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This exam is designed for student who currently are taking medical lab procedures.
Questions and Answers
1.
All of the following are true regarding hematology except:
A.
Hematology focus chiefly on the study of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets.
B.
Hematology involves counting, classifying, or otherwise studying the blood components and the blood-forming organs
C.
Hematology tests all require a blood sample analysis
D.
Another important aspect of hematology is the investigation of coagulation abnormalities
E.
Hematology is the study of blood and the blood-forming organs
Correct Answer
C. Hematology tests all require a blood sample analysis
Explanation The statement "hematology tests all require a blood sample analysis" is incorrect. While hematology does involve analyzing blood samples, not all tests require a blood sample analysis. Some tests in hematology, such as bone marrow biopsy or genetic testing, may not require a blood sample.
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2.
What is the correct percent for normal test sample?
A.
20-25%
B.
37-46%
C.
47-57%
D.
10%
Correct Answer
B. 37-46%
Explanation The correct percent for a normal test sample is 37-46%. This range indicates that the test sample falls within the normal range of values. Percentages outside of this range may suggest abnormal or atypical results.
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3.
The volume of RBC's packed by centrifugation in a given volume of blood is called
A.
Hematocrit
B.
Microhematocrit
C.
Interface
D.
Meniscus
Correct Answer
A. Hematocrit
Explanation Hematocrit refers to the volume of red blood cells (RBCs) that are packed by centrifugation in a given volume of blood. It is a measure of the proportion of RBCs in the blood and is typically expressed as a percentage. This value is important in diagnosing and monitoring conditions such as anemia, polycythemia, and dehydration. Hematocrit levels can vary depending on factors such as age, sex, and overall health.
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4.
The three interfaces include all the following except:
A.
The bottom of the packed RBC layer
B.
The top of the packed RBC layer
C.
The meniscus of the plasma at the top of the tube
D.
In the middle of the packed RBC layer
Correct Answer
D. In the middle of the packed RBC layer
Explanation The three interfaces mentioned in the question are the bottom of the packed RBC layer, the top of the packed RBC layer, and the meniscus of the plasma at the top of the tube. The correct answer states that the interface in the middle of the packed RBC layer is not included. This means that there is no interface or boundary found within the packed RBC layer itself.
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5.
A condition resulting from excessive loss of body fluid is called:
A.
Polycthemia
B.
Anemia
C.
Dehydration
D.
Leukemia
Correct Answer
C. Dehydration
Explanation Dehydration is the correct answer because it refers to a condition that occurs when there is excessive loss of body fluid. This loss of fluid can be caused by various factors such as excessive sweating, vomiting, diarrhea, or not drinking enough fluids. When the body doesn't have enough water, it can lead to symptoms like dry mouth, fatigue, dizziness, and decreased urine output. It is important to replenish lost fluids to prevent dehydration, as severe cases can be life-threatening.
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6.
What are normal ranges for women?
A.
40%-54%
B.
44%-64%
C.
32%-41%
D.
38%-47%
Correct Answer
D. 38%-47%
Explanation The normal range for women is typically 38%-47%. This range refers to the percentage of body fat that is considered normal for women. Body fat percentage can vary based on factors such as age, genetics, and overall health. The given range falls within the normal range for women's body fat percentage, indicating a healthy level of body fat.
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7.
What are normal ranges for newborns?
A.
40%-54%
B.
44%-64%
C.
32%-41%
D.
38%-47%
Correct Answer
C. 32%-41%
Explanation The normal ranges for newborns are 32%-41%. This means that the expected values for certain measurements or parameters in newborns fall within this range. It is important to monitor these ranges to ensure that newborns are healthy and developing properly.
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8.
Name the three layers which whole blood separates after centrifugation
A.
Erythrocytes, plasma and red blood cells
B.
Red blood cells, erythrocytes, and buffy coat
C.
Plasma, buffy coat, and red blood cells
D.
