Antihistamines, GI, And Diuretics

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| By Jacquelyn Kulish
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Jacquelyn Kulish
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 152
Questions: 21 | Attempts: 152

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Antihistamines, GI, And Diuretics - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which clinical effect is NOT seen with agonists of H1 (histamine-1) receptors?

    • A.

      Bronchoconstriction

    • B.

      Increased gastric acid secretion  

    • C.

      Vasodilation

    • D.

      Pruritis

    Correct Answer
    B. Increased gastric acid secretion  
    Explanation
    Agonists of H1 receptors are known to cause bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, and pruritus. However, they do not cause increased gastric acid secretion. H1 receptor agonists are commonly used to treat allergic reactions and are known to have these effects on the body. Increased gastric acid secretion is associated with other factors such as stress, certain medications, and certain medical conditions, but it is not a direct effect of H1 receptor agonists.

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  • 2. 

    You're working emergency at a 24 hour clinic. A 2 year old NM Golden Retriever presents to you for a wasp sting. His snout is swollen and the owner said it's getting progressively worse. Which of the following drugs is the treatment of choice to control this hypersensitivity?

    • A.

      Omeprazole

    • B.

      Hydroxzine 

    • C.

      Diphenhydramine

    • D.

      Oclacitinib

    Correct Answer
    C. DipHenhydramine
    Explanation
    Diphenhydramine is the treatment of choice to control hypersensitivity reactions like a wasp sting in dogs. It is an antihistamine that helps relieve swelling, itching, and other allergic symptoms. It works by blocking the effect of histamine, a substance released during an allergic reaction. Omeprazole is a medication used to reduce stomach acid and is not indicated for allergic reactions. Hydroxyzine is another antihistamine but is not the drug of choice for this specific situation. Oclacitinib is a medication used for the long-term management of allergic skin conditions but may not provide immediate relief in an acute allergic reaction.

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  • 3. 

    What is the clinical use of oclacitinib?

    • A.

      Allergic dermatopathy

    • B.

      Type I hypersensitivity 

    • C.

      Asthma 

    • D.

      Anaphylaxis 

    Correct Answer
    A. Allergic dermatopathy
    Explanation
    Oclacitinib is clinically used for treating allergic dermatopathy. Allergic dermatopathy is a skin condition caused by allergies, resulting in itching, inflammation, and discomfort. Oclacitinib is a medication that specifically targets and inhibits certain enzymes involved in the inflammatory response, providing relief from the symptoms of allergic dermatopathy. It is not used for treating Type I hypersensitivity, asthma, or anaphylaxis.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following drugs inhibits JAK receptors?

    • A.

      Omeprazole

    • B.

      Hydroxyzine

    • C.

      Zafirkulast

    • D.

      Oclacitinib 

    Correct Answer
    D. Oclacitinib 
    Explanation
    Oclacitinib is the correct answer because it is a drug that specifically inhibits JAK (Janus kinase) receptors. JAK receptors are involved in the signaling pathway of various cytokines and growth factors, and their inhibition can be used in the treatment of certain inflammatory conditions. Omeprazole, Hydroxyzine, and Zafirkulast are not known to inhibit JAK receptors and have different mechanisms of action.

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  • 5. 

    Which drug can be used for adjunct treatment of feline asthma?

    • A.

      Apoquel

    • B.

      Loratadine

    • C.

      Hydroxyzine

    • D.

      Zafirkulast

    Correct Answer
    D. Zafirkulast
    Explanation
    Zafirkulast can be used as an adjunct treatment for feline asthma. Feline asthma is a chronic respiratory condition in cats that causes inflammation and narrowing of the airways. Zafirkulast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that helps to reduce inflammation and relax the airways, making it easier for the cat to breathe. By using Zafirkulast alongside other asthma medications, it can help to improve the overall management and control of feline asthma symptoms.

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  • 6. 

    What is trazodone's mechanism of action?

    • A.

      Serotonin antagonist reuptake inhibitor

    • B.

      JAK-1 and JAK-3 inhibitor

    • C.

      Leukotriene receptor antagonist

    • D.

      HI antagonism

    Correct Answer
    A. Serotonin antagonist reuptake inhibitor
    Explanation
    Trazodone's mechanism of action is as a serotonin antagonist reuptake inhibitor. This means that it blocks the reuptake of serotonin, a neurotransmitter, in the brain, leading to increased levels of serotonin in the synaptic cleft. This helps to alleviate symptoms of depression and anxiety, as serotonin is involved in regulating mood.

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  • 7. 

    What is the mechanism of action of 3% hydrogen peroxide as an emetic?

