and education
- D.
All the above
Correct Answer
D. All the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "All the above". Part 1 of the CFETP includes sections that provide general information about the plan, identify career progression, duties, and training strategies, as well as qualification requirements such as knowledge and education.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What are the three SNCO leadership positions discussed in the lesson?
- A.
HAF, WFM, CFM
- B.
WFM, CFM, WFM
- C.
CFM, HAF, MFM
- D.
CFM, WFM, MFM
Correct Answer
D. CFM, WFM, MFMExplanation
The correct answer is CFM, WFM, MFM. These are the three SNCO (Senior Non-Commissioned Officer) leadership positions discussed in the lesson.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What do you call the individual who is in charge of the HARM office?
- A.
CHARM/Superintendent
- B.
NCOIC
- C.
Majcom Functional Manager
- D.
HAF
Correct Answer
A. CHARM/SuperintendentExplanation
The individual in charge of the HARM office is commonly referred to as the CHARM/Superintendent. This person is responsible for overseeing the operations and management of the office, ensuring that all administrative tasks are carried out efficiently and effectively. They may also serve as a liaison between the HARM office and other departments or units within the organization. The term "CHARM" stands for Career Human Resource Manager, indicating their role in managing the human resources within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What identifies locally assigned duty position, home station training, and deployment training requirements not included in STS?
- A.
JQS
- B.
MTP
- C.
MTL
- D.
BQS
Correct Answer
A. JQSExplanation
JQS stands for Job Qualification Standard. It is a document that identifies locally assigned duty positions, home station training, and deployment training requirements that are not included in the Specialized Training Standard (STS). The JQS provides specific qualifications and training needed for a particular job or duty position, ensuring that individuals are properly trained and qualified to perform their assigned tasks.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is the purpose of the STRT?
- A.
Bring together expertise to have social engagement
- B.
Expertise needed to determine required education and training
- C.
Establish the most effective mix of OJT for Airman at each skill level
- D.
B and C only
Correct Answer
D. B and C onlyExplanation
The purpose of the STRT is to bring together expertise to determine the required education and training for individuals. Additionally, it aims to establish the most effective mix of on-the-job training (OJT) for Airmen at each skill level. This means that the STRT is focused on identifying the necessary expertise and training needed for individuals and finding the most effective OJT approach for them.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What serves as a log book to record your current training status and any training-related information?
- A.
623
- B.
Journal Entries
- C.
AF Form 1098
- D.
AF Form 803
Correct Answer
B. Journal EntriesExplanation
A journal serves as a log book to record your current training status and any training-related information. It allows you to document your progress, track your achievements, and note any important details or observations related to your training. By maintaining a journal, you can keep a record of your training history, track your goals, and reflect on your experiences to improve your future training sessions.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What product within TBA indicates all work center tasks to include, critical, position qualification?
- A.
MTP
- B.
MTL
- C.
JQS
- D.
STRT
Correct Answer
B. MTLExplanation
MTL stands for Master Task List. Within TBA (which stands for Training Business Area), the MTL product indicates all work center tasks to include critical position qualifications. This means that MTL provides a comprehensive list of tasks and qualifications that are necessary for a specific work center.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Where can you find the list duties and responsibilities of ARM personnel at each skill level?
- A.
Continuity Book
- B.
CFETP
- C.
ICW Sharepoint
- D.
MAJCOM Sharepoint
Correct Answer
B. CFETPExplanation
The CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan) is a document that outlines the duties and responsibilities of personnel at each skill level in a particular career field. It provides a comprehensive list of the required training, knowledge, and skills for each level. Therefore, the CFETP is the appropriate source to find the list of duties and responsibilities of ARM (Aircraft Armament Systems) personnel at each skill level.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which are responsibilities of the MFM?
- A.
Validate manpower requirements
- B.
Ensure personnel operate within the guidelines of the AFSC
- C.
Sets policy, guidelines, and administer the annual awards program
- D.
All the above
Correct Answer
D. All the aboveExplanation
The MFM, or Manpower and Force Management, has multiple responsibilities. They are responsible for validating manpower requirements, ensuring that personnel operate within the guidelines of the AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code), and setting policy, guidelines, and administering the annual awards program. Therefore, all the options listed - validating manpower requirements, ensuring personnel operate within AFSC guidelines, and setting policy and administering the annual awards program - are responsibilities of the MFM.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which best fits training requirements for 5 skill level?
- A.
