2A651H EOC Pretest 1
- 1.
Which functions form a maintenance group?
- A.
Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying
- B.
Maintenance, operations, QA
- C.
QA, support, aircraft maintenance
- D.
Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QAExplanation
The functions that form a maintenance group are maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA. These functions are essential for ensuring the proper maintenance and operation of aircraft. Maintenance operations involve coordinating and managing maintenance activities, while maintenance refers to the actual repair and upkeep of the aircraft. Aircraft maintenance specifically focuses on the maintenance of the aircraft itself. QA (Quality Assurance) is responsible for ensuring that maintenance procedures and standards are followed correctly. Together, these functions work together to ensure the safety and reliability of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health?
- A.
Operations Support Center
- B.
Logistics Support Squadron
- C.
Operations Support Squadron
- D.
Maintenance Operations Center
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance Operations CenterExplanation
The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules and maintaining visibility of fleet health. They ensure that aircraft are properly maintained and serviced, and coordinate with other units to schedule maintenance activities. This allows for efficient and effective management of the fleet, ensuring that aircraft are available and in optimal condition for missions.Rate this question:
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- 3.
When you are assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be attached?
- A.
Maintenance
- B.
Accessories
- C.
Fabrication
- D.
Munitions
Correct Answer
A. MaintenanceExplanation
As an engine troop assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron, it is most likely that you will be attached to the Maintenance flight. This is because the role of an engine troop involves the maintenance and repair of engines, which falls under the responsibilities of the Maintenance flight. The Accessories flight typically handles the maintenance of aircraft accessories, the Fabrication flight deals with metal fabrication and repair, and the Munitions flight is responsible for handling and maintaining weapons and ammunition.Rate this question:
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- 4.
When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be attached?
- A.
Debrief
- B.
Specialist
- C.
Deployment
- D.
Training
Correct Answer
B. SpecialistExplanation
As an engine troop in an aircraft maintenance squadron, you will most likely be attached to the Specialist flight. This is because engine troops are responsible for the maintenance and repair of aircraft engines, and the Specialist flight typically handles specialized tasks and responsibilities related to specific aircraft systems or components. Therefore, being assigned to the Specialist flight would align with your role and expertise in engine maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What does the fifth position of the AFSC 3A652 represent?
- A.
Career field subdivision
- B.
Specific AFSC
- C.
Career field
- D.
Skill level
Correct Answer
B. Specific AFSCExplanation
The fifth position of the AFSC 3A652 represents the specific AFSC. AFSC stands for Air Force Specialty Code, which is a code used to identify specific jobs within the Air Force. The fifth position in this code indicates the specific job within the career field of 3A652.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?
- A.
OJT
- B.
Task qualification
- C.
CDCs
- D.
NCOA
Correct Answer
C. CDCsExplanation
CDCs stands for Career Development Courses. These courses are designed to provide training and education to individuals in order to help them learn the knowledge portion of their job. CDCs are typically self-paced and cover a wide range of topics related to the specific job or career field. They are often used in military training and are intended to enhance job performance and career progression.Rate this question:
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- 7.
How many months must you have in the AF before you attend Airman Leadership School (ALS)?
- A.
24
- B.
36
- C.
48
- D.
18
Correct Answer
C. 48Explanation
In order to attend Airman Leadership School (ALS) in the Air Force, you must have completed 48 months of service. ALS is a professional military education program that provides leadership training for airmen. This requirement ensures that airmen have a sufficient amount of experience and time in service before attending the school, allowing them to better apply the leadership skills and knowledge gained during the program.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all AF employees?
- A.
MSDS
- B.
AFOSH
- C.
ORM
- D.
Flight-line saftey
Correct Answer
B. AFOSHExplanation
AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health program. Its purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees. AFOSH sets standards and guidelines to prevent accidents, injuries, and illnesses in the workplace. This program covers a wide range of areas including hazard identification, risk assessment, training, and enforcement of safety regulations. By implementing AFOSH, the Air Force aims to protect its personnel and maintain a productive and efficient work environment.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Force publication series?
- A.
55
- B.
66
- C.
91
- D.
92
Correct Answer
C. 91Explanation
AFOSH standards are located within Air Force publication series 91. This means that the guidelines and regulations related to Occupational Safety and Health in the Air Force can be found in the publications under series 91.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
- A.
21-110
- B.
00-20-1
- C.
00-20-2
- D.