Buffy coat, plasma, and white blood cells
Correct Answer
C. Plasma, buffy coat, and red blood cells
Explanation After centrifugation, whole blood separates into three layers: plasma, buffy coat, and red blood cells. The plasma is the top layer, which is the liquid component of blood that contains proteins, electrolytes, and other substances. The buffy coat is the middle layer, consisting of white blood cells and platelets. The red blood cells settle at the bottom layer. Therefore, the correct answer is plasma, buffy coat, and red blood cells.
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9.
Two types of microhematocrit are:
A.
A red line and a blue line
B.
A red line and white line
C.
A blue and a white line
D.
A red and a green line
Correct Answer
A. A red line and a blue line
Explanation The correct answer is A red line and a blue line. This is because in microhematocrit, a red line is used to mark the packed red blood cells and a blue line is used to mark the plasma or fluid portion of the blood. These lines are important for accurate measurement and separation of the blood components during the procedure.
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10.
Norma flora:
A.
Harmless microorganisms that inhabit surfaces of the body that may otherwise be colonized by pathogens.
B.
Skin, mucous membranes, tears, gastric juice, and other body fluids that act as physical barriers or chemical deterrents hindering pathogens from gaining entry into the body.
C.
A response that controls or arrests the spread of infection and accelerates the healing process.
D.
Mainly neutrophils and mononuclear phagocytes that wander throughout the body seeking out and engulfing foreign material.
Correct Answer
A. Harmless microorganisms that inhabit surfaces of the body that may otherwise be colonized by pathogens.
Explanation Norma flora refers to the harmless microorganisms that live on the surfaces of the body, such as the skin, mucous membranes, tears, gastric juice, and other body fluids. These microorganisms act as a natural defense mechanism, preventing the colonization of pathogens. They create a physical barrier or produce chemical deterrents that hinder the entry of pathogens into the body. This helps to maintain the body's overall health and prevent infections.
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11.
Inflammation:
A.
Harmless microorganisms that inhabit surfaces of the body that may otherwise be colonized by pathogens.
B.
Skin, mucous membranes, tears, gastric juice, and other body fluids that act as physical barriers or chemical deterrents hindering pathogens from gaining entry into the body.
C.
A response that controls or arrests the spread of infection and accelerates the healing process.
D.
Mainly neutrophils and mononuclear phagocytes that wander throughout the body seeking out and engulfing foreign material.
Correct Answer
C. A response that controls or arrests the spread of infection and accelerates the healing process.
Explanation Inflammation is a response by the body that helps to control or stop the spread of infection and promote the healing process. It involves the activation of immune cells, such as neutrophils and mononuclear phagocytes, which seek out and engulf foreign material. Inflammation is triggered by harmful microorganisms that may otherwise colonize the body and cause disease. The body's physical barriers and chemical deterrents, such as the skin, mucous membranes, tears, and gastric juice, also play a role in preventing pathogens from entering the body.
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12.
The characteristics of the adaptive immune response include all of the following except:
A.
Recognition
B.
Speech
C.
Specificity
D.
Memory
Correct Answer
B. Speech
13.
The immune system consists of two major responses categories in the host:
A.
Cellular response and cellular immunity
B.
Cellular immunity and humoral response
C.
Cellular response and humoral response
D.
Humoral and antibody immunity
Correct Answer
C. Cellular response and humoral response
Explanation The immune system consists of two major responses: cellular response and humoral response. The cellular response involves the activation of immune cells, such as T cells and natural killer cells, which directly attack and destroy pathogens. On the other hand, the humoral response involves the production of antibodies by B cells, which neutralize pathogens and mark them for destruction by other immune cells. Both responses are crucial in defending the body against infections and maintaining overall immune function.
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14.
Cells that break down antigens and display their fragments on the surface recptors is called:
A.
Mediated
B.
Antigen presenting cell (APC)
C.
Complement
D.
Lysis
Correct Answer
B. Antigen presenting cell (APC)
Explanation An antigen presenting cell (APC) is a type of cell that breaks down antigens and displays fragments of these antigens on its surface receptors. This process is important for the immune system to recognize and respond to foreign substances, such as bacteria or viruses. APCs include dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells. They play a crucial role in initiating and regulating immune responses by presenting antigens to other immune cells, such as T cells.
