3DX7X Volume 1. Cyberspace Management And Operations

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| By Edwarj1795

Edwarj1795

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 840

Questions: 100 | Attempts: 566 | Updated: Mar 20, 2023

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CDC Z3DX7X TEST 100 Questions

Questions and Answers

1.

Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?
- A.
  
  Computer Systems Programming
- B.
  
  Cyber Systems Operations
- C.
  
  Cyber Transport Systems
- D.
  
  Cyber Surety
Correct Answer
A. Computer Systems Programming

Explanation
The Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) that requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test is Computer Systems Programming. This specialty code involves programming and developing software for computer systems. To ensure proficiency in this area, members are required to pass the test, which assesses their knowledge and skills in electronic data processing.

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2.

Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?
- A.
  
  Minimum rank of SSgt
- B.
  
  6 months on-the-job-training (OJT) for retrainees
- C.
  
  Completion of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSC) specific requirements
- D.
  
  Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC)supplemental training courses
Correct Answer
D. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC)supplemental training courses

Explanation
The completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) supplemental training courses is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level.

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3.

Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?
- A.
  
  Communications Focal Point
- B.
  
  Unit Deployment Monitor
- C.
  
  Enterprise Service Desk
- D.
  
  Quality Assurance
Correct Answer
A. Communications Focal Point

Explanation
The Communications Focal Point function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel, who are responsible for managing and maintaining communication systems within the unit. However, the specific Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) required for this function may vary depending on the mission of the unit. This suggests that different units may have different AFSCs assigned to the Communications Focal Point role based on their specific needs and requirements.

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4.

What document directs the Communications Focal Point key processes?
- A.
  
  TO 00-5-15
- B.
  
  MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA
- C.
  
  Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory
- D.
  
  Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II
Correct Answer
B. MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA

Explanation
The correct answer is MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA. This document directs the Communications Focal Point key processes.

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5.

Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized?
- A.
  
  At major command function managers
- B.
  
  At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)
- C.
  
  At the Air Force Personnel Center
- D.
  
  With Career Field Managers
Correct Answer
B. At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)

Explanation
The correct answer is "At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)". This means that the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at the HAF. This suggests that the HAF is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the manpower planning and programming efforts across the Air Force.

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6.

Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is a tool to manage positions?
- A.
  
  Program Element Code (PEC)
- B.
  
  Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
- C.
  
  Authorization Change Request (ACR)
- D.
  
  Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)
Correct Answer
B. Unit Manpower Document (UMD)

Explanation
The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is a tool to manage positions. It provides details about the authorized manpower positions within the organization, including job titles, responsibilities, and required qualifications. The UMD helps in tracking and managing the allocation of personnel resources, ensuring that the organization has the right number and types of positions to effectively carry out its mission. It is an essential document for workforce planning and management.

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7.

Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?
- A.
  
  Program Element Code (PEC)
- B.
  
  Special Experience Identifier (SEI)
- C.
  
  Authorization Change Request (ACR)
- D.
  
  Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)
Correct Answer
A. Program Element Code (PEC)

Explanation
Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. PEC is a unique identifier assigned to each program element within the Department of Defense (DoD) budget. It helps in tracking and managing the cost associated with specific elements of a program. This allows for better budgeting, resource allocation, and cost analysis within the defense system. PECs are used to categorize and track costs for specific weapon systems or support functions, making it the correct answer to the question.

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8.

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?
- A.
  
  Construct Career Paths
- B.
  
  Manage skill-level training requirements
- C.
  
  Establish requirements for entry into the career field
- D.
  
  Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM)
Correct Answer
D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM)

Explanation
The responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is to oversee and manage various aspects of a specific career field within the Air Force. This includes constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by the personnel or manpower offices within the MAJCOM.

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9.

Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
  
  MAJCOM director of Communications (A6)
- B.
  
  MAJCOM Functional Manager
- C.
  
