What memory impairments primary characteristic is a failure to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory function?

disturbance in executive functioning

A person experiencing symptoms of nervousness, worry, and jitteriness has an adjustment disorder with

mixed anxiety and depressed mood

disturbances of emotions and conduct

Pre-test CDC 4c051 #1 (100 Questions From All 4 Volumes)

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Questions: 100 | Attempts: 115 | Updated: Mar 13, 2024

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Pre-test CDC 4c051 #1 (100 Questions From All 4 Volumes) - Quiz

Questions and Answers

1.

Which type of genetic environmental correlation occurs when a child conducts himself or herself in a manner which solicits positive responses from others?
- A.
  
  Active
- B.
  
  Present
- C.
  
  Passive
- D.
  
  Evocative
Correct Answer
D. Evocative

Explanation
Evocative genetic environmental correlation occurs when a child's genetic traits elicit certain responses from their environment. In this case, the child's behavior or conduct leads to positive responses from others. This means that the child's genetic predispositions influence the way they interact with others, shaping their environment in a way that reinforces their behavior.

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2.

At what month is the palmer grasp reflex lost?
- A.
  
  8
- B.
  
  10
- C.
  
  12
- D.
  
  14
Correct Answer
C. 12

Explanation
The palmar grasp reflex is a natural reflex in infants where they automatically close their fingers around an object placed in their palm. This reflex is typically present from birth and starts to fade around 3 months of age. By the age of 12 months, most infants have lost the palmar grasp reflex completely. Therefore, the correct answer is 12.

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3.

By the time a child reaches 5 years of age their vocabulary consists of how many words?
- A.
  
  1000
- B.
  
  1500
- C.
  
  2000
- D.
  
  2500
Correct Answer
D. 2500

Explanation
By the time a child reaches 5 years of age, their vocabulary consists of approximately 2500 words. This means that they have learned and can understand and use around 2500 different words in their daily communication. This is a significant milestone in language development and indicates the child's growing ability to express themselves and comprehend more complex ideas and concepts.

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4.

What is considered the healthiest developmental stage of life?
- A.
  
  Adulthood
- B.
  
  Middle age
- C.
  
  Late adulthood
- D.
  
  Young adulthood
Correct Answer
D. Young adulthood

Explanation
Young adulthood is considered the healthiest developmental stage of life because during this period, individuals are typically in their physical prime. They have high energy levels, strong immune systems, and fewer health complications compared to other stages of life. Additionally, young adults tend to engage in healthier lifestyle behaviors such as regular exercise, balanced diet, and good sleep patterns. This stage is also characterized by lower rates of chronic diseases and a higher ability to recover from illnesses or injuries. Overall, young adulthood is considered the healthiest stage due to the combination of physical resilience and healthy lifestyle choices.

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5.

During which dimension of self-concept is sense of purpose to the self gained?
- A.
  
  Self-esteem
- B.
  
  Self-recognition
- C.
  
  Aspirations and goals
- D.
  
  Personal competence
Correct Answer
C. Aspirations and goals

Explanation
The sense of purpose to the self is gained during the dimension of self-concept known as aspirations and goals. This dimension involves the individual's desires, ambitions, and objectives for their future. It is through setting and striving towards these aspirations and goals that individuals develop a sense of purpose and direction in their lives.

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6.

Who is considered the father of modern psychology?
- A.
  
  Sigmund Freud
- B.
  
  Harry Sullivan
- C.
  
  Erik Erikson
- D.
  
  Jean Piaget
Correct Answer
A. Sigmund Freud

Explanation
Sigmund Freud is considered the father of modern psychology because of his significant contributions to the field. He developed psychoanalysis, a method of therapy that focused on the unconscious mind and the importance of childhood experiences. Freud's theories revolutionized the understanding of human behavior and mental processes, particularly in areas such as dream analysis, the structure of the mind (id, ego, superego), and the concept of the unconscious. His work laid the foundation for many subsequent psychological theories and approaches, making him a pivotal figure in the development of modern psychology.

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7.

What part of the mind is the source of our emotional pain?
- A.
  
  Conscious mind
- B.
  
  Subconscious mind
- C.
  
  Preconscious mind
- D.
  