    • A.

      D agonism of the CRTZ

    • B.

      Serotonin antagonist

    • C.

      Direct irritation of the GIT mucosa

    • D.

      Alpha-2 agonism of the CRTZ

    Correct Answer
    C. Direct irritation of the GIT mucosa
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Direct irritation of the GIT mucosa." 3% hydrogen peroxide acts as an emetic by directly irritating the gastrointestinal (GIT) mucosa. This irritation stimulates the vomiting reflex, leading to the expulsion of stomach contents. It does not act through D agonism of the CRTZ, serotonin antagonism, or alpha-2 agonism of the CRTZ.

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  • 8. 

    The emetic effect of apomorphine can be reversed with naloxone.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the emetic effect of apomorphine cannot be reversed with naloxone. Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist that is used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose, but it does not have any effect on the emetic properties of apomorphine. Apomorphine is a dopamine agonist that is commonly used to induce vomiting in cases of poisoning or overdose, and its emetic effect cannot be reversed by naloxone.

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  • 9. 

    Which drug is most effective for appetite stimulation in cats?

    • A.

      Cyproheptadine

    • B.

      Mirtazapine

    • C.

      Capromorelin

    • D.

      Maropitant

    Correct Answer
    A. Cyproheptadine
    Explanation
    Cyproheptadine is the most effective drug for appetite stimulation in cats.

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  • 10. 

    What is FALSE regarding maropitant citrate?

    • A.

      It is used to treat acute vomiting

    • B.

      It's safe to use in patients with possible obstruction

    • C.

      It is a neurokinin antagonist

    • D.

      It works centrally 

    Correct Answer
    B. It's safe to use in patients with possible obstruction
    Explanation
    Maropitant citrate is a neurokinin antagonist used to treat acute vomiting in animals. However, it is not safe to use in patients with possible obstruction. This is because maropitant citrate works centrally, meaning it acts on the central nervous system to prevent vomiting. If there is a possible obstruction, using maropitant citrate may mask the symptoms and delay appropriate treatment, potentially leading to further complications.

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  • 11. 

    Which antiemetic carries some prokinetic effects?

    • A.

      Ondansentron

    • B.

      Maropitant

    • C.

      Mirtazapine

    • D.

      Metoclopramide

    Correct Answer
    D. Metoclopramide
    Explanation
    Metoclopramide is the correct answer because it is an antiemetic medication that also has prokinetic effects. Prokinetic agents help to improve gastrointestinal motility and accelerate the movement of food through the digestive system. This can be beneficial in treating conditions such as gastroparesis, where there is delayed emptying of the stomach. Metoclopramide works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain and increasing the release of acetylcholine, which enhances gastrointestinal motility. Ondansetron, Maropitant, and Mirtazapine are all antiemetic medications, but they do not have prokinetic effects.

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  • 12. 

    Proton pump inhibitors are more potent than H2 blockers.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are indeed more potent than H2 blockers. PPIs work by inhibiting the action of the proton pump in the stomach, which reduces the production of stomach acid. This leads to a more effective and longer-lasting reduction in acid secretion compared to H2 blockers, which only block the histamine receptors that stimulate acid production. PPIs are commonly used to treat conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers, and they are generally considered to be more effective in reducing stomach acid production.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following drugs works by inhibition of H2 receptors?

    • A.

      Misoprostol

    • B.

      Sucralfate

    • C.

      Omeprazole

    • D.

      Famotidine

    Correct Answer
    D. Famotidine
    Explanation
    Famotidine works by inhibiting H2 receptors. H2 receptors are found on the cells in the stomach lining and are responsible for the production of stomach acid. By inhibiting these receptors, famotidine reduces the production of stomach acid, making it an effective drug for treating conditions such as acid reflux, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and stomach ulcers. This helps to alleviate symptoms such as heartburn, indigestion, and stomach pain. Famotidine belongs to a class of drugs known as H2 blockers or H2 antagonists, which specifically target and block the action of H2 receptors.

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  • 14. 

    What medication would be the best choice to treat a patient with an active upper GI ulcer?

    • A.

      Sucralfate

    • B.

      Misoprostol 

    • C.

      Omeprazole

    • D.

      Cimetidine 

    Correct Answer
    A. Sucralfate
    Explanation
    Sucralfate would be the best choice to treat a patient with an active upper GI ulcer because it forms a protective barrier over the ulcer, preventing further damage and allowing it to heal. Misoprostol is primarily used to prevent ulcers, not to treat active ones. Omeprazole and Cimetidine are both proton pump inhibitors that reduce stomach acid production, but they do not directly protect the ulcer from further damage like sucralfate does.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following conditions can be treated with lactulose? (Select all that apply)

    • A.