  Career Field Manager (CFM)
- D.
  
  SAF/CIO A6
Correct Answer
B. MAJCOM Functional Manager

Explanation
The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing the functional area within the MAJCOM and has the authority to make decisions and represent the command's interests during these meetings. They work closely with the Career Field Manager (CFM) and other stakeholders to ensure that training requirements and utilization are aligned with the needs of the command. The SAF/CIO A6 is not directly involved in this role and the MAJCOM director of Communications (A6) may have a different set of responsibilities within the command.

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10.

Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) / Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training?
- A.
  
  Segment 1
- B.
  
  Segment 2
- C.
  
  Segment 3
- D.
  
  Segment 4
Correct Answer
B. Segment 2

Explanation
Segment 2 of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) / Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process focuses on training proficiency levels and training. This segment is dedicated to assessing the proficiency levels of individuals and identifying the training needs required to enhance their skills and knowledge. It involves evaluating the current training programs and identifying any gaps or areas for improvement. By concentrating on training proficiency levels and training, Segment 2 aims to ensure that individuals receive the necessary training to perform their roles effectively and efficiently.

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11.

Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
- A.
  
  Draft and sign minutes
- B.
  
  Finalize part 1 of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
- C.
  
  Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description
- D.
  
  Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS) / Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses
Correct Answer
D. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS) / Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses

Explanation
The Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) is responsible for several actions, including drafting and signing minutes, finalizing part 1 of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP), and finalizing the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description. However, they are not responsible for finalizing Specialty Training Standards (STS) / Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

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12.

Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
  
  Air Education and Training Command (AETC) / Training Pipeline Manager (TPM)
- B.
  
  AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer
- C.
  
  Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
- D.
  
  MAJCOM Functional Manager
Correct Answer
A. Air Education and Training Command (AETC) / Training Pipeline Manager (TPM)

Explanation
The optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) is the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) / Training Pipeline Manager (TPM). This means that this individual is not required to attend the workshop, but they have the option to do so. The other options listed, such as the AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer, Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM), and MAJCOM Functional Manager, are not specified as optional attendees, so they are not the correct answer.

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13.

What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
  
  Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)
- B.
  
  Quality Training Package (QTP)
- C.
  
  Subject Matter Experts (SME)
- D.
  
  Job Quality Standards (JQS)
Correct Answer
A. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)

Explanation
The Occupational Analysis Report (OAR) is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). The OAR provides detailed information about the tasks, knowledge, and skills required for a specific job or career field. This information is then used to create the CFETP and STS, which outline the training and education requirements for individuals in that career field. The OAR serves as a foundation for developing these training plans and standards.

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14.

What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?
- A.
  
  Remedy
- B.
  
  Situational Report (SITREP)
- C.
  
  Telephone Management System (TMS)
- D.
  
  Integrated Data Maintenance System (IMDS)
Correct Answer
D. Integrated Data Maintenance System (IMDS)

Explanation
The Integrated Data Maintenance System (IMDS) is an Automated Information System (AIS) that is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). It is a system designed to manage and maintain data related to various items, such as equipment, materials, and supplies. IMDS allows users to record and track actions taken on these items, ensuring accurate documentation and reporting. This system is specifically designed for the purpose of maintaining and managing data related to items with SRDs, making it the correct answer for this question.

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15.

Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?
- A.
  
  Review Integrated Maintenance Data Systems (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly
- B.
  
  Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)
- C.
  
  Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL)
- D.
  
  Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions
Correct Answer
B. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)

Explanation
The correct answer is "Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)". This duty is not typically performed by the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor. The MDC monitor's responsibilities include reviewing IMDS reports to ensure job status is reflected properly, matching reports with the Open Incident Listing (OIL), and scheduling and distributing daily maintenance actions. However, entering equipment status into ESR is typically the responsibility of a different role or department.

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16.

Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?
- A.
  