  Unconscious mind
Correct Answer
D. Unconscious mind

Explanation
The unconscious mind is the part of our mind that is not accessible to our conscious awareness. It contains repressed memories, desires, and unresolved conflicts that can cause emotional pain. These unconscious thoughts and feelings can influence our behavior and emotions without us being aware of it. Therefore, the unconscious mind is the likely source of our emotional pain.

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8.

Which defense mechanism is used when emotions are aroused in a situation where it would be dangerous to express them?
- A.
  
  Projection
- B.
  
  Displacement
- C.
  
  Sublimination
- D.
  
  Rationalization
Correct Answer
B. Displacement

Explanation
Displacement is a defense mechanism that involves redirecting emotions or impulses from their original target to a safer or more acceptable one. In situations where expressing emotions could be dangerous, individuals may unconsciously transfer their feelings onto another person, object, or situation that is less threatening. This allows them to release their emotions in a safer way, avoiding potential harm or negative consequences that could arise from expressing their true feelings.

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9.

During which of Freud's psychosexual stages does the Oedipus conflict and electra complex occur?
- A.
  
  Oral
- B.
  
  Anal
- C.
  
  Phallic
- D.
  
  Latency
Correct Answer
C. pHallic

Explanation
During Freud's psychosexual stage of phallic development, the Oedipus conflict and Electra complex occur. This stage typically occurs between the ages of 3 and 6 years old, where children develop sexual feelings towards their opposite-sex parent and experience rivalry with their same-sex parent. The Oedipus conflict occurs in boys, where they desire their mother and view their father as a rival, while the Electra complex occurs in girls, where they desire their father and view their mother as a rival. This stage is crucial in the development of a child's gender identity and the resolution of these conflicts is important for healthy psychosexual development.

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10.

Sullivan's personality developmental stages concluded that intimacy and sexual urges was the distinction of which stage of development?
- A.
  
  Early childhood
- B.
  
  Late childhood
- C.
  
  Preadolescence
- D.
  
  Late adolescence
Correct Answer
D. Late adolescence

Explanation
Sullivan's personality developmental stages concluded that intimacy and sexual urges were the distinction of late adolescence. This stage is characterized by the development of close relationships and the exploration of romantic and sexual feelings. During late adolescence, individuals begin to form deeper emotional connections and engage in more mature and intimate relationships. This stage marks a significant shift in social and emotional development, as individuals navigate the complexities of romantic and sexual relationships.

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11.

According to Piaget’s stages of cognitive development, in which stage does the individual have the ability to reason using abstract concepts?
- A.
  
  Preoperational thought
- B.
  
  Concrete operations
- C.
  
  Formal operations
- D.
  
  Sensorimotor
Correct Answer
C. Formal operations

Explanation
According to Piaget's stages of cognitive development, the individual's ability to reason using abstract concepts occurs in the formal operations stage. In this stage, typically occurring during adolescence and adulthood, individuals can think logically and systematically about hypothetical situations and abstract ideas. They can engage in hypothetical-deductive reasoning, consider multiple possibilities, and think in a more abstract and complex manner. This stage represents a higher level of cognitive development compared to the previous stages of sensorimotor, preoperational thought, and concrete operations.

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12.

Which behaviorist stated the most important determinants of behavior are in the environment and not the individual?
- A.
  
  E.L. Thorndike
- B.
  
  J.B. Watson
- C.
  
  Ivan Pavlov
- D.
  
  B.F. Skinner
Correct Answer
D. B.F. Skinner

Explanation
B.F. Skinner is the correct answer because he is a well-known behaviorist who believed that the most important determinants of behavior are in the environment and not the individual. Skinner's theory of operant conditioning emphasizes the role of reinforcement and punishment in shaping behavior. He believed that behavior is influenced by external factors and that individuals learn through consequences in their environment. This perspective contrasts with other behaviorists like Thorndike, Watson, and Pavlov, who also made significant contributions to the field but had different emphases in their theories.

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13.

Who are considered extremely important models for children as they are often imitated?
- A.
  
  Peers
- B.
  
  Parents
- C.
  
  Teachers
- D.
  
  Siblings
Correct Answer
B. Parents

Explanation
Parents are considered extremely important models for children as they are often imitated. Children tend to look up to their parents and imitate their behaviors, actions, and values. Parents play a crucial role in shaping their children's behavior, beliefs, and attitudes. They serve as role models and provide guidance, support, and love to their children. Parents' actions and words greatly influence children's development and help them learn important life skills.

