Pre-test CDC 4c051 #1 (100 Questions From All 4 Volumes)

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which type of genetic environmental correlation occurs when a child conducts himself or herself in a manner which solicits positive responses from others?

    • Active
    • Present
    • Passive
    • Evocative
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About This Quiz

This comprehensive pre-test titled 'Pre-Test CDC 4C051 #1' assesses knowledge across various developmental psychology topics. It covers genetic correlations, reflexes, vocabulary development, life stages, self-concept, and foundational psychology figures. Aimed at enhancing understanding of psychological development, it is ideal for learners seeking to deepen their insight in the field.

Pre-test CDC 4c051 #1 (100 Questions From All 4 Volumes) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    At what month is the palmer grasp reflex lost?

    • 8

    • 10

    • 12

    • 14

    Correct Answer
    A. 12
    Explanation
    The palmar grasp reflex is a natural reflex in infants where they automatically close their fingers around an object placed in their palm. This reflex is typically present from birth and starts to fade around 3 months of age. By the age of 12 months, most infants have lost the palmar grasp reflex completely. Therefore, the correct answer is 12.

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  • 3. 

    Who is considered the father of modern psychology?

    • Sigmund Freud

    • Harry Sullivan

    • Erik Erikson

    • Jean Piaget

    Correct Answer
    A. Sigmund Freud
    Explanation
    Sigmund Freud is considered the father of modern psychology because of his significant contributions to the field. He developed psychoanalysis, a method of therapy that focused on the unconscious mind and the importance of childhood experiences. Freud's theories revolutionized the understanding of human behavior and mental processes, particularly in areas such as dream analysis, the structure of the mind (id, ego, superego), and the concept of the unconscious. His work laid the foundation for many subsequent psychological theories and approaches, making him a pivotal figure in the development of modern psychology.

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  • 4. 

    Which defense mechanism is used when emotions are aroused in a situation where it would be dangerous to express them?

    • Projection

    • Displacement

    • Sublimination

    • Rationalization

    Correct Answer
    A. Displacement
    Explanation
    Displacement is a defense mechanism that involves redirecting emotions or impulses from their original target to a safer or more acceptable one. In situations where expressing emotions could be dangerous, individuals may unconsciously transfer their feelings onto another person, object, or situation that is less threatening. This allows them to release their emotions in a safer way, avoiding potential harm or negative consequences that could arise from expressing their true feelings.

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  • 5. 

    A person experiencing symptoms of nervousness, worry, and jitteriness has an adjustment disorder with

    • Anxiety

    • Depressed mood

    • Mixed anxiety and depressed mood

    • Disturbances of emotions and conduct

    Correct Answer
    A. Anxiety
    Explanation
    The symptoms described, such as nervousness, worry, and jitteriness, are commonly associated with anxiety. Therefore, it is likely that the person is experiencing an adjustment disorder with anxiety. This disorder occurs when an individual has difficulty coping with a stressful life event or change, leading to the development of anxiety symptoms. The other options, such as depressed mood, mixed anxiety and depressed mood, and disturbances of emotions and conduct, do not specifically match the symptoms mentioned in the question.

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  • 6. 

    Who should be devising the treatment plan for the patient?

    • Patient

    • Counselor

    • Supervisor

    • Patient and counselor

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient and counselor
    Explanation
    The patient and counselor should be devising the treatment plan together because it is important for the patient to have an active role in their own treatment. By involving the patient in the decision-making process, they can provide valuable input based on their own experiences and preferences. Additionally, the counselor can offer professional guidance and expertise to ensure that the treatment plan is effective and tailored to the patient's specific needs. It is a collaborative effort between the patient and counselor to create a treatment plan that is both feasible and beneficial for the patient's well-being.

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  • 7. 

    During what stage of treatment does termination or discharge planning begin?

    • Initial intake

    • Relapse planning

    • Establishing goals

    • Crisis completion

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial intake
    Explanation
    Termination or discharge planning typically begins during the initial intake stage of treatment. This is the stage where the client's information is gathered, assessments are conducted, and treatment goals are established. It is during this stage that the treatment team starts to consider the client's progress, needs, and potential discharge options. By starting the planning process early on, the treatment team can ensure a smooth transition for the client when they are ready to be discharged from the program.

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  • 8. 

    Which briefing is considered one-sided with no verbal participation by the audience?

    • Formal.

    • Informal.

    • General.

    • Key.