  Communications Focal Point
- B.
  
  Flight Commander / Chief
- C.
  
  Production Controller
- D.
  
  Commander
Correct Answer
B. Flight Commander / Chief

Explanation
The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. This role is in charge of overseeing and coordinating all aspects of the flight operations, including inspections. They ensure that the necessary inspections are scheduled, conducted, and documented according to the established procedures and regulations. By taking on this responsibility, the Flight Commander/Chief ensures the safety and compliance of the operations.

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17.

Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center?
- A.
  
  Master Task List
- B.
  
  Job Qualification Standard
- C.
  
  Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
- D.
  
  Milestones for tasks and Career Development Courses (CDC) completion
Correct Answer
B. Job Qualification Standard

Explanation
The Job Qualification Standard is included in the Master Training Plan only if it is applicable to the work center. This means that the Job Qualification Standard is not a mandatory inclusion in the Master Training Plan and is only included if it is relevant to the specific work center.

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18.

Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment / systems acceptance?
- A.
  
  30
- B.
  
  60
- C.
  
  90
- D.
  
  120
Correct Answer
D. 120

Explanation
Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/systems acceptance. This suggests that after the acceptance of new equipment or systems, a certain number of ARC personnel need to undergo evaluations within 120 days. These evaluations are likely conducted to assess the personnel's proficiency and effectiveness in operating the new equipment or systems.

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19.

Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
- A.
  
  Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare
- B.
  
  Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity of the mission
- C.
  
  Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on - and off - duty activities
- D.
  
  Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost
Correct Answer
D. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost

Explanation
The goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM) is to enhance mission effectiveness, integrate ORM into mission processes, and create a culture where everyone is trained and motivated to manage risk. The statement "Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost" goes against the goals of ORM as it focuses on decreasing effectiveness rather than enhancing it.

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20.

How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
- A.
  
  2
- B.
  
  4
- C.
  
  6
- D.
  
  8
Correct Answer
C. 6

Explanation
Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic approach to identify, assess, and control risks in operational processes. It typically consists of six steps: risk identification, risk assessment, risk analysis, risk control, risk monitoring, and risk communication. These steps are crucial in managing and mitigating operational risks effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is 6.

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21.

Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on?
- A.
  
  AF Form 55
- B.
  
  AF Form 971
- C.
  
  AF Form 623A
- D.
  
  AF Form 623A and AF Form 55
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 55

Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 55. This form is used by supervisors to document and maintain completed safety training. It serves as a record of the training that has been completed by individuals and allows supervisors to track and monitor the safety training progress of their personnel.

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22.

Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?
- A.
  
  Job Safety Training (JST)
- B.
  
  Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)
- C.
  
  Task Hazard Analysis (THA)
- D.
  
  Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA)
Correct Answer
A. Job Safety Training (JST)

Explanation
The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis (JSA) is a systematic process that involves identifying potential hazards associated with a specific job or task and determining the appropriate controls to mitigate those hazards. On the other hand, Job Safety Training (JST) refers to the training provided to employees to ensure they have the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their job safely. While both JSA and JST are important components of a comprehensive safety program, they serve different purposes.

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23.

Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1?
- A.
  
  Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures
- B.
  
  Resources required to manage and use TOs
- C.
  
  Infrastructure to manage and use TOs
- D.
  
  Training to manage and use TOs
Correct Answer
A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures

Explanation
The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

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24.

Recommended Technical Order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on?
- A.
  
  AFTO Form 673
- B.
  
  AFTO Form 22
- C.
  
  AF FORM 673
- D.
  
  AF Form 22
Correct Answer
B. AFTO Form 22
25.

Who determines if local checklists and / or work cards are required for specific equipment?
- A.
  
  Library Custodian
- B.
  
  Flight Commander / Chief
- C.
  
  Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)
- D.
  
  Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)
Correct Answer
B. Flight Commander / Chief

Explanation
The Flight Commander/Chief determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They are responsible for overseeing the operations and maintenance of the equipment and have the authority to establish procedures and requirements for its use. They ensure that all necessary documentation, such as checklists and work cards, are in place to ensure the safe and efficient operation of the equipment.

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26.

Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?
- A.
  
  Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)
- B.
  
  American National Standard Institute (ANSI)
- C.
  
  Information and Communications Technology (ICT)
- D.
  
  Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)
Correct Answer
B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI)

Explanation
ANSI provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA). ANSI is a recognized organization that sets standards for various industries, including the telecommunications industry. Accreditation from ANSI ensures that TIA meets the necessary criteria and follows the established standards in their operations and services. This accreditation helps to maintain quality and reliability within the telecommunications industry and promotes consistency in products and services provided by TIA.

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27.

Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?
- A.
  
  Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)
- B.
  
  American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
- C.
  
  Information and Communications Technology (ICT)
- D.
  
  Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)
Correct Answer
D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)

Explanation
The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). ECIA develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards.

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28.

Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?
- A.
  
  The authoring Officer of Primary Responsibility (OPR)
- B.
  
  Commander / Director responsible for the guidance.
- C.
  
  The authoring OPR's supervisor
- D.
  
  Publications Manager
Correct Answer
C. The authoring OPR's supervisor

Explanation
The authoring OPR's supervisor should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official because they are responsible for overseeing the work of the authoring Officer of Primary Responsibility (OPR). As the supervisor, they have the authority to review and approve the form, ensuring its accuracy and compliance with guidelines. This endorsement adds an extra layer of validation to the form and ensures that it has been properly reviewed before being certified.

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29.

What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?
- A.
  
  Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI)
- B.
  
  Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)
- C.
  
  Commercial Off-the-shelf (COTS)
- D.
  
  Military Only
Correct Answer
C. Commercial Off-the-shelf (COTS)

Explanation
Commercial Off-the-shelf (COTS) systems refer to software or hardware products that are readily available in the commercial market. These systems are commonly understood as they are widely used and familiar to many users. They are also maintainable as updates and support are provided by the vendors. COTS systems are defendable as they are supported by a large user base and have undergone rigorous testing and evaluation. Therefore, implementing COTS systems in both federal and non-federal systems ensures a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain.

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30.

The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government of the government is authorized bu United States Code (USC) Title?
- A.
  
  10
- B.
  
  15
- C.
  
  37
- D.
  
  50
Correct Answer
A. 10

Explanation
The correct answer is 10 because the United States Code (USC) Title 10 specifically authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of the government. Title 10 outlines the roles, responsibilities, and organization of the DOD, including its various branches such as the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. It is the primary legal foundation for the DOD's existence and operations.

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31.

Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United Stated Code (USC) Title?
- A.
  
  15
- B.
  
  18
- C.
  
  32
- D.
  
  37
Correct Answer
C. 32

Explanation
The correct answer is 32 because United States Code (USC) Title 32 specifically outlines the procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty. This title of the USC is dedicated to the National Guard and provides the legal framework for its activation and deployment.

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32.

Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?
- A.
  
  Wing Commander
- B.
  
  Numbered Air Force Commander
- C.
  
  Communications Squadron Commander
- D.
  
  Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander
Correct Answer
A. Wing Commander

Explanation
The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for both public and private websites. They have the authority to select individuals who will be in charge of managing and publishing content on these websites.

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33.

When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called?
- A.
  
  Misuse of position
- B.
  
  A covered relationships
- C.
  
  Non-public information
- D.
  
  Personal conflict of interest
Correct Answer
A. Misuse of position

Explanation
Misuse of position refers to the act of using one's authority or position for personal gain or benefit. This can include actions such as accepting bribes, embezzlement, or favoritism. It is a form of unethical behavior where an individual abuses their power for personal interests, disregarding the responsibilities and obligations associated with their position.