21-101
Correct Answer
D. 21-101Explanation
Air Force instruction 21-101 defines quality maintenance and mandates that maintenance personnel exhibit integrity and adhere to all written guidance.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The compressor bleed air supplied by small gas turbine (SGT) engines is not used for the
- A.
Heating the fuel supplied to the engines
- B.
Starting the main engines.
- C.
Pressurizing the aircraft.
- D.
Air-conditioning system.
Correct Answer
A. Heating the fuel supplied to the enginesExplanation
The compressor bleed air from the small gas turbine engines is not used for heating the fuel supplied to the engines. This means that the air taken from the compressor is not used to warm up the fuel before it enters the engine.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What component contains the alternating current (AC) generator located on C-130 type aircraft that incorporates the gas turbine compressor (GTC)?
- A.
GTC compressor section.
- B.
GTC accessory gearbox
- C.
Air turbine motor.
- D.
Right wheel well.
Correct Answer
C. Air turbine motor.Explanation
The air turbine motor is the component that contains the alternating current (AC) generator located on C-130 type aircraft that incorporates the gas turbine compressor (GTC). The air turbine motor is responsible for driving the AC generator, which produces the alternating current needed for various electrical systems on the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 13.
This statement applies when either the auxiliary power unit (APU) or the gas turbine compressor (GTC) is installed on C-130 aircraft.
- A.
GTC can only be operated while the aircraft is flying.
- B.
APU can only be operated while the aircraft is on the ground
- C.
APU can be operated whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying.
- D.
GTC can be operated whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying
Correct Answer
C. APU can be operated whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying.Explanation
The APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) can be operated whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying. This means that the APU provides power to the aircraft's systems and equipment regardless of its state (on the ground or in the air). On the other hand, the GTC (Gas Turbine Compressor) can only be operated while the aircraft is flying, indicating that it is specifically designed to provide power to the aircraft's systems during flight.Rate this question:
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- 14.
After combustion, the resulting hot gases flow through the bottom of the C-130 aircraft’s auxiliary power unit (APU) combustion can and into the
- A.
Deswirl ring.
- B.
Turbine torus.
- C.
Exhaust flange.
- D.
Turbine plenum
Correct Answer
B. Turbine torus.Explanation
After combustion, the hot gases from the C-130 aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU) flow through the bottom of the APU combustion can. From there, the gases enter the turbine torus, which is a component that helps to direct and control the flow of exhaust gases. The turbine torus is responsible for ensuring that the gases are properly channeled towards the exhaust flange and the turbine plenum, where further processes occur.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What type of energy does the C-130 aircraft’s auxiliary power unit (APU) turbine section converts the hot gases produced by the combustion section into?
- A.
Electric
- B.
Hydro
- C.
Pneumatic
- D.
Mechanical
Correct Answer
D. MechanicalExplanation
The C-130 aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU) turbine section converts the hot gases produced by the combustion section into mechanical energy. This mechanical energy can be used to power various systems and components of the aircraft, such as generators, pumps, and hydraulic systems.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which switch, within the multiple centrifugal switch assembly, opens a circuit to stop the C- 130 aircraft auxiliary power unit’s (APU) ignition unit?
- A.
15
- B.
65
- C.
95
- D.
110
Correct Answer
C. 95Explanation
The correct answer is 95. Within the multiple centrifugal switch assembly, the switch labeled 95 opens a circuit to stop the C-130 aircraft auxiliary power unit's (APU) ignition unit. This switch is specifically designed to interrupt the flow of electricity and prevent the APU from igniting, ensuring the safety of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 17.
This C-130 aircraft auxiliary power unit (APU) component calibrates the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicator to the thermocouple.
- A.
Thermocouple resistor.
- B.
Pneumatic thermostat.
- C.
EGT thermocouple
- D.
EGT power supply
Correct Answer
A. Thermocouple resistor.Explanation
The thermocouple resistor is the correct answer because it is the component that calibrates the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicator to the thermocouple. A thermocouple resistor is a device that measures temperature by utilizing the principle of the Seebeck effect, which states that a temperature difference between two dissimilar metals creates a voltage difference. In this case, the thermocouple resistor is used to calibrate the EGT indicator to accurately measure the exhaust gas temperature in the C-130 aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What type of sump system is an auxiliary power unit (APU) considered if the oil is not stored within the engine itself?
- A.
Wet
- B.
Dry
- C.
Reserve
- D.
Emergency
Correct Answer
B. DryExplanation