5 lvl ICW, 24 months OJT, complete all duty position task
- B.
5 lvl ICW, 12 months OJT, complete all core task
- C.
5 lvl ICW, 6 months OJT, recommendation from supervisor
- D.
5 lvl ICW, 6 months OJT, recommendation from supervisor
Correct Answer
B. 5 lvl ICW, 12 months OJT, complete all core taskExplanation
The best fit for training requirements for 5 skill level is 5 lvl ICW, 12 months OJT, complete all core task. This option provides a sufficient duration of on-the-job training (12 months) and requires the completion of all core tasks, ensuring that the trainee has acquired the necessary skills and knowledge for the 5 skill level. The recommendation from the supervisor is not mentioned in this option, but it is not necessary as the completion of all core tasks serves as a comprehensive assessment of the trainee's abilities.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which functional area is responsible for requesting diplomatic clearances when U.S. aircraft enters foreign airspace?
- A.
SARM
- B.
Current Ops
- C.
HARM
- D.
MAJCOM
Correct Answer
B. Current OpsExplanation
Current Ops is responsible for requesting diplomatic clearances when U.S. aircraft enters foreign airspace. This functional area is in charge of coordinating and managing current operations, including flight planning and ensuring compliance with international regulations. They are responsible for obtaining the necessary clearances and permissions from foreign governments to ensure a smooth and legal entry into foreign airspace.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which functional area is the central station for all flight, jump and missileer management issues?
- A.
SARM
- B.
Current Ops
- C.
HARM
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. HARMExplanation
HARM (High-Speed Anti-Radiation Missile) is the correct answer because it is the central station for all flight, jump, and missileer management issues. HARM is responsible for managing and coordinating the operations related to flight, jump, and missileer activities. It is the functional area that oversees and controls these aspects, making it the central station for these management issues.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which group concentrates on issues affecting innovation, policy, and development affecting short/long term growth of the career field and any applicable aviation matters?
- A.
AWAC
- B.
AWG
- C.
ASG
- D.
AAG
Correct Answer
C. ASGExplanation
The group that concentrates on issues affecting innovation, policy, and development affecting short/long term growth of the career field and any applicable aviation matters is ASG.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which office is responsible for conducting go/no-go procedures, publishing flight authorizations, and performing pre/post mission reviews?
- A.
SARM
- B.
HARM
- C.
Current Ops
- D.
Aircrew Training
Correct Answer
A. SARMExplanation
SARM, which stands for Safety and Risk Management, is responsible for conducting go/no-go procedures, publishing flight authorizations, and performing pre/post mission reviews. This office ensures that all necessary safety protocols are followed before and after each mission, including evaluating whether it is safe to proceed with the mission (go) or not (no-go). They also handle the necessary paperwork and documentation, such as flight authorizations, to ensure that all necessary approvals and authorizations are obtained before the mission takes place.Rate this question:
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- 15.
3/5 LVL
- A.
Plan/supervise arm functions; Review training; Perform RM functions
- B.
Make recommendations; Design ARM policies, Provide justification
- C.
Conduct in/out processing;Â Compile/audit data; Schedule flying; Prepare AO
Correct Answer
C. Conduct in/out processing;Â Compile/audit data; Schedule flying; Prepare AOExplanation
The correct answer is Conduct in/out processing; Compile/audit data; Schedule flying; Prepare AO. This answer is correct because it accurately identifies the tasks and responsibilities associated with the given job level. Conducting in/out processing involves managing the administrative tasks related to personnel entering or leaving the organization. Compiling and auditing data involves gathering and reviewing information to ensure accuracy and compliance. Scheduling flying refers to organizing and coordinating flight schedules. Preparing AO (Administrative Orders) involves creating and documenting official instructions or guidelines. These tasks align with the job level described as 3/5 LVL.Rate this question:
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- 16.
7 LVL
- A.
Review aircrew training for accuracy; perform technical management functions; plan schedule arm functions
- B.
Compile/record audit forms; conduct in/out processing;
- C.
Account for equipment, space supplies; make changes to MFM for CFETP
Correct Answer
A. Review aircrew training for accuracy; perform technical management functions; plan schedule arm functionsExplanation
The correct answer is "review aircrew training for accuracy; perform technical management functions; plan schedule arm functions." This answer is correct because it accurately identifies the tasks that the individual at the 7 LVL should perform. These tasks include reviewing aircrew training for accuracy, performing technical management functions, and planning schedule arm functions.Rate this question:
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- 17.