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34.

Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?
- A.
  
  Military Personnel (MILPERS)
- B.
  
  Military Construction (MILCON)
- C.
  
  Operation and Maintenance (O&M)
- D.
  
  Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E)
Correct Answer
B. Military Construction (MILCON)

Explanation
Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are allocated specifically for the construction, expansion, and improvement of military facilities. This includes the relocation of existing facilities to better serve the needs of the military. These funds are separate from other types of funds, such as Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds, which cover day-to-day operations and maintenance expenses. Therefore, MILCON is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the cost of relocating facilities.

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35.

What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal circumstances?
- A.
  
  $100,000
- B.
  
  $250,000
- C.
  
  $750,000
- D.
  
  $1,000,000
Correct Answer
C. $750,000

Explanation
Under normal circumstances, the maximum amount that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover for minor construction projects is $750,000.

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36.

In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)?
- A.
  
  10-401
- B.
  
  33-360
- C.
  
  38-101
- D.
  
  64-117
Correct Answer
D. 64-117
37.

At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?
- A.
  
  Approval Official (AO)
- B.
  
  Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC)
- C.
  
  DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO)
- D.
  
  Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC)
Correct Answer
B. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC)

Explanation
The Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring of the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program at the installation level. They oversee the day-to-day operations of the program, ensuring that it is being implemented correctly and efficiently. They also provide training to cardholders and approving officials, monitor card usage and compliance with program policies, and handle any issues or concerns that may arise. The A/OPC plays a crucial role in ensuring the success and effectiveness of the GPC Program at the installation level.

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38.

Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?
- A.
  
  Making authorized transactions
- B.
  
  Reconciling transactions
- C.
  
  Logging transactions
- D.
  
  Funds accountability
Correct Answer
D. Funds accountability

Explanation
Funds accountability is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders. GPC cardholders are responsible for making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is typically the responsibility of higher-level financial management personnel who oversee the overall budget and financial operations of the government agency or organization.

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39.

Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in?
- A.
  
  Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-201
- B.
  
  Joint Publication 1-02
- C.
  
  Joint Publication 1-03
- D.
  
  AFI 10-401
Correct Answer
D. AFI 10-401

Explanation
The correct answer is AFI 10-401 because it is stated in the question that detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in this Air Force Instruction.

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40.

Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?
- A.
  
  Air Force Chief of Staff
- B.
  
  Secretary of the Air Force
- C.
  
  Selected major command Command Chiefs
- D.
  
  Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Chief of Staff

Explanation
After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This individual holds a high-ranking position within the Air Force and is responsible for overseeing the operations and policies of the entire Air Force. As such, it is their role to review and approve the selections made by the board, ensuring that the chosen individuals meet the necessary criteria and standards to be recognized as Outstanding Airmen of the Year.

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41.

Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?
- A.
  
  Wing
- B.
  
  Group
- C.
  
  Squadron
- D.
  
  Major Command
Correct Answer
A. Wing

Explanation
In the military hierarchy, the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is the Wing. A Wing is a large organizational unit that consists of multiple groups, squadrons, and other subordinate units. It is responsible for carrying out specific missions and tasks. The Wing level is higher than the Group, Squadron, and Major Command levels, making it the correct answer.

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42.

Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction?
- A.
  
  36-2604
- B.
  
  36-2803
- C.
  
  36-2805
- D.
  
  36-2845
Correct Answer
D. 36-2845

Explanation
Air Force instruction 36-2845 provides guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community.

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43.

What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force / Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?
- A.
  
  1 October - 30 September
- B.
  
  1 January - 31 December
- C.
  
  1 April - 31 March
- D.
  
  1 July - 30 June
Correct Answer
A. 1 October - 30 September

Explanation
The inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force / Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September. This means that the awards cover a full year, starting in October and ending in September of the following year.

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44.

The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to?
- A.
  