    Correct Answer
    A. Formal.
    Explanation
    A formal briefing is considered one-sided with no verbal participation by the audience because it typically follows a structured format where the presenter delivers information to the audience without actively engaging them in a conversation or discussion. In a formal briefing, the audience is expected to listen and absorb the information presented rather than actively participate or provide input. This format is often used in professional settings or when conveying important information to a large group of people.

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  • 9. 

    By the time a child reaches 5 years of age their vocabulary consists of how many words?

    • 1000

    • 1500

    • 2000

    • 2500

    Correct Answer
    A. 2500
    Explanation
    By the time a child reaches 5 years of age, their vocabulary consists of approximately 2500 words. This means that they have learned and can understand and use around 2500 different words in their daily communication. This is a significant milestone in language development and indicates the child's growing ability to express themselves and comprehend more complex ideas and concepts.

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  • 10. 

    What is considered the healthiest developmental stage of life?

    • Adulthood

    • Middle age

    • Late adulthood

    • Young adulthood

    Correct Answer
    A. Young adulthood
    Explanation
    Young adulthood is considered the healthiest developmental stage of life because during this period, individuals are typically in their physical prime. They have high energy levels, strong immune systems, and fewer health complications compared to other stages of life. Additionally, young adults tend to engage in healthier lifestyle behaviors such as regular exercise, balanced diet, and good sleep patterns. This stage is also characterized by lower rates of chronic diseases and a higher ability to recover from illnesses or injuries. Overall, young adulthood is considered the healthiest stage due to the combination of physical resilience and healthy lifestyle choices.

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  • 11. 

    During which of Freud's psychosexual stages does the Oedipus conflict and electra complex occur?

    • Oral

    • Anal

    • Phallic

    • Latency

    Correct Answer
    A. Phallic
    Explanation
    During Freud's psychosexual stage of phallic development, the Oedipus conflict and Electra complex occur. This stage typically occurs between the ages of 3 and 6 years old, where children develop sexual feelings towards their opposite-sex parent and experience rivalry with their same-sex parent. The Oedipus conflict occurs in boys, where they desire their mother and view their father as a rival, while the Electra complex occurs in girls, where they desire their father and view their mother as a rival. This stage is crucial in the development of a child's gender identity and the resolution of these conflicts is important for healthy psychosexual development.

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  • 12. 

    Which subtype of a delusional disorder has a prominent theme that a person, usually of higher status, is in love with the patient?

    • Persecutory

    • Erotomanic

    • Grandiose

    • Jealous

    Correct Answer
    A. Erotomanic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is erotomanic. In this subtype of delusional disorder, the patient has a false belief that someone, often of higher social status, is in love with them. This delusion is persistent and may lead to stalking or harassing behavior towards the object of their delusion. The patient may interpret innocent gestures or actions as evidence of love and may refuse to accept any evidence that contradicts their belief. This subtype is also known as "de Clerambault's syndrome" or "erotomania".

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  • 13. 

    As a minimum, how many strength and weaknesses should be identified for each patient?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Three
    Explanation
    For each patient, it is necessary to identify a minimum of three strengths and weaknesses. This ensures a comprehensive assessment of the patient's abilities and limitations. By identifying multiple strengths, healthcare professionals can understand the patient's positive attributes and build upon them. Similarly, identifying multiple weaknesses helps in addressing areas that require improvement or intervention. This balanced approach allows for a holistic understanding of the patient's condition and facilitates effective treatment planning and care.

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  • 14. 

    Every goal must have at least how many objectives?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    Every goal must have at least one objective because an objective is a specific and measurable outcome that contributes to the achievement of a goal. Without any objectives, a goal would be vague and difficult to measure or track progress towards. Therefore, it is necessary for every goal to have at least one objective to provide clarity and direction in working towards its accomplishment.

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  • 15. 

    What is considered the overall management strategy for treating people?

    • Treatment plan

    • Relapse prevention plan

    • Psychometric examination

    • Goals and objective identification

    Correct Answer
    A. Treatment plan
    Explanation
    The overall management strategy for treating people is referred to as a treatment plan. This plan outlines the specific steps and interventions that will be taken to address an individual's needs and goals. It includes various elements such as therapy modalities, medication management, and support services. A treatment plan is developed collaboratively between the individual and their healthcare provider to ensure a comprehensive and personalized approach to their care.

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  • 16. 

    What is not one of the Gestalt therapy's five layers of neurosis?

    • Lame

    • Phony

    • Phobic

    • Impasse

    Correct Answer
    A. Lame
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "lame." In Gestalt therapy, the five layers of neurosis are phony, phobic, impasse, implosive, and explosive. "Lame" does not fit into any of these categories and is not considered one of the layers of neurosis in Gestalt therapy.