9 LVL
- A.
Schedule ground training maintain info and plan data
- B.
Review aircrew training mission accomplishments
- C.
Design arm policies; coordinate submit and recommend changes
Correct Answer
C. Design arm policies; coordinate submit and recommend changesExplanation
The given answer, "design arm policies; coordinate submit and recommend changes," suggests that one of the tasks at the 9 LVL is to design policies related to armament (weapons) and coordinate the submission of these policies for approval. Additionally, this level may involve recommending changes to existing policies.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which AFI series number belongs to Missileers?
- A.
11
- B.
13
- C.
10
- D.
43
Correct Answer
B. 13Explanation
Missileers belong to the AFI series number 13.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which AFI/AFMAN directs the administration, responsibilities, minimum standards, and procedures for all USAF agencies and personnel conducting premeditated parachuting operations?
- A.
11-402
- B.
11-421
- C.
11-410
- D.
11-202
Correct Answer
C. 11-410Explanation
AFI 11-410 is the correct answer because it specifically directs the administration, responsibilities, minimum standards, and procedures for all USAF agencies and personnel conducting premeditated parachuting operations. This AFI provides guidance and regulations to ensure the safe and effective execution of parachuting operations within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which AFI/AFMAN establishes procedures for managing Air Force flying resources and provides guidance that applies to administering aircrew flight management programs?
- A.
11-410
- B.
11-421
- C.
11-401
- D.
11-402
Correct Answer
C. 11-401Explanation
AFI 11-401 is the correct answer because it establishes procedures for managing Air Force flying resources and provides guidance for administering aircrew flight management programs.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which AFI/AFMAN includes information on 1C0X2 career field training, deployment operations, and aircrew incentive pay?
- A.
11-402
- B.
11-401
- C.
11-421
- D.
11-410
Correct Answer
C. 11-421Explanation
AFI 11-421 is the correct answer because it includes information on 1C0X2 career field training, deployment operations, and aircrew incentive pay. This AFI provides guidance and regulations specific to the 1C0X2 career field, including information on training requirements, deployment procedures, and the eligibility and administration of aircrew incentive pay. It is a comprehensive resource for individuals in the 1C0X2 career field to reference for their training and operational needs.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which AFI/AFMAN would you use to find guidance on awarding USAF aeronautical ratings and badges?
- A.
11-402
- B.
11-401
- C.
11-421
- D.
11-410
Correct Answer
A. 11-402 -
- 23.
Which best describes how a supplement to an AFI is identified?
- A.
It carries higher headquarter designation
- B.
It carries higher headquarter designation and AFI number only
- C.
It carries higher headquarter designation, AFI number, and supplement number
- D.
It carries higher headquarter designation, AFI number, and SEI number
Correct Answer
C. It carries higher headquarter designation, AFI number, and supplement numberExplanation
A supplement to an AFI is identified by its higher headquarters designation, AFI number, and supplement number. This means that the supplement will have a unique identification number that includes information about the higher headquarters and the specific AFI it is supplementing. This helps to ensure that the supplement is easily identifiable and can be referenced correctly within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 24.
How long is the original altitude chamber training valid?
- A.
3 years expires on last day of month
- B.
5 years expires on last day of month
- C.
3 years expires on day last accomplished
- D.
5 years expires on day last accomplished
Correct Answer
B. 5 years expires on last day of monthExplanation
Altitude chamber training is a type of training that simulates high altitude conditions to prepare individuals for situations where they may be exposed to low oxygen levels. The original altitude chamber training is valid for 5 years, and it expires on the last day of the month. This means that after 5 years, the training needs to be renewed in order to ensure that individuals are up to date with the necessary skills and knowledge to handle high altitude situations.Rate this question:
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- 25.
How long may a rated officer remain on DNIF status without being medically disqualified?
- A.
120 days
- B.
90 days
- C.
365 days
- D.
180 days
Correct Answer
C. 365 daysExplanation
A rated officer may remain on DNIF (Duties Not Including Flying) status for up to 365 days without being medically disqualified. This means that if an officer is unable to perform flying duties due to a medical condition, they can still remain in their position for a year before being disqualified. This allows officers to receive medical treatment and potentially recover from their condition while still maintaining their position.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How many days does a member have to return the AF IMT 1274 upon arrival at home station?
- A.
5 days after arrival
- B.