  53
- B.
  
  63
- C.
  
  73
- D.
  
  83
Correct Answer
B. 63

Explanation
The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to 63. This means that a FireWire bus can support a maximum of 63 devices connected to it.

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45.

What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?
- A.
  
  Monitor
- B.
  
  Scanner
- C.
  
  Keyboard
- D.
  
  Graphics card
Correct Answer
C. Keyboard

Explanation
A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches, also known as keys, are used to input data and commands into a computer or other electronic device. When a key is pressed, it completes a circuit and sends a signal to the device, which then interprets the input accordingly. Keyboards are essential input devices for computers and are commonly used for typing, gaming, and navigating through software interfaces.

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0
1
46.

A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?
- A.
  
  At least 5
- B.
  
  No more than 10
- C.
  
  No more than 20
- D.
  
  20 or more
Correct Answer
C. No more than 20

Explanation
A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers that typically consists of a small number of computers, allowing them to easily share files, printers, and resources. The answer "No more than 20" suggests that a workgroup can have a maximum of 20 computers. This implies that a workgroup can have any number of computers up to 20, but it cannot exceed that limit.

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47.

Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?
- A.
  
  Simple
- B.
  
  Relative
- C.
  
  Positive
- D.
  
  Absolute
Correct Answer
C. Positive

Explanation
The question asks for a type of UNIX pathname that does not exist. The options "Simple," "Relative," and "Absolute" are all valid types of UNIX pathnames. However, "Positive" is not a recognized type of UNIX pathname. Therefore, "Positive" is the correct answer.

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48.

Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?
- A.
  
  Norton Utilities
- B.
  
  Acrobat Reader
- C.
  
  Virus Scan
- D.
  
  WinZip
Correct Answer
A. Norton Utilities

Explanation
Norton Utilities is an application that includes tools specifically designed to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. It offers features such as file recovery, disk optimization, and system diagnostics to ensure the smooth functioning of the computer. Acrobat Reader is a PDF viewer, Virus Scan is an antivirus software, and WinZip is a file compression tool, none of which have the specific tools for file recovery and computer failure protection that Norton Utilities provides.

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49.

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?
- A.
  
  High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC)
- B.
  
  Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)
- C.
  
  Distance Vector and Link State
- D.
  
  RS-232 and RS-530
Correct Answer
B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)

Explanation
The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The OSI Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers to handle different functions. The LLC sublayer is responsible for flow control, error checking, and framing of data packets. It also provides a connectionless service to the Network Layer. The MAC sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media, such as Ethernet or Wi-Fi. It handles tasks like addressing, collision detection, and media arbitration. By dividing the Data Link Layer into these two sublayers, the IEEE ensures efficient and reliable communication between network devices.

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50.

Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?
- A.
  
  Network
- B.
  
  Physical
- C.
  
  Data Link
- D.
  
  Transport
Correct Answer
C. Data Link

Explanation
Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between network nodes over a physical link. Switches and bridges are devices that connect multiple network segments together and forward data packets based on the destination MAC address. They operate at the Data Link layer by examining the MAC addresses in the data packets and making forwarding decisions accordingly.

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Current Version
Mar 20, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Nov 07, 2016

Quiz Created by
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3DX7X Volume 1. Cyberspace Management And Operations

Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?

Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?

Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?

What document directs the Communications Focal Point key processes?

Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized?

Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is a tool to manage positions?

Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?

Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) / Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training?

Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?

Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?

Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center?

Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment / systems acceptance?

Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on?

Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?

Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1?

Recommended Technical Order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on?

Who determines if local checklists and / or work cards are required for specific equipment?

Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?

Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?

What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government of the government is authorized bu United States Code (USC) Title?

Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United Stated Code (USC) Title?

Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?

When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called?

Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal circumstances?

In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)?

At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?

Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?

Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in?

Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?

Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction?

What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force / Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?

The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to?

What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?

Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?

Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?