Medical Term Quiz Questions Part - 21 | Attempts: 58

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| By Saraswatastar

Saraswatastar

Community Contributor

Quizzes Created: 23 | Total Attempts: 4,722

Questions: 10 | Attempts: 58 | Updated: May 17, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

In Fanconi syndrome, failure of tubular reabsorption leads to excessive excretion of A/E
- A.
  
  Glucose
- B.
  
  Chloride
- C.
  
  Amino acid
- D.
  
  Uric acid
Correct Answer
B. Chloride

Explanation
In Fanconi syndrome, there is a failure of tubular reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to the excessive excretion of certain substances. The correct answer, chloride, is one of the substances that is excessively excreted in this condition. This excessive excretion of chloride can result in electrolyte imbalances and can contribute to the symptoms associated with Fanconi syndrome.

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2.

The cancer causing polycythemia is
- A.
  
  Mesothelioma
- B.
  
  RCC
- C.
  
  HCC
- D.
  
  Ca breast
Correct Answer
B. RCC

Explanation
RCC stands for Renal Cell Carcinoma, which is a type of kidney cancer. It is known to be a cancer-causing condition and can lead to polycythemia, which is an abnormal increase in the number of red blood cells. Therefore, RCC is the correct answer as it is associated with cancer-causing polycythemia.

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3.

In which type of RTA is hyperkalemia a prominent feature?
- A.
  
  I
- B.
  
  II
- C.
  
  III
- D.
  
  IV
Correct Answer
D. IV

Explanation
Hyperkalemia is a prominent feature in type IV renal tubular acidosis (RTA). Type IV RTA is characterized by impaired aldosterone production or aldosterone resistance, leading to decreased potassium excretion by the kidneys. This results in elevated levels of potassium in the blood, causing hyperkalemia. Type IV RTA can be caused by various conditions, such as Addison's disease, diabetic nephropathy, or certain medications like angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors).

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4.

Surgery on great saphenous vein can injure
- A.
  
  Femoral nerve
- B.
  
  Sural nerve
- C.
  
  Common peroneal nerve
- D.
  
  Sciatic nerve
Correct Answer
A. Femoral nerve

Explanation
Surgery on the great saphenous vein can injure the femoral nerve. The femoral nerve is a major nerve that supplies the muscles of the thigh and the skin over the front and inner side of the thigh. It is located in close proximity to the great saphenous vein, and during surgery, there is a risk of accidental damage to the nerve. This can result in weakness or paralysis of the muscles supplied by the femoral nerve, as well as sensory loss in the affected area.

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5.

Sentinel lymph node biopsy is most important for
- A.
  
  Ca bladder
- B.
  
  Ca prostate
- C.
  
  Ca penis
- D.
  
  Ca testis
Correct Answer
C. Ca penis

Explanation
Sentinel lymph node biopsy is most important for Ca penis because it helps in determining whether the cancer has spread to the nearby lymph nodes. This procedure involves identifying and removing the sentinel lymph node, which is the first lymph node that cancer is likely to spread to from the primary tumor. By examining the sentinel lymph node, doctors can assess the extent of cancer spread and make informed decisions regarding further treatment options for patients with penile cancer.

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6.

MC period of infant mortality in India
- A.
  
  0-4 months
- B.
  
  4-8 months
- C.
  
  8-12 months
- D.
  
  6-12 months
Correct Answer
A. 0-4 months

Explanation
The correct answer is 0-4 months. This period is considered the most critical for infant mortality in India. During the first four months of life, infants are more vulnerable to various health risks and diseases, such as respiratory infections, diarrhea, and malnutrition. Factors such as inadequate healthcare facilities, poor sanitation, and lack of awareness contribute to the high mortality rate in this age group. Therefore, focusing on improving healthcare access, promoting proper nutrition, and raising awareness about infant care during this period is essential to reduce infant mortality in India.

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7.

MC cause of UTI in children <5 years
- A.
  
  E.coli
- B.
  
  Proteus
- C.
  
  Staphylococcus
- D.
  
  Enterococcus
Correct Answer
A. E.coli

Explanation
E.coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children under 5 years of age. UTIs in this age group are often caused by bacteria that enter the urinary tract from the digestive system, and E.coli is a common bacteria found in the intestines. This can happen due to poor hygiene practices or inadequate wiping after bowel movements. E.coli is known to easily ascend the urinary tract and cause infection, leading to symptoms such as frequent urination, pain or discomfort during urination, and fever. Other bacteria mentioned in the options can also cause UTIs, but E.coli is the most prevalent in young children.

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8.

MC organ involved in congenital TB
- A.
  
  Brain
- B.
  
  Lung
- C.
  
  Liver
- D.
  
  Spleen
Correct Answer
C. Liver

Explanation
The liver is the correct answer because congenital tuberculosis (TB) refers to the transmission of TB from an infected mother to her unborn child. The bacteria can pass through the placenta and affect various organs of the fetus, including the liver. The liver is a major organ involved in filtering and detoxifying substances in the body, making it susceptible to infection. Lung involvement is more common in postnatal TB, while brain and spleen involvement are less common in congenital TB.

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9.

Sign seen in monochorionicity
- A.
  
  T sign
- B.
  
  Lambda sign
- C.
  
  Twin peak sign
- D.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
A. T sign

Explanation
The T sign is a sign seen in monochorionicity, which refers to twins sharing a single placenta. It is characterized by the appearance of a T-shaped junction between the dividing membranes of the twins. This sign indicates that the twins are monochorionic, meaning they are identical twins and share the same placenta. The T sign is an important finding in prenatal ultrasound examinations as it helps in determining the chorionicity of the twins and guiding appropriate management and monitoring during pregnancy.

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10.

Fastest acting inhalational agent?
- A.
  
  Halothane
- B.
  
  Isoflurane
- C.
  
  Ether
- D.
  
  Sevoflurane
Correct Answer
D. Sevoflurane

Explanation
Sevoflurane is the fastest acting inhalational agent among the given options. It has a rapid onset of action, allowing for quick induction and emergence from anesthesia. This makes it an ideal choice for procedures that require a fast-acting anesthetic, such as short surgeries or those involving children or elderly patients. Sevoflurane also has a low blood-gas solubility, which means it is quickly eliminated from the body, resulting in a rapid recovery and minimal postoperative side effects.

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Current Version
May 17, 2023

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Dec 08, 2014

Quiz Created by
Saraswatastar

Medical Term Quiz Questions Part - 21

In Fanconi syndrome, failure of tubular reabsorption leads to excessive excretion of A/E

The cancer causing polycythemia is

In which type of RTA is hyperkalemia a prominent feature?

Surgery on great saphenous vein can injure

Sentinel lymph node biopsy is most important for

MC period of infant mortality in India

MC cause of UTI in children <5 years

MC organ involved in congenital TB

Sign seen in monochorionicity

Fastest acting inhalational agent?