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14.

Who developed the five phases of goal setting and goal attainment?
- A.
  
  Maslow
- B.
  
  Watson
- C.
  
  Buhler
- D.
  
  Piaget
Correct Answer
C. Buhler

Explanation
Buhler developed the five phases of goal setting and goal attainment.

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15.

An indication of emotional discomfort consists of depression, anxiety, and
- A.
  
  Mania
- B.
  
  Anoxia
- C.
  
  Physical symptoms
- D.
  
  Body dysmorphic disorders
Correct Answer
C. pHysical symptoms

Explanation
An indication of emotional discomfort can be seen through physical symptoms such as headaches, stomachaches, muscle tension, and fatigue. These physical symptoms often accompany depression and anxiety, and can be a result of the body's response to stress and emotional distress. Therefore, physical symptoms are a valid and common manifestation of emotional discomfort.

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16.

Which term is not a behavior associated with oppositional defiant disorder?
- A.
  
  Assertive
- B.
  
  Hostile
- C.
  
  Defiant
- D.
  
  Negativistic
Correct Answer
A. Assertive

Explanation
Oppositional defiant disorder is characterized by a pattern of angry and irritable mood, argumentative and defiant behavior, and vindictiveness. The term "assertive" does not align with the behaviors typically associated with this disorder. Assertiveness refers to expressing one's needs and opinions in a confident and respectful manner, which is not a characteristic of oppositional defiant disorder.

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17.

What memory impairments primary characteristic is a failure to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory function?
- A.
  
  Aphasia
- B.
  
  Apraxia
- C.
  
  Agnosia
- D.
  
  Disturbance in executive functioning
Correct Answer
C. Agnosia

Explanation
Agnosia is a memory impairment characterized by a failure to recognize or identify objects, even though sensory function is intact. This means that individuals with agnosia may have no problem seeing, hearing, or feeling objects, but they are unable to interpret or understand what those objects are. This can occur in different sensory modalities, such as visual agnosia (inability to recognize objects visually) or auditory agnosia (inability to recognize sounds). Agnosia is often caused by damage to specific areas of the brain, such as the occipital or temporal lobes.

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18.

How many separate personality patterns are seen in patients with personality change due to a general medical condition?
- A.
  
  4
- B.
  
  6
- C.
  
  8
- D.
  
  10
Correct Answer
C. 8

Explanation
Patients with personality change due to a general medical condition can exhibit various personality patterns. The correct answer of 8 suggests that there are eight distinct personality patterns that can be observed in these patients. This implies that there is a significant range of personality changes that can occur as a result of a general medical condition, highlighting the complexity and diversity of this phenomenon.

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19.

How many minutes does intoxication from an inhalant last?
- A.
  
  20-25
- B.
  
  15-20
- C.
  
  10-15
- D.
  
  5-10
Correct Answer
B. 15-20

Explanation
Intoxication from an inhalant typically lasts for 15-20 minutes. Inhalants are chemical substances that produce mind-altering effects when inhaled, and their effects are usually short-lived. The duration of intoxication can vary depending on factors such as the type of inhalant used, the amount inhaled, and individual differences in metabolism. However, on average, the effects of inhalant intoxication tend to last for around 15-20 minutes before wearing off.

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20.

What is the most abused amphetamine?
- A.
  
  Methylphenidate
- B.
  
  Methamphetamine
- C.
  
  Laevoamphetamine
- D.
  
  Dextroamphetamine
Correct Answer
B. MethampHetamine

Explanation
Methamphetamine is the most abused amphetamine because it is a highly addictive central nervous system stimulant. It produces intense euphoria, increased energy, and a sense of confidence and well-being. Methamphetamine abuse can lead to severe physical and psychological dependence, as well as a range of negative health effects such as cardiovascular problems, dental issues, and cognitive impairments. Its potent effects and availability make it a popular choice for illicit drug use and contribute to its widespread abuse.

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21.

Which subtype of a delusional disorder has a prominent theme that a person, usually of higher status, is in love with the patient?
- A.
  
  Persecutory
- B.
  
  Erotomanic
- C.
  
  Grandiose
- D.
  