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  • 17. 

    In strategic family therapy, what is defined as denying or invalidating hurtful or demeaning statements to protect the sender's self image?

    • Disqualification

    • Disconfirmation

    • Congruent communication

    • Incongruent communication

    Correct Answer
    A. Disconfirmation
    Explanation
    Disconfirmation in strategic family therapy refers to denying or invalidating hurtful or demeaning statements to protect the sender's self-image. This means that instead of acknowledging or validating the sender's feelings, the receiver dismisses or ignores them, which can further damage the sender's self-esteem and hinder effective communication within the family.

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  • 18. 

    How many continuing education units (CEU) are required to retain certification during each three-year certification?

    • 30

    • 40

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 60
    Explanation
    To retain certification during each three-year certification, 60 continuing education units (CEU) are required. This means that professionals must complete 60 units of education or training in their field within a three-year period to maintain their certification. This requirement ensures that certified individuals stay updated with the latest developments and advancements in their industry, enhancing their knowledge and skills to provide quality services.

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  • 19. 

    Which phase of the active phases offers the opportunity for therapeutic growth for the patient and staff?

    • Crisis.

    • Trigger.

    • Escalation.

    • Recovery.

    Correct Answer
    A. Recovery.
    Explanation
    The phase of recovery offers the opportunity for therapeutic growth for both the patient and staff. During this phase, individuals can work towards overcoming their challenges, developing coping strategies, and making positive changes in their lives. It is a time of progress, healing, and personal growth. In this phase, the patient and staff can collaborate to support and empower the individual on their journey towards wellness and recovery.

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  • 20. 

    What is defined as “to make clear distinction; distinguish; differentiate or to act on the basis of prejudice?”

    • Racism.

    • Culture.

    • Ethnicity.

    • Discrimination.

    Correct Answer
    A. Discrimination.
    Explanation
    Discrimination is the correct answer because it refers to the act of making clear distinctions or differentiating between individuals or groups based on certain characteristics such as race, gender, religion, or ethnicity. It involves treating people unfairly or unequally due to prejudice or bias, denying them equal opportunities or rights. Racism, culture, and ethnicity are related concepts, but they specifically refer to discrimination based on race or cultural background, while discrimination is a broader term encompassing all forms of unfair treatment or prejudice.

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  • 21. 

    Which form must be filled out by the physician within 24 hours of a patient’s admission?

    • SF 506, Clinical Record—Physical Examination.

    • SF 510, Clinical Record—Nursing Notes.

    • AF Form 3255, Nursing Progress Note.

    • AF Form 3066, Doctors Orders.

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 506, Clinical Record—Physical Examination.
    Explanation
    The form that must be filled out by the physician within 24 hours of a patient's admission is SF 506, Clinical Record—Physical Examination. This form is specifically designed to document the physical examination of the patient and is an important part of their medical record. It helps the physician assess the patient's overall health status and identify any potential medical issues or conditions that need to be addressed during their stay.

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  • 22. 

    When discussing priority of care, under which beneficiary type group does the active duty service member fall into?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    Active duty service members fall under the beneficiary type group 1 when discussing priority of care. This means that they have the highest priority for receiving care and should be given the utmost attention and resources. This is because they are actively serving in the military and their health and well-being are crucial for the success of their mission and the overall defense of the country.

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  • 23. 

    Who owns the OPR?

    • Patient.

    • Guardian.

    • US Air Force.

    • MTF commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. US Air Force.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is US Air Force. The OPR refers to the Office of Primary Responsibility, which is a term commonly used in the military. In this context, the question is asking about the ownership of the OPR, and the US Air Force is the entity that owns it. The other options, such as patient, guardian, and MTF commander, are not relevant to the ownership of the OPR.

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  • 24. 

    Who are considered extremely important models for children as they are often imitated?

    • Peers

    • Parents

    • Teachers

    • Siblings

    Correct Answer
    A. Parents
    Explanation
    Parents are considered extremely important models for children as they are often imitated. Children tend to look up to their parents and imitate their behaviors, actions, and values. Parents play a crucial role in shaping their children's behavior, beliefs, and attitudes. They serve as role models and provide guidance, support, and love to their children. Parents' actions and words greatly influence children's development and help them learn important life skills.

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  • 25. 