10 days after arrival
- C.
7 days after arrival
- D.
3 days after arrival
Correct Answer
A. 5 days after arrivalExplanation
A member has 5 days after arrival at their home station to return the AF IMT 1274.Rate this question:
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- 27.
This type of training enhances combat capability and safety by optimizing aircrew defense against GLOC?
- A.
UFT training
- B.
Centrifuge training
- C.
Combat training
- D.
Ground Chemical Ensemble
Correct Answer
B. Centrifuge trainingExplanation
Centrifuge training is the correct answer because it is a type of training that enhances combat capability and safety by optimizing aircrew defense against GLOC (G-induced Loss of Consciousness). GLOC occurs when pilots experience excessive gravitational forces during high-performance maneuvers, leading to a temporary loss of consciousness. Centrifuge training involves exposing aircrew to simulated high G-forces in a controlled environment, allowing them to develop techniques to prevent GLOC and improve their ability to withstand such forces during combat situations. This training is crucial for maintaining the safety and effectiveness of aircrew during high-intensity operations.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Two types of career aviators are:
- A.
Ops Support and Parachutist
- B.
Rated and CEAs
- C.
Jump in-herent and non-jump inherent
- D.
All the above
Correct Answer
B. Rated and CEAsExplanation
Ops Support and Parachutist, Jump in-herent and non-jump inherent are not types of career aviators. The correct answer is Rated and CEAs. Rated aviators are those who hold a pilot rating, while CEAs (Career Enlisted Aviators) are enlisted personnel who have been trained and qualified in specific aviation roles.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What are some duties of an operational support flier?
- A.
In-flight diagnostics of aircraft
- B.
Medical assistance on actual emergency medical evacuations
- C.
Providing security support on air to ground surveillance of missile convoys
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The duties of an operational support flier include in-flight diagnostics of aircraft, providing medical assistance on actual emergency medical evacuations, and providing security support on air to ground surveillance of missile convoys. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."Rate this question:
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- 30.
What are some examples of personnel who are required to complete altitude chamber?
- A.
A. Active flying status
- B.
B. HAPs who participate in parachute operations of 10,000 feet MSL
- C.
C. Cilivan employees when required and approved by SQ CC
- D.
A and B
Correct Answer
D. A and BExplanation
Personnel who are required to complete an altitude chamber include those in active flying status and HAPs (High Altitude Parachutists) who participate in parachute operations at 10,000 feet MSL. This suggests that individuals who are actively involved in flying or parachute operations at high altitudes need to undergo altitude chamber training to acclimate their bodies to the changes in pressure and oxygen levels.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What date is used to establish the ASD for a Medical Officer?
- A.
Date of class start date
- B.
Date arrive duty station
- C.
Date of the AMP course certificate
- D.
Date departed last duty station
Correct Answer
C. Date of the AMP course certificateExplanation
The ASD (Active Service Date) for a Medical Officer is established based on the date of the AMP (Advanced Medical Professional) course certificate. This means that the officer's service officially begins on the date they have completed the required course and received the certificate. The AMP course is likely a prerequisite for the officer to start their duties as a Medical Officer.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What form is used to document flight pHAs?
- A.
AF Form 4324
- B.
AF Form 803
- C.
AF Form 2912
- D.
DD Form 2992
Correct Answer
D. DD Form 2992Explanation
DD Form 2992 is the correct answer because it is the form used to document flight PHAs. The other three options, AF Form 4324, AF Form 803, and AF Form 2912, are incorrect and not used for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is done with the DD Form 2992 that places a member in DNIF status?
- A.
Update ARMS and place in suspense file
- B.
Update ARMS and place in members folder
- C.
Shred it
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Update ARMS and place in suspense fileExplanation
When a member is placed in DNIF (Duties Not Including Flying) status, the DD Form 2992 is updated and placed in the suspense file. This is done to ensure that the member's status is properly documented and tracked. The suspense file serves as a centralized location for important documents that require further action or review. By updating ARMS (Aviation Resource Management System) and placing the form in the suspense file, the member's DNIF status can be effectively managed and monitored.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What is the duty AFSC prefix for an evalutor?
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
Q
- D.
E
Correct Answer
C. QExplanation
The duty AFSC prefix for an evaluator is "Q".Rate this question:
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- 35.
What publications outlines the different classes of medical examinations required to qualify an individual for flying duty?
- A.
AFI 48-122
- B.
AFI 48-123
- C.