  Jealous
Correct Answer
B. Erotomanic

Explanation
The correct answer is erotomanic. In this subtype of delusional disorder, the patient has a false belief that someone, often of higher social status, is in love with them. This delusion is persistent and may lead to stalking or harassing behavior towards the object of their delusion. The patient may interpret innocent gestures or actions as evidence of love and may refuse to accept any evidence that contradicts their belief. This subtype is also known as "de Clerambault's syndrome" or "erotomania".

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22.

Which anxiety disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of intense apprehension, terror, and impending doom?
- A.
  
  Obsessive-compulsive
- B.
  
  Post-traumatic stress
- C.
  
  Generalized anxiety
- D.
  
  Panic
Correct Answer
D. Panic

Explanation
Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of intense apprehension, terror, and impending doom. During these episodes, individuals may experience symptoms such as heart palpitations, shortness of breath, trembling, and a sense of losing control. These panic attacks can occur unexpectedly and without any apparent trigger. Therefore, panic is the correct answer for the given question.

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23.

Which term describes the inability to form new memories after the condition producing the amnesia occurs?
- A.
  
  Anterograde amnesia
- B.
  
  Retrograde amnesia
- C.
  
  Fugue
- D.
  
  Ictus
Correct Answer
A. Anterograde amnesia

Explanation
Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to form new memories after the condition causing the amnesia occurs. This means that individuals with anterograde amnesia have difficulty remembering new information or events that occur after the onset of the condition. It is important to note that anterograde amnesia does not affect the ability to recall past memories or events, which is characteristic of retrograde amnesia.

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24.

Emptying the stomach by induced vomiting or emptying the bowels by induced evacuation with enemas or laxatives is called
- A.
  
  Anorexia
- B.
  
  Bulemia
- C.
  
  Binging
- D.
  
  Purging
Correct Answer
D. Purging

Explanation
Purging refers to the act of emptying the stomach or bowels through induced vomiting, enemas, or laxatives. This behavior is often associated with eating disorders such as bulimia, where individuals engage in binge eating followed by purging to control their weight. Purging can have serious health consequences and is a harmful behavior that should be addressed and treated.

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25.

A person experiencing symptoms of nervousness, worry, and jitteriness has an adjustment disorder with
- A.
  
  Anxiety
- B.
  
  Depressed mood
- C.
  
  Mixed anxiety and depressed mood
- D.
  
  Disturbances of emotions and conduct
Correct Answer
A. Anxiety

Explanation
The symptoms described, such as nervousness, worry, and jitteriness, are commonly associated with anxiety. Therefore, it is likely that the person is experiencing an adjustment disorder with anxiety. This disorder occurs when an individual has difficulty coping with a stressful life event or change, leading to the development of anxiety symptoms. The other options, such as depressed mood, mixed anxiety and depressed mood, and disturbances of emotions and conduct, do not specifically match the symptoms mentioned in the question.

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26.

As a minimum, how many strength and weaknesses should be identified for each patient?
- A.
  
  One
- B.
  
  Two
- C.
  
  Three
- D.
  
  Four
Correct Answer
C. Three

Explanation
For each patient, it is necessary to identify a minimum of three strengths and weaknesses. This ensures a comprehensive assessment of the patient's abilities and limitations. By identifying multiple strengths, healthcare professionals can understand the patient's positive attributes and build upon them. Similarly, identifying multiple weaknesses helps in addressing areas that require improvement or intervention. This balanced approach allows for a holistic understanding of the patient's condition and facilitates effective treatment planning and care.

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27.

What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is characterized by the need for friendship, love, and a sense of belonging?
- A.
  
  Self-esteem and love
- B.
  
  Physiological needs
- C.
  
  Security needs
- D.
  
  Affiliation
Correct Answer
D. Affiliation

Explanation
Affiliation refers to the level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs that is characterized by the need for friendship, love, and a sense of belonging. This level comes after physiological needs and security needs, and before self-esteem and self-actualization. It represents the human desire to form connections and relationships with others, and to feel accepted and valued within a social group. Meeting this need for affiliation is important for emotional well-being and overall happiness.

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28.

What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is developed from feeling of independence, competence, self-respect, and recognition from others
- A.
  
  Self-esteem and love
- B.
  
  Physiological needs
- C.
  
  Security needs
- D.
  