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15.
The five types of immunoglobulins are:
A.
IgA, IgB, IgM, IgE, and IgC
B.
IgS, IgA, IgM, IgC, and IgE
C.
IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, and IgE
D.
IgA, IgC, IgM, IgL, and IgE
Correct Answer
C. IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, and IgE
Explanation The correct answer is IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, and IgE. These are the five types of immunoglobulins or antibodies found in the human body. IgG is the most abundant antibody and provides long-term immunity. IgA is found in body secretions such as saliva and breast milk, providing localized immunity. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection. IgD is found on the surface of B cells and is involved in the activation of the immune response. IgE is involved in allergic reactions and defense against parasites.
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16.
The formation of the relatively large, insoluble aggregates consisting of soluable antibodies attached to particles such as bacteria, blood cells, and latex beads is called:
A.
Precipitation
B.
Agglutination
C.
Lysis
D.
Radioimmunosassay
Correct Answer
B. Agglutination
Explanation Agglutination refers to the process of forming large, insoluble aggregates by soluble antibodies attaching to particles like bacteria, blood cells, and latex beads. This process leads to the visible clumping or aggregation of these particles. Precipitation, on the other hand, involves the formation of insoluble complexes when antibodies react with soluble antigens. Lysis refers to the breaking down or destruction of cells. Radioimmunoassay is a technique used to measure the concentration of antigens or antibodies in a sample using radioactive isotopes.
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17.
Immunology is called:
A.
The unique specificity of an antibody for its antigen is the basis for a type of laboratory testing.
B.
The most effective diagnostic and therapeutic tools in the physician's arsenal of laboratory testing techniques
C.
The type of protection that is characterized by recognition, specificity, and memory
D.
The state of being protected from diseases
Correct Answer
A. The unique specificity of an antibody for its antigen is the basis for a type of laboratory testing.
Explanation Immunology is called the unique specificity of an antibody for its antigen is the basis for a type of laboratory testing because this statement highlights the fundamental principle of immunology. The specificity of antibodies allows them to recognize and bind to specific antigens, which forms the basis for various laboratory tests such as ELISA and Western blotting. These tests rely on the interaction between antibodies and antigens to detect and analyze various diseases and conditions. Therefore, this statement accurately describes the role of immunology in laboratory testing.
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18.
What is Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)?
A.
The procress of solids settling out of a liquid in which they have been dissolved or suspended.
B.
A nonspecific laboratory test that determines the rate at which erythrocytes separate from plasma and settle to the bottom of a tube.
C.
A group of red blood cells that is arranged like a roll of coins
D.
Erythrocytes that assume a spheroid shape
Correct Answer
B. A nonspecific laboratory test that determines the rate at which erythrocytes separate from plasma and settle to the bottom of a tube.
Explanation Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) is a laboratory test that measures the rate at which red blood cells separate from plasma and settle to the bottom of a tube. It is a nonspecific test used to detect inflammation or infection in the body. The test involves measuring the distance that the red blood cells have descended in a given amount of time, typically one hour. A higher ESR value indicates increased inflammation or infection in the body.
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19.
Factors that influence the erythrocyte sedimentation rate include all the following except:
A.
Size of the erythrocytes
B.
Concentration of the erythrocytes
C.
Shape of the erythrocytes
D.
Color of the plasma proteins
E.
Composition of the plasma proteins
Correct Answer
D. Color of the plasma proteins
Explanation The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a measure of how quickly red blood cells settle at the bottom of a tube of blood. Factors that influence ESR include the size, concentration, and shape of the erythrocytes, as well as the composition of the plasma proteins. However, the color of the plasma proteins does not affect the ESR. The ESR is primarily influenced by the presence of inflammation or infection in the body, as these conditions can cause changes in the plasma proteins that affect the rate at which the red blood cells settle.
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20.
Sedimentation is:
A.
The procress of solids settling out of a liquid in which they have been dissolved or suspended.
B.