    An indication of emotional discomfort consists of depression, anxiety, and

    • Mania

    • Anoxia

    • Physical symptoms

    • Body dysmorphic disorders

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical symptoms
    Explanation
    An indication of emotional discomfort can be seen through physical symptoms such as headaches, stomachaches, muscle tension, and fatigue. These physical symptoms often accompany depression and anxiety, and can be a result of the body's response to stress and emotional distress. Therefore, physical symptoms are a valid and common manifestation of emotional discomfort.

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  • 26. 

    What is the most abused amphetamine?

    • Methylphenidate

    • Methamphetamine

    • Laevoamphetamine

    • Dextroamphetamine

    Correct Answer
    A. Methamphetamine
    Explanation
    Methamphetamine is the most abused amphetamine because it is a highly addictive central nervous system stimulant. It produces intense euphoria, increased energy, and a sense of confidence and well-being. Methamphetamine abuse can lead to severe physical and psychological dependence, as well as a range of negative health effects such as cardiovascular problems, dental issues, and cognitive impairments. Its potent effects and availability make it a popular choice for illicit drug use and contribute to its widespread abuse.

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  • 27. 

    What do short-term goals provide for the patient?

    • Acute relief or feelings of accomplishment

    • Establishes a natural exchange of ideas

    • Hope invested over a period of time

    • Establishes rapport

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute relief or feelings of accomplishment
    Explanation
    Short-term goals provide the patient with acute relief or feelings of accomplishment. These goals are typically achievable in a short period of time and provide immediate gratification. By setting and achieving these goals, the patient experiences a sense of relief and accomplishment, which can boost their motivation and confidence. This can be particularly important in healthcare settings where patients may be dealing with pain, discomfort, or long-term treatment plans. Short-term goals can help provide a sense of progress and positivity, enhancing the overall patient experience.

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  • 28. 

    If you touch a patient unnecessarily you are violating

    • Physical privacy

    • Personal privacy

    • The Hippocratic oath

    • The mental health technician code of ethics

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical privacy
    Explanation
    Touching a patient unnecessarily violates their physical privacy. Physical privacy refers to the right of individuals to control who can access and touch their bodies. By touching a patient without a valid reason or consent, their physical privacy is being violated as their personal space and boundaries are being invaded. Respecting physical privacy is an important aspect of providing ethical and respectful healthcare.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is not an example of retaliation towards a patient?

    • Reducing the patient to a diagnosis.

    • Laughing at a patient’s fears.

    • Withholding medication.

    • Avoiding patients.

    Correct Answer
    A. Withholding medication.
    Explanation
    Withholding medication is not an example of retaliation towards a patient because it is a violation of the patient's rights and can have serious consequences on their health. Retaliation refers to taking revenge or retaliating against someone, but withholding medication is a form of neglect or medical malpractice rather than an act of retaliation. It is important for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment to patients, including administering medications as prescribed.

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  • 30. 

    Which of these is not considered an intentional tort?

    • False imprisonment.

    • Misrepresentation.

    • Negligence.

    • Assault.

    Correct Answer
    A. Negligence.
    Explanation
    Negligence is not considered an intentional tort because it involves a failure to exercise reasonable care, rather than a deliberate act. Intentional torts require intent or purposeful conduct, while negligence involves a breach of duty resulting in harm, but without intent. False imprisonment, misrepresentation, and assault are intentional torts because they involve intentional acts that cause harm or infringe upon someone's rights.

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  • 31. 

    When a staff member is involved in or discovers an accident, who initiates the AF Form 765, Medical Treatment Facility Incident Statement?

    • Only the safety officer.

    • Only the supervisor.

    • The staff member.

    • Any nurse.

    Correct Answer
    A. The staff member.
    Explanation
    The staff member initiates the AF Form 765, Medical Treatment Facility Incident Statement when they are involved in or discover an accident. This form is used to document the details of the incident and any injuries or medical treatment that resulted from it. It is important for the staff member to initiate this form to ensure that all relevant information is recorded and that appropriate actions can be taken to address the incident and provide necessary medical treatment.

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  • 32. 

    Which is not considered a pre-aggressive behavior?

    • Withdrawal.

    • Hypoactivity.

    • Sleep disturbance.

    • Changes in voice level.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypoactivity.
    Explanation
    Hypoactivity is not considered a pre-aggressive behavior because it refers to a decreased level of activity or movement, which is opposite to the typical increase in activity and agitation that is often associated with pre-aggressive behaviors. Withdrawal, sleep disturbance, and changes in voice level can all be indicative of pre-aggressive behaviors as they may reflect a person's emotional state and readiness to engage in aggressive actions.