  Affiliation
Correct Answer
A. Self-esteem and love

Explanation
Self-esteem and love are the levels of Maslow's hierarchy of needs that are developed from feelings of independence, competence, self-respect, and recognition from others. These needs are part of the psychological needs category, which comes after the basic physiological and security needs. Self-esteem involves the need for self-worth, self-confidence, and respect from others, while love refers to the need for friendship, intimacy, and a sense of belonging. Both of these needs contribute to a person's overall well-being and self-actualization.

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29.

What do short-term goals provide for the patient?
- A.
  
  Acute relief or feelings of accomplishment
- B.
  
  Establishes a natural exchange of ideas
- C.
  
  Hope invested over a period of time
- D.
  
  Establishes rapport
Correct Answer
A. Acute relief or feelings of accomplishment

Explanation
Short-term goals provide the patient with acute relief or feelings of accomplishment. These goals are typically achievable in a short period of time and provide immediate gratification. By setting and achieving these goals, the patient experiences a sense of relief and accomplishment, which can boost their motivation and confidence. This can be particularly important in healthcare settings where patients may be dealing with pain, discomfort, or long-term treatment plans. Short-term goals can help provide a sense of progress and positivity, enhancing the overall patient experience.

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30.

Every goal must have at least how many objectives?
- A.
  
  1
- B.
  
  2
- C.
  
  3
- D.
  
  4
Correct Answer
A. 1

Explanation
Every goal must have at least one objective because an objective is a specific and measurable outcome that contributes to the achievement of a goal. Without any objectives, a goal would be vague and difficult to measure or track progress towards. Therefore, it is necessary for every goal to have at least one objective to provide clarity and direction in working towards its accomplishment.

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31.

Who should be devising the treatment plan for the patient?
- A.
  
  Patient
- B.
  
  Counselor
- C.
  
  Supervisor
- D.
  
  Patient and counselor
Correct Answer
D. Patient and counselor

Explanation
The patient and counselor should be devising the treatment plan together because it is important for the patient to have an active role in their own treatment. By involving the patient in the decision-making process, they can provide valuable input based on their own experiences and preferences. Additionally, the counselor can offer professional guidance and expertise to ensure that the treatment plan is effective and tailored to the patient's specific needs. It is a collaborative effort between the patient and counselor to create a treatment plan that is both feasible and beneficial for the patient's well-being.

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32.

Which determinant of relapse is considered the most difficult and problematic?
- A.
  
  Cognitive
- B.
  
  Affective
- C.
  
  Relational
- D.
  
  Behavioral
Correct Answer
C. Relational

Explanation
The determinant of relapse that is considered the most difficult and problematic is relational. This refers to the interpersonal relationships and social connections that an individual has. Relational factors can play a significant role in relapse as they can influence the person's support system, communication patterns, and overall emotional well-being. Difficulties in relationships and a lack of healthy social connections can make it more challenging for individuals to maintain their recovery and increase the risk of relapse.

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33.

During what stage of treatment does termination or discharge planning begin?
- A.
  
  Initial intake
- B.
  
  Relapse planning
- C.
  
  Establishing goals
- D.
  
  Crisis completion
Correct Answer
A. Initial intake

Explanation
Termination or discharge planning typically begins during the initial intake stage of treatment. This is the stage where the client's information is gathered, assessments are conducted, and treatment goals are established. It is during this stage that the treatment team starts to consider the client's progress, needs, and potential discharge options. By starting the planning process early on, the treatment team can ensure a smooth transition for the client when they are ready to be discharged from the program.

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34.

What is considered the overall management strategy for treating people?
- A.
  
  Treatment plan
- B.
  
  Relapse prevention plan
- C.
  
  Psychometric examination
- D.
  
  Goals and objective identification
Correct Answer
A. Treatment plan

Explanation
The overall management strategy for treating people is referred to as a treatment plan. This plan outlines the specific steps and interventions that will be taken to address an individual's needs and goals. It includes various elements such as therapy modalities, medication management, and support services. A treatment plan is developed collaboratively between the individual and their healthcare provider to ensure a comprehensive and personalized approach to their care.

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35.

What is not one of the potential problems that should be addressed in the treatment plan?
- A.
  
  Attrition
- B.
  
  Absenteeism
- C.
  
  Noncompliance
- D.
  
  Inadequate progress
Correct Answer
B. Absenteeism

Explanation
Absenteeism is not one of the potential problems that should be addressed in the treatment plan. The other options, such as attrition, noncompliance, and inadequate progress, are all potential problems that may arise during the treatment plan and need to be addressed. Absenteeism refers to the act of being absent or not showing up, which may not directly impact the effectiveness of the treatment plan.