A nonspecific laboratory test that determines the rate at which erythrocytes separate from plasma and settle to the bottom of a tube.
C.
A group of red blood cells that is arranged like a roll of coins
D.
Erythrocytes that assume a spheroid shape
Correct Answer
A. The procress of solids settling out of a liquid in which they have been dissolved or suspended.
Explanation Sedimentation refers to the process in which solid particles that were previously dissolved or suspended in a liquid settle down to the bottom. This can occur due to the force of gravity or other factors. It is a natural phenomenon that can be observed in various contexts, such as in geological processes, water treatment, or in laboratory tests. In this case, the correct answer accurately describes sedimentation as the process of solids settling out of a liquid in which they have been dissolved or suspended.
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21.
The 5 major types of the DIFF (Differential Blood Count) include
A.
Band cells, basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils, and monocytes
B.
Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes
C.
Lymphocytes, band cells, monocytes, basophils, and neutrophils
D.
Neutrophils and Lymphocytes
Correct Answer
B. NeutropHils, eosinopHils, basopHils, lympHocytes, and monocytes
Explanation The correct answer includes the five major types of cells that are counted in a Differential Blood Count (DIFF). These types of cells are neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes. This test is used to determine the percentages of each type of cell in the blood, which can provide valuable information about a person's immune system and overall health.
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22.
All of the information regarding platelets are true except:
A.
They can actually be seen on a DIFF if you look closely
B.
They look like small purple dots
C.
They can be made by counting the number per each oil immersion field
D.
They include abnormal shapes
Correct Answer
D. They include abnormal shapes
Explanation The given answer states that platelets do not include abnormal shapes. Platelets are actually known to have abnormal shapes, such as being disc-shaped or having irregular projections. This is a characteristic feature of platelets and helps them perform their functions in blood clotting. Therefore, the given answer is incorrect.
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23.
What kind of function do you have if you have allergic situations?
A.
Eosinophils
B.
Lymphocytes
C.
Neutrophils
D.
Monocytes
Correct Answer
A. EosinopHils
Explanation Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that are involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections. They are responsible for releasing substances that help to control inflammation and fight off invading pathogens. Therefore, if you have allergic situations, an increase in eosinophils may be observed in your blood.
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24.
Which function do you have if you have severe infections?
A.
Eosinophils
B.
Lymphocytes
C.
Neutrophils
D.
Monocytes
Correct Answer
D. Monocytes
Explanation Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune response against severe infections. They are responsible for engulfing and destroying pathogens, as well as presenting antigens to other immune cells. Therefore, having an increased number of monocytes indicates a severe infection, as they are recruited to the site of infection to help fight off the pathogens.
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25.
What kind of function do you have if you have leukemia?
A.
Lymphocytes
B.
Neutrophils
C.
Basophils
D.
Monocytes
Correct Answer
C. BasopHils
Explanation Basophils are a type of white blood cell that is involved in the immune response and inflammation. Leukemia is a type of cancer that affects the white blood cells, including basophils. Therefore, if someone has leukemia, it means that their basophils are affected and not functioning properly.
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26.
The 1st defense of anatomical barriers include:
A.
Skin, mucous membrane, tears, acidic pH in stomach
B.
Phagocytosis, natural killer cells, inflammation, complement system
Correct Answer
A. Skin, mucous membrane, tears, acidic pH in stomach
Explanation The correct answer includes the anatomical barriers that the body has to defend against pathogens. The skin acts as a physical barrier, preventing pathogens from entering the body. Mucous membranes line various parts of the body and produce mucus that can trap pathogens. Tears contain enzymes that can destroy pathogens. The acidic pH in the stomach helps to kill pathogens that are ingested. These barriers are the body's first line of defense against pathogens.
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27.
The 2nd line of defense of non-specific immune response:
A.
Skin, mucous membrane, tears, acidic pH in stomach
B.