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  • 33. 

    What distance is considered the personal space in a comfort zone?

    • Contact to 18 inches.

    • 18 inches to 4 feet.

    • 4 feet to 12 feet.

    • More than 12 feet.

    Correct Answer
    A. 18 inches to 4 feet.
    Explanation
    The personal space in a comfort zone is typically considered to be between 18 inches to 4 feet. This distance allows individuals to feel comfortable and maintain their privacy while interacting with others. Being too close or too far away can make people feel uncomfortable or invade their personal space.

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  • 34. 

    Mental health records are prepared for retirement shipment in what order?

    • Date of birth.

    • Date of rank.

    • Alphabetically.

    • Chronologically.

    Correct Answer
    A. Alphabetically.
    Explanation
    Mental health records are prepared for retirement shipment in alphabetical order. This means that the records are organized and arranged based on the individuals' last names in alphabetical order. This ensures that it is easier to locate and retrieve specific records when needed. The other options mentioned, such as date of birth, date of rank, and chronologically, are not the preferred methods for organizing mental health records for retirement shipment.

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  • 35. 

    Which is not a key area of a patient’s social history?

    • Social.

    • Substance use.

    • Home environment.

    • Occupational/academic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Substance use.
    Explanation
    The question asks for the key area that is not a part of a patient's social history. Social history typically includes information about the patient's social life, relationships, and support systems. Home environment refers to the conditions and dynamics of the patient's living situation, while occupational/academic relates to their work or educational background. Substance use, on the other hand, is not directly related to a patient's social history but falls under their medical history or habits.

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  • 36. 

    Which is not something you would place on a patient status board after admission?

    • Name of the physician.

    • Patient’s name.

    • Bed number.

    • Diagnosis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Diagnosis.
    Explanation
    After a patient is admitted, the patient status board typically displays important information about the patient's condition and location. This includes the patient's name, bed number, and the name of the physician responsible for their care. However, the diagnosis is not typically displayed on the patient status board as it is confidential medical information that may not be suitable for public display.

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  • 37. 

    What is the common denominator in every chemically dependent family?

    • Guilt.

    • Denial.

    • Anxiety.

    • Strained relationships.

    Correct Answer
    A. Denial.
    Explanation
    In every chemically dependent family, denial is the common denominator. Denial refers to the refusal or inability to acknowledge or accept the existence of a problem, such as addiction. It is a defense mechanism that allows individuals to avoid facing the reality of the situation and the consequences of their actions. Denial can prevent family members from seeking help, addressing the issue, or taking necessary steps towards recovery. It often perpetuates the cycle of addiction and can lead to further dysfunction and strain within relationships.

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  • 38. 

    The group member who can easily become the target of an aggressive narcissist in the group is the

    • Monopolist

    • Silent patient

    • Schizoid patient

    • Passive-aggressive patient

    Correct Answer
    A. Schizoid patient
    Explanation
    The schizoid patient is likely to become the target of an aggressive narcissist in the group because they tend to be withdrawn, detached, and show little interest in social interactions. This makes them an easy target for the narcissist, who thrives on power and control over others. The schizoid patient's passive nature and lack of assertiveness may make it easier for the narcissist to manipulate and exploit them.

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  • 39. 

    Who conducts Health Services Inspections?

    • Emergency Evaluation Team.

    • Air Force Inspection Agency.

    • Hospital Services Inspection Team.

    • Air Force Medical Treatment Facility Team.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Inspection Agency.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Inspection Agency. The Air Force Inspection Agency is responsible for conducting health services inspections. They ensure that all medical facilities and services provided by the Air Force meet the required standards and regulations. They assess the quality of healthcare provided, identify any deficiencies, and recommend improvements to enhance the overall effectiveness of the medical services.

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  • 40. 

    How many years can the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) remain dormant before symptoms develop?

    • 5

    • 8

    • 10

    • 15

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can remain dormant for about 10 years before symptoms start to develop. During this time, the virus slowly weakens the immune system, leading to the eventual onset of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). It is important to note that the duration of the dormant period can vary from person to person, and some individuals may progress to AIDS faster or slower than others. Regular testing and early detection are crucial in managing HIV and preventing the spread of the virus.

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  • 41. 

    In order to ensure that personnel are safe from work-related deaths, injuries, and illnesses, the Air Force complies with what organization’s guidelines?

    • Joint Commission.

    • Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

    • American Psychological Association (APA).