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36.

What refers to the cognitive capabilities or functions displayed by an individual?
- A.
  
  Emotional intelligence
- B.
  
  Intelligence quotient
- C.
  
  Affective quotient
- D.
  
  Common sense
Correct Answer
A. Emotional intelligence

Explanation
Emotional intelligence refers to the cognitive capabilities or functions displayed by an individual. It involves the ability to recognize, understand, and manage one's own emotions, as well as the ability to recognize and understand the emotions of others. Emotional intelligence includes skills such as empathy, self-awareness, self-regulation, and social skills, which are important for effective communication, decision-making, and building relationships. It is different from intelligence quotient (IQ) which measures intellectual abilities, affective quotient which measures emotional abilities, and common sense which refers to practical intelligence.

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37.

Which is not one of the common stages of counseling?
- A.
  
  Initial disclosure
- B.
  
  Termination of care
- C.
  
  In-depth exploration
- D.
  
  Commitment to action
Correct Answer
B. Termination of care

Explanation
Termination of care is not one of the common stages of counseling. The other options, such as initial disclosure, in-depth exploration, and commitment to action, are all commonly recognized stages in the counseling process. However, termination of care refers to the ending of the therapeutic relationship between the counselor and the client, rather than a stage within the counseling process itself.

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38.

Which cognitive distortion is best defined as always making a negative conclusion without supporting information?
- A.
  
  Catastrophizing
- B.
  
  Arbitrary inference
- C.
  
  Selective abstraction
- D.
  
  Magnification/minimization
Correct Answer
B. Arbitrary inference

Explanation
Arbitrary inference is the cognitive distortion that involves making a negative conclusion without any supporting information. This means that a person jumps to negative conclusions without any evidence or rational basis. It is a form of cognitive bias where individuals tend to focus on negative outcomes or interpretations without considering other possibilities or gathering sufficient evidence. This distortion can lead to negative thinking patterns and can impact one's overall perception of themselves and their experiences.

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39.

What is not one of the Gestalt therapy's five layers of neurosis?
- A.
  
  Lame
- B.
  
  Phony
- C.
  
  Phobic
- D.
  
  Impasse
Correct Answer
A. Lame

Explanation
The correct answer is "lame." In Gestalt therapy, the five layers of neurosis are phony, phobic, impasse, implosive, and explosive. "Lame" does not fit into any of these categories and is not considered one of the layers of neurosis in Gestalt therapy.

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40.

In strategic family therapy, what is defined as communication that is intentionally misleading, misunderstood, and inconsistent and often leaves the receiver with an impossible conclusion to an answer?
- A.
  
  Disqualification
- B.
  
  Disconfirmation
- C.
  
  Congruent communication
- D.
  
  Incongruent communication
Correct Answer
A. Disqualification

Explanation
Disqualification is the correct answer because it refers to communication that intentionally misleads, confuses, and is inconsistent, leading the receiver to an impossible conclusion. This type of communication creates a sense of uncertainty and confusion within the family system, making it difficult for members to understand each other's intentions and create meaningful connections. By disqualifying certain messages or disregarding them, individuals in the family can maintain power dynamics and avoid addressing underlying issues.

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41.

In strategic family therapy, what is defined as denying or invalidating hurtful or demeaning statements to protect the sender's self image?
- A.
  
  Disqualification
- B.
  
  Disconfirmation
- C.
  
  Congruent communication
- D.
  
  Incongruent communication
Correct Answer
B. Disconfirmation

Explanation
Disconfirmation in strategic family therapy refers to denying or invalidating hurtful or demeaning statements to protect the sender's self-image. This means that instead of acknowledging or validating the sender's feelings, the receiver dismisses or ignores them, which can further damage the sender's self-esteem and hinder effective communication within the family.

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42.

How many group participants can one facilitator effectively manage?
- A.
  
  6 to 8
- B.
  
  8 to 10
- C.
  
  10 to 12
- D.
  
  12 to 14
Correct Answer
B. 8 to 10

Explanation
One facilitator can effectively manage a group of 8 to 10 participants. This number allows the facilitator to provide individual attention and support to each participant while still maintaining control and managing the group dynamics effectively. With a smaller group size, the facilitator can ensure that everyone's needs are met and that there is ample opportunity for participation and engagement from each participant. Additionally, a smaller group size allows for better communication and interaction among participants, fostering a more intimate and collaborative learning environment.