Phagocytosis, natural killer cells, inflammation, complement system
Correct Answer
B. pHagocytosis, natural killer cells, inflammation, complement system
Explanation The second line of defense in the non-specific immune response includes various mechanisms that work together to eliminate pathogens. Phagocytosis is the process by which specialized cells engulf and destroy foreign particles. Natural killer cells are able to recognize and kill infected cells. Inflammation is a response that helps to isolate and eliminate pathogens, while the complement system is a group of proteins that can directly kill pathogens and enhance the immune response. Together, these mechanisms form the second line of defense against pathogens.
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28.
Red blood cells that are larger than normal are called:
A.
Macrocytes
B.
Microcytes
C.
Anisocytosis
D.
Poikilocytosis
Correct Answer
A. Macrocytes
Explanation Macrocytes are red blood cells that are larger than normal. This condition is known as macrocytosis. It can be caused by various factors, including vitamin B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, alcohol abuse, and certain medications. Macrocytes can be observed in a blood smear under a microscope and are often associated with specific medical conditions such as megaloblastic anemia.
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29.
Marked variation in the size of the erythrocytes is called:
A.
Macrocytes
B.
Microcytes
C.
Anisocytosis
D.
Poikilocytosis
Correct Answer
C. Anisocytosis
Explanation Anisocytosis refers to the marked variation in the size of erythrocytes. This condition is characterized by the presence of both larger and smaller red blood cells in the bloodstream. It can be caused by various factors such as nutritional deficiencies, certain diseases, or bone marrow disorders. Anisocytosis is typically detected through a blood smear examination and can provide important diagnostic information about the underlying health condition.
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30.
How many lobes does Neutrophil usually have?
A.
2 lobes
B.
None
C.
3 lobes
D.
4 lobes
Correct Answer
C. 3 lobes
Explanation Neutrophils usually have 3 lobes. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell and are part of the body's immune system. They are known for their ability to engulf and destroy bacteria and other foreign substances. The lobes in neutrophils refer to the segmented nucleus, which is divided into multiple sections. In most cases, neutrophils have 3 lobes, although variations can occur.
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31.
What is infectious mononucleosis (IM)?
A.
Characteristic antibodies of IgM classification found in 90-100% of adolescents and 50% of children with infectious mononucleosis.
B.
An acute infectious disease
C.
A suspension of infectious agents or a part of them, given for the purpose of developing resistance to a specific infectious disease
D.
Could give you a kissing infection, you dumbass!
Correct Answer
B. An acute infectious disease
Explanation Infectious mononucleosis (IM) is an acute infectious disease. It is characterized by the presence of characteristic antibodies of IgM classification, which are found in 90-100% of adolescents and 50% of children with infectious mononucleosis. The disease is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and is commonly known as the "kissing disease" because it can be transmitted through saliva.
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32.
What is the treatment for IM?
A.
Watching tv
B.
Drinking tea with honey
C.
Tyenols
D.
Bed rest
Correct Answer
D. Bed rest
Explanation Bed rest is the appropriate treatment for IM (Infectious Mononucleosis). IM is a viral infection that causes fatigue, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes. Bed rest allows the body to conserve energy and focus on fighting off the infection. It also helps prevent complications and allows the immune system to recover more quickly. Additionally, bed rest reduces the risk of spreading the infection to others. Therefore, bed rest is the recommended treatment for IM.
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33.
What is hemoglobin?
A.
It is the iron-containing portion of the red blood cell.
B.
A solution of potassium ferricyanide and sodium cyanide.
C.
The anaylsis of a substance to determine its composition and the quantity of its constitutes.
D.
An excess of red blood cells
Correct Answer
A. It is the iron-containing portion of the red blood cell.
Explanation Hemoglobin is the iron-containing portion of the red blood cell. It is responsible for carrying oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body and transporting carbon dioxide back to the lungs. It is a protein molecule that gives red blood cells their characteristic red color and plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall health and functioning of the body.
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34.
Factors affecting the assay:
A.
Hyperbilirubinemia, lipemia, leukemia, and carotenemia
B.
Bilirubinemia, carotenemia, lipemia, and leukemia
C.
Hemoglobin, carotenemia, lipemia, and leukemia
D.