    • Occupational, Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Occupational, Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
    Explanation
    The Air Force ensures the safety of its personnel by complying with the guidelines set by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). OSHA is responsible for establishing and enforcing standards that protect workers from work-related deaths, injuries, and illnesses. By following OSHA guidelines, the Air Force aims to create a safe and healthy working environment for its personnel.

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  • 42. 

    Which generational group is considered computer savvy, intelligent, and eager to make a place for themselves in society?

    • Veterans.

    • Baby boomers.

    • Generation Xers.

    • Generation Nexters.

    Correct Answer
    A. Generation Nexters.
    Explanation
    Generation Nexters is considered computer savvy, intelligent, and eager to make a place for themselves in society. This generational group, also known as Generation Z, has grown up with technology and is highly adept at using computers and digital devices. They are often seen as tech-savvy, quick learners, and ambitious individuals who are eager to succeed in the modern world.

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  • 43. 

    Which one do you like?

    • Option 1

    • Option 2

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
  • 44. 

    The Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application has been touted as consistently encompassing all of the following elements except

    • Secure.

    • Powerful.

    • Latitudinal.

    • Knowledgeable.

    Correct Answer
    A. Latitudinal.
    Explanation
    The question is asking for an element that is not encompassed by the Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA). The options provided are "latitudinal," "secure," "powerful," and "knowledgeable." The correct answer is "latitudinal." This means that AHLTA does not include a latitudinal element. However, the question does not provide any context or information about what a "latitudinal" element would entail in this context. Therefore, it is difficult to provide a more detailed explanation.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following statements regarding amputation from a battlefield injury is true?

    • Anxiety and depression are the rarest forms of emotional distress.

    • Behavioral disturbances are frequently a problem in the early postoperative period.

    • Newly wounded troops are apt to be euphoric and thankful that their injuries were not more severe.

    • What the surgical staff says to each other within hearing distance of the patient is not important if the patient is unconscious.

    Correct Answer
    A. Newly wounded troops are apt to be euphoric and thankful that their injuries were not more severe.
    Explanation
    Newly wounded troops often experience a sense of relief and gratitude that their injuries were not more severe. This is because they may have survived a life-threatening situation and are grateful for still being alive. This initial response of euphoria and thankfulness is a common psychological reaction to a traumatic event like a battlefield injury. It is important for healthcare providers to understand and address the emotional needs of these patients during their recovery process.

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  • 46. 

    What interview process skill requires the patient to elaborate on a vague, ambiguous, or implied statement?

    • Explanation.

    • Clarification.

    • Reflection.

    • Paraphrase.

    Correct Answer
    A. Clarification.
    Explanation
    The skill that requires the patient to elaborate on a vague, ambiguous, or implied statement is clarification. This involves asking for more information or details to better understand what the person is trying to convey. It helps to clear any confusion or uncertainty and ensures effective communication during the interview process.

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  • 47. 

    When a patient “burns bridges” what obstacle to treatment have they likely lost?

    • Lack of multidisciplinary team investment.

    • Lack of support from family.

    • Cumbersome resources.

    • Cumbersome process.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lack of support from family.
    Explanation
    When a patient "burns bridges," it means that they have likely lost the support from their family. This could be due to strained relationships, lack of understanding or empathy, or a breakdown in communication. Without the support of their family, the patient may feel isolated and unsupported, which can be a significant obstacle to their treatment. Family support plays a crucial role in the recovery process, providing emotional, practical, and sometimes financial assistance. Without this support, the patient may struggle to adhere to their treatment plan and may experience additional stress and challenges in their journey towards recovery.

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  • 48. 

    Who manages the SUAT information?

    • AFIA

    • DISA

    • AFMSA

    • AFMOA

    Correct Answer
    A. AFMOA
    Explanation
    AFMOA stands for Air Force Medical Operations Agency. As the question asks about the management of SUAT information, AFMOA is the most likely answer as it is responsible for managing medical operations and information within the Air Force. AFIA, DISA, and AFMSA are not directly associated with medical operations, making AFMOA the most suitable option for managing SUAT information.

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  • 49. 

    During which dimension of self-concept is sense of purpose to the self gained?

    • Self-esteem

    • Self-recognition

    • Aspirations and goals

    • Personal competence

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspirations and goals
    Explanation
    The sense of purpose to the self is gained during the dimension of self-concept known as aspirations and goals. This dimension involves the individual's desires, ambitions, and objectives for their future. It is through setting and striving towards these aspirations and goals that individuals develop a sense of purpose and direction in their lives.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 13, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • May 01, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Enmcdowell
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