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43.

During which stage of group has the "birthing" process of merging personalities subside?
- A.
  
  Conflict and controversy
- B.
  
  Working and cohesion
- C.
  
  Termination
- D.
  
  Initiation
Correct Answer
B. Working and cohesion

Explanation
The "birthing" process of merging personalities subsides during the working and cohesion stage of group development. This stage occurs after the initiation stage, where members of the group come together and begin to form relationships. In the working and cohesion stage, the group members have established a sense of trust and collaboration, and they are able to work together effectively towards achieving their goals. The conflicts and controversies that may have arisen during the earlier stages have been resolved, and the group is now focused on maintaining productivity and cohesion.

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44.

Regarding group participation, which term would be used to describe the extremely shy patient?
- A.
  
  Contraindication
- B.
  
  Termination
- C.
  
  Relapse
- D.
  
  Benefit
Correct Answer
A. Contraindication

Explanation
The term "contraindication" would be used to describe the extremely shy patient in the context of group participation. A contraindication refers to a factor or condition that makes a particular treatment or intervention inappropriate or potentially harmful. In this case, the extreme shyness of the patient may be seen as a contraindication for group participation, as it may hinder their ability to actively engage and benefit from the group setting.

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45.

The group member who can easily become the target of an aggressive narcissist in the group is the
- A.
  
  Monopolist
- B.
  
  Silent patient
- C.
  
  Schizoid patient
- D.
  
  Passive-aggressive patient
Correct Answer
C. Schizoid patient

Explanation
The schizoid patient is likely to become the target of an aggressive narcissist in the group because they tend to be withdrawn, detached, and show little interest in social interactions. This makes them an easy target for the narcissist, who thrives on power and control over others. The schizoid patient's passive nature and lack of assertiveness may make it easier for the narcissist to manipulate and exploit them.

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46.

Who is responsible for conducting the biennial community needs assessment?
- A.
  
  Community Action Information Board (CAIB)
- B.
  
  Integrated Delivery System (IDS)
- C.
  
  Family Advocacy Program (FAP)
- D.
  
  Airman and Family Readiness Center (AFRC)
Correct Answer
B. Integrated Delivery System (IDS)

Explanation
The Integrated Delivery System (IDS) is responsible for conducting the biennial community needs assessment. This assessment helps identify the needs and preferences of the community in order to provide appropriate and effective services. The IDS is a comprehensive healthcare system that coordinates and delivers a range of services, making it the most suitable entity to conduct this assessment. The Community Action Information Board (CAIB), Family Advocacy Program (FAP), and Airman and Family Readiness Center (AFRC) may have their own roles in supporting the assessment, but the IDS has the primary responsibility for conducting it.

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47.

How many duty days does a alcohol and drug abuse prevention and treatment program manager (ADAPTPM) have to make a treatment decision for a new referral to the ADAPT office?
- A.
  
  5
- B.
  
  7
- C.
  
  15
- D.
  
  21
Correct Answer
C. 15

Explanation
The alcohol and drug abuse prevention and treatment program manager (ADAPTPM) has 15 duty days to make a treatment decision for a new referral to the ADAPT office. This time frame allows the ADAPTPM to thoroughly evaluate the referral, gather necessary information, consult with other professionals if needed, and make an informed decision regarding the appropriate treatment plan for the individual.

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48.

How many continuing education units (CEU) are required to retain certification during each three-year certification?
- A.
  
  30
- B.
  
  40
- C.
  
  45
- D.
  
  60
Correct Answer
D. 60

Explanation
To retain certification during each three-year certification, 60 continuing education units (CEU) are required. This means that professionals must complete 60 units of education or training in their field within a three-year period to maintain their certification. This requirement ensures that certified individuals stay updated with the latest developments and advancements in their industry, enhancing their knowledge and skills to provide quality services.

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49.

Who notifies the applicants of the results of the certified alcohol and drug abuse counselor (CADAC) written examination?
- A.
  
  International certification reciprocity consortium/alcohol and other drugs abuse (ICRC/AODA)
- B.
  
  Air Force Substance Abuse Counselor Certification Board (AF SACCB)
- C.
  