Lipemia and leukemia
Correct Answer
B. Bilirubinemia, carotenemia, lipemia, and leukemia
Explanation The factors that can affect the assay are bilirubinemia, carotenemia, lipemia, and leukemia. These conditions can interfere with the accuracy of the assay results. Bilirubinemia refers to high levels of bilirubin in the blood, which can affect the measurement of certain substances. Carotenemia is the presence of high levels of carotenoids in the blood, which can also interfere with the assay. Lipemia is the presence of high levels of lipids or fats in the blood, which can affect the clarity of the sample and interfere with the assay. Leukemia, a type of cancer affecting the blood cells, can also impact the assay results.
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35.
How many days do red blood cells live?
A.
220 days
B.
200 days
C.
120 days
D.
400 days
Correct Answer
C. 120 days
Explanation Red blood cells, also known as erythrocytes, have a lifespan of approximately 120 days. They are constantly being produced and destroyed in the body. The process of red blood cell production, known as erythropoiesis, occurs in the bone marrow. Once matured, these cells are released into the bloodstream to carry oxygen to various tissues and organs. Over time, red blood cells become worn out and are removed from circulation by the spleen and liver. Therefore, the correct answer is 120 days.
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36.
The study of blood and the blood-forming organs is called:
A.
Hematology
B.
Immunology
C.
Immunohematology
D.
Coagulation
Correct Answer
A. Hematology
Explanation Hematology is the study of blood and the blood-forming organs. It involves the examination of blood cells, blood clotting mechanisms, and blood diseases. This field of study helps in diagnosing and treating various blood disorders such as anemia, leukemia, and hemophilia. Hematology is an important branch of medicine as it helps in understanding the functioning of blood and its role in maintaining overall health. Immunology, Immunohematology, and Coagulation are related fields but they focus on specific aspects of blood study, whereas Hematology encompasses a broader understanding of blood and its components.
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37.
Blood is classified as a/an
A.
Disease
B.
Cell
C.
Tissue
D.
Infection
Correct Answer
C. Tissue
Explanation Blood is classified as a tissue because it is a connective tissue that consists of specialized cells suspended in a fluid matrix called plasma. It plays a crucial role in transporting oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products throughout the body. Blood also helps in regulating body temperature, maintaining pH balance, and defending against infections. Due to its cellular and fluid components, blood meets the criteria to be categorized as a tissue rather than a disease, cell, or infection.
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38.
What is coagulation?
A.
The study of blood and the blood-forming organs
B.
The study of antigen-antibody reactions
C.
Blood clotting; hemostasis
D.
An infection
Correct Answer
C. Blood clotting; hemostasis
Explanation Coagulation refers to the process of blood clotting and hemostasis. It is the body's natural mechanism to prevent excessive bleeding and maintain the integrity of blood vessels. When a blood vessel is damaged, a series of complex reactions occur to form a clot, which stops the bleeding. This process involves the activation of various clotting factors and the formation of a fibrin mesh that traps platelets and forms a stable clot. Coagulation is essential for wound healing and preventing excessive blood loss.
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39.
Plasma is
A.
A large bone marrow cell that gives rise to platelets.
B.
The liquid component of whole blood that remains after the formed elements are removed.
C.
A complex substance found in tissue that is essential to the clotting program
D.
Prediction of the course or end of a disease
Correct Answer
B. The liquid component of whole blood that remains after the formed elements are removed.
Explanation Plasma is the liquid component of whole blood that remains after the formed elements are removed. This means that when blood is separated into its components, such as red and white blood cells, platelets, and plasma, plasma is what remains. It is a complex substance that contains various proteins, nutrients, hormones, and waste products. Plasma plays a crucial role in transporting these substances throughout the body, maintaining blood pressure, and helping with clotting.
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40.
Do you think you are doing pretty well on this quiz?
A.
YES
B.
NO
C.
HMM....MAYBE??
Correct Answer
C. HMM....MAYBE??
Explanation The answer "HMM....MAYBE??" suggests uncertainty or doubt about how well the person is doing on the quiz. It implies that they are not completely confident in their performance and may have some reservations or hesitations.
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