AFI 44 -170
- D.
AFI 11-421
Correct Answer
B. AFI 48-123Explanation
AFI 48-123 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that outlines the different classes of medical examinations required for individuals to qualify for flying duty. This publication provides the guidelines and requirements for medical examinations for aircrew members and ensures that they are physically fit to perform their duties safely. AFI 48-123 covers the different classes of medical examinations, such as initial, periodic, and special examinations, and provides detailed information on the specific medical standards and criteria that must be met for each class.Rate this question:
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- 36.
When is periodic Flight pHA due?
- A.
365th day but will expire on 455th day
- B.
455th day
- C.
366th day but will expire after 455th day
- D.
456th day
Correct Answer
C. 366th day but will expire after 455th dayExplanation
The periodic Flight PHA is due on the 366th day, but it will expire after the 455th day. This means that the Flight PHA needs to be completed and renewed within one year (366 days), but it will remain valid for an additional 89 days (455 days total) before it expires.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which ARMS window is used to update the member's flight physical?
- A.
Flyer Availability Window
- B.
Aviation Service Window
- C.
Security Access Window
- D.
Resource Window
Correct Answer
A. Flyer Availability WindowExplanation
The Flyer Availability Window is used to update the member's flight physical. This window allows for the management of flight physicals and ensures that all necessary information is up to date. It is specifically designed to handle the availability of flyers and their physical fitness status, including any updates or changes that may be required.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Define Flying Class I
- A.
Qualifies undergraduate flight training students, rated officers, and physicians.
- B.
Qualifies individuals for non-rated and CEA flying duties.
- C.
Qualifies an aircrew member for selection into MFS and entry to UPT.
- D.
Qualifies an aircrew member for selection and entry to UNT.
Correct Answer
C. Qualifies an aircrew member for selection into MFS and entry to UPT.Explanation
This definition of Flying Class I states that it qualifies an aircrew member for selection into MFS (Military Flight Surgeon) and entry to UPT (Undergraduate Pilot Training). This means that individuals who fall under Flying Class I are eligible to be considered for the position of Military Flight Surgeon and can also enter the program for Undergraduate Pilot Training.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Define Flying Class II
- A.
Qualifies rated officers for non-ejection seat aircraft.
- B.
Qualifies undergraduate flight training students, rated officers, and physicians.
- C.
Qualifies rated officers for duty in low-G aircraft such as tanker, transport, and bomber.
Correct Answer
B. Qualifies undergraduate flight training students, rated officers, and pHysicians.Explanation
Flying Class II qualifies undergraduate flight training students, rated officers, and physicians. This means that individuals who fall under these categories are eligible to undergo Flying Class II training. The other options, such as qualifying rated officers for non-ejection seat aircraft or qualifying rated officers for duty in low-G aircraft, do not encompass the same range of individuals as the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Define Flying Class III
- A.
Qualifies individuals for non-rated and CEA flying duties.
- B.
Qualifies an aircrew member for selection and entry to UNT.
- C.
Qualifies rated officers for non-ejection seat aircraft.
Correct Answer
A. Qualifies individuals for non-rated and CEA flying duties.Explanation
Flying Class III is a qualification that enables individuals to perform non-rated and CEA (Crewmember Equivalent Aircrew) flying duties. This means that individuals who hold this qualification are eligible to carry out various flying tasks that do not require a specific rating or a Crewmember Equivalent Aircrew position. This qualification does not pertain to selection and entry to UNT (Undergraduate Navigator Training) or to rated officers for non-ejection seat aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Define Flying Class IA
- A.
Qualifies rated officers for non-ejection seat aircraft.
- B.
Qualifies rated officers for aviation duty specified in the Remarks section of the AF IMT 1042.
- C.
Qualifies an aircrew member for selection and entry to UNT.
Correct Answer
C. Qualifies an aircrew member for selection and entry to UNT. -
- 42.
Define Flying Class IIA
- A.
Qualifies undergraduate flight training students, rated officers, and physicians.
- B.
Qualifies rated officers for non-ejection seat aircraft.
- C.
Qualifies rated officers for duty in low-G aircraft such as tanker, transport, and bomber
Correct Answer
C. Qualifies rated officers for duty in low-G aircraft such as tanker, transport, and bomberExplanation
Flying Class IIA is a qualification that is specifically designed for rated officers. It enables them to perform their duties in low-G aircraft, including tanker, transport, and bomber planes. This qualification is important as it equips officers with the necessary skills and knowledge to safely operate in these types of aircraft, which typically experience lower levels of gravitational force. By obtaining this qualification, rated officers can effectively carry out their responsibilities in these specific aircraft and contribute to the overall mission success.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Define Flying Class IIB
- A.