  Base medical commander
- D.
  
  Major command (MAJCOM)
Correct Answer
D. Major command (MAJCOM)
50.

What percentage of all formal mental health care is provided by primary care managers?
- A.
  
  10
- B.
  
  25
- C.
  
  50
- D.
  
  75
Correct Answer
B. 25

Explanation
Primary care managers provide 25% of all formal mental health care. This means that a quarter of mental health care services are delivered by primary care managers, who are typically the first point of contact for individuals seeking mental health treatment. These managers play a crucial role in providing initial assessments, referrals, and ongoing management of mental health conditions, ensuring that individuals receive appropriate care and support.

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Current Version
Mar 13, 2024

Quiz Edited by
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May 01, 2015

Quiz Created by
Enmcdowell

Pre-test CDC 4c051 #1 (100 Questions From All 4 Volumes)

Which type of genetic environmental correlation occurs when a child conducts himself or herself in a manner which solicits positive responses from others?

At what month is the palmer grasp reflex lost?

By the time a child reaches 5 years of age their vocabulary consists of how many words?

What is considered the healthiest developmental stage of life?

During which dimension of self-concept is sense of purpose to the self gained?

Who is considered the father of modern psychology?

What part of the mind is the source of our emotional pain?

Which defense mechanism is used when emotions are aroused in a situation where it would be dangerous to express them?

During which of Freud's psychosexual stages does the Oedipus conflict and electra complex occur?

Sullivan's personality developmental stages concluded that intimacy and sexual urges was the distinction of which stage of development?

According to Piaget’s stages of cognitive development, in which stage does the individual have the ability to reason using abstract concepts?

Which behaviorist stated the most important determinants of behavior are in the environment and not the individual?

Who are considered extremely important models for children as they are often imitated?

Who developed the five phases of goal setting and goal attainment?

An indication of emotional discomfort consists of depression, anxiety, and

Which term is not a behavior associated with oppositional defiant disorder?

What memory impairments primary characteristic is a failure to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory function?

How many separate personality patterns are seen in patients with personality change due to a general medical condition?

How many minutes does intoxication from an inhalant last?

What is the most abused amphetamine?

Which subtype of a delusional disorder has a prominent theme that a person, usually of higher status, is in love with the patient?

Which anxiety disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of intense apprehension, terror, and impending doom?

Which term describes the inability to form new memories after the condition producing the amnesia occurs?

Emptying the stomach by induced vomiting or emptying the bowels by induced evacuation with enemas or laxatives is called

A person experiencing symptoms of nervousness, worry, and jitteriness has an adjustment disorder with

As a minimum, how many strength and weaknesses should be identified for each patient?

What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is characterized by the need for friendship, love, and a sense of belonging?

What level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is developed from feeling of independence, competence, self-respect, and recognition from others

What do short-term goals provide for the patient?

Every goal must have at least how many objectives?

Who should be devising the treatment plan for the patient?

Which determinant of relapse is considered the most difficult and problematic?

During what stage of treatment does termination or discharge planning begin?

What is considered the overall management strategy for treating people?

What is not one of the potential problems that should be addressed in the treatment plan?

What refers to the cognitive capabilities or functions displayed by an individual?

Which is not one of the common stages of counseling?

Which cognitive distortion is best defined as always making a negative conclusion without supporting information?

What is not one of the Gestalt therapy's five layers of neurosis?

In strategic family therapy, what is defined as communication that is intentionally misleading, misunderstood, and inconsistent and often leaves the receiver with an impossible conclusion to an answer?

In strategic family therapy, what is defined as denying or invalidating hurtful or demeaning statements to protect the sender's self image?

How many group participants can one facilitator effectively manage?

During which stage of group has the "birthing" process of merging personalities subside?

Regarding group participation, which term would be used to describe the extremely shy patient?

The group member who can easily become the target of an aggressive narcissist in the group is the

Who is responsible for conducting the biennial community needs assessment?

How many duty days does a alcohol and drug abuse prevention and treatment program manager (ADAPTPM) have to make a treatment decision for a new referral to the ADAPT office?

How many continuing education units (CEU) are required to retain certification during each three-year certification?

Who notifies the applicants of the results of the certified alcohol and drug abuse counselor (CADAC) written examination?

What percentage of all formal mental health care is provided by primary care managers?