      Active upper GI ulcer

    • B.

      Cholestasis

    • C.

      Megacolon

    • D.

      Hepatic encephalopathy 

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Megacolon
    D. Hepatic encepHalopathy 
    Explanation
    Lactulose can be used to treat both megacolon and hepatic encephalopathy. Megacolon is a condition where the colon becomes enlarged and dilated, leading to constipation and difficulty passing stool. Lactulose helps by increasing the water content and softening the stool, making it easier to pass. Hepatic encephalopathy is a condition where there is a buildup of toxins in the blood due to liver dysfunction. Lactulose helps by reducing the amount of ammonia in the blood, which can improve symptoms such as confusion and disorientation.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is an antidote for acetaminophen toxicity?

    • A.

      Lactulose

    • B.

      N-acetylcysteine

    • C.

      S-adenosyl-methionine

    • D.

      Ursodiol

    Correct Answer
    B. N-acetylcysteine
    Explanation
    N-acetylcysteine is the correct answer because it is an antidote for acetaminophen toxicity. Acetaminophen, also known as paracetamol, is a commonly used pain reliever and fever reducer. However, in high doses, it can cause liver damage. N-acetylcysteine works by replenishing glutathione, a substance in the liver that helps detoxify acetaminophen. By restoring glutathione levels, N-acetylcysteine helps prevent or reduce liver damage caused by acetaminophen overdose.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following diuretics is potassium-sparing?

    • A.

      Mannitol

    • B.

      Spironolactone

    • C.

      Furosemide

    • D.

      Hydrochlorothiazide

    Correct Answer
    B. Spironolactone
    Explanation
    Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic because it works by blocking the action of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes sodium and water retention while increasing potassium excretion. By inhibiting aldosterone, spironolactone helps to increase the excretion of sodium and water while decreasing the excretion of potassium, making it a potassium-sparing diuretic. Mannitol, furosemide, and hydrochlorothiazide are not potassium-sparing diuretics.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following diuretics is the drug of choice for treating cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

    • A.

      Furosemide

    • B.

      Mannitol

    • C.

      Spironolactone

    • D.

      Acetazolamide

    Correct Answer
    A. Furosemide
    Explanation
    Furosemide is the drug of choice for treating cardiogenic pulmonary edema because it is a loop diuretic that acts on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption. This leads to increased urinary excretion of sodium, chloride, and water, reducing fluid overload in the lungs. Furosemide is particularly effective in cases of pulmonary edema caused by heart failure, as it helps to alleviate the increased fluid volume and congestion in the lungs.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following diuretics is the drug of choice for treating cerebral edema

    • A.

      Mannitol

    • B.

      Furisemide

    • C.

      Spironolactone

    • D.

      Acetazolamide

    Correct Answer
    A. Mannitol
    Explanation
    Mannitol is the drug of choice for treating cerebral edema because it is an osmotic diuretic that works by drawing water out of the brain tissue and into the bloodstream, reducing swelling and pressure. It is able to cross the blood-brain barrier and exert its effects directly on the brain. This makes it an effective treatment for conditions such as cerebral edema, where there is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the brain. Furisemide, Spironolactone, and Acetazolamide are diuretics used for other conditions, but they are not specifically indicated for treating cerebral edema.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following diuretics acts on sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule?

    • A.

      Furosemide

    • B.

      Acetazolamide

    • C.

      Spironolactone

    • D.

      Hydrochlorothiazide

    Correct Answer
    D. Hydrochlorothiazide
    Explanation
    Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that acts on sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule. It inhibits the sodium-chloride symporter in the distal convoluted tubule, preventing the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions from the tubular fluid back into the bloodstream. This results in increased excretion of sodium and water, leading to diuresis. Furosemide, acetazolamide, and spironolactone act on different parts of the renal tubules and have different mechanisms of action.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following diuretics does not risk hypokalemia?

    • A.

      Acetazolamide

    • B.

      Hydrochlorothiazide

    • C.

      Mannitol

    • D.

      Spironolactone

    Correct Answer
    D. Spironolactone
    Explanation
    Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by blocking the action of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion in the kidneys. By inhibiting aldosterone, spironolactone helps to retain potassium in the body and reduce the risk of hypokalemia, which is a low potassium level in the blood. In contrast, Acetazolamide, Hydrochlorothiazide, and Mannitol are all diuretics that can increase the excretion of potassium, leading to a higher risk of hypokalemia.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 03, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Jacquelyn Kulish
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