Qualifies rated officers for non-ejection seat aircraft.
- B.
Qualifies an aircrew member for selection and entry to UNT.
- C.
Qualifies rated officers for aviation duty specified in the Remarks section of the AF IMT 1042.
Correct Answer
A. Qualifies rated officers for non-ejection seat aircraft.Explanation
Flying Class IIB qualifies rated officers for non-ejection seat aircraft. This means that officers who have completed Flying Class IIB are eligible to operate and fly in aircraft that do not have ejection seats. This qualification ensures that officers have the necessary training and skills to safely operate these types of aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Define Flying Class IIC
- A.
Qualifies individuals for non-rated and CEA flying duties.
- B.
Qualifies rated officers for non-ejection seat aircraft.
- C.
Qualifies rated officers for aviation duty specified in the Remarks section of the AF IMT 1042.
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
C. Qualifies rated officers for aviation duty specified in the Remarks section of the AF IMT 1042. -
- 45.
A navigator formerly qualified as a pilot may qualify for what type of advanced rating?
- A.
Advanced Pilot Rating
- B.
Both Advanced Pilot and Navigator Rating
- C.
Advanced Navigator Rating
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Advanced Navigator RatingExplanation
A navigator who was previously qualified as a pilot may qualify for an Advanced Navigator Rating. This rating acknowledges their previous experience and allows them to further advance their skills and knowledge in navigation. It is a specialized rating that focuses on the navigational aspects of flying, rather than the piloting aspects.Rate this question:
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- 46.
How many combat missions must be competed in a combat zone to permanently award basic airman aircrew member badge?
- A.
5
- B.
20
- C.
15
- D.
10
Correct Answer
D. 10Explanation
To permanently award the basic airman aircrew member badge, a total of 10 combat missions must be completed in a combat zone. This suggests that the badge is given as a recognition of experience and skill gained through participating in a significant number of combat missions.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which of these is not considered a basic rating?
- A.
Combat Systems Officer
- B.
Airman Aircrew Member
- C.
Air Battle Manager
- D.
Pilot
Correct Answer
B. Airman Aircrew MemberExplanation
The question asks for a rating that is not considered basic. The options include Combat Systems Officer, Airman Aircrew Member, Air Battle Manager, and Pilot. The correct answer is Airman Aircrew Member because it is not considered a basic rating.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Who has the authority to award the basic ABM rating?
- A.
AETC CC
- B.
AMC CC
- C.
HAF
- D.
ACC CC
Correct Answer
A. AETC CCExplanation
The AETC CC, or Air Education and Training Command Commander, has the authority to award the basic ABM rating. This individual is responsible for overseeing the training and education of Air Force personnel, including those in the Air Battle Manager (ABM) career field. As the commander of the AETC, they have the power to authorize and award this rating to qualified individuals who have completed the necessary training and met the required standards.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Aeronautical orders can be classified into how many types?
- A.
Single, New, Revoke
- B.
New, Revoke, Active
- C.
Regular, Amendment, Revoke
- D.
Single, Multiple, Revoke
Correct Answer
C. Regular, Amendment, RevokeExplanation
The correct answer is "Regular, Amendment, Revoke." Aeronautical orders can be classified into these three types. Regular orders are the standard orders that are issued without any changes or modifications. Amendment orders are issued to make changes or additions to the regular orders. Revoke orders are issued to cancel or withdraw the regular or amendment orders.Rate this question:
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- 50.
How many months of OFDA are accumulated when a pilot flies on 12 Feb and doesn't fly again until 22 Jun?
- A.
Four months (Feb, Mar, Apr, May)
- B.
Four months (Mar, Apr, May, Jun)
- C.
Three months (Mar, Apr, May)
- D.
Three months (Apr, May, Jun)
Correct Answer
A. Four months (Feb, Mar, Apr, May)Explanation
When a pilot flies on 12 Feb and doesn't fly again until 22 Jun, the accumulated months of OFDA (Operational Flight Duty Period) are from February to May. This is because the pilot flew in February, March, April, and May, totaling four months.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Jan 30, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 14, 2020Quiz Created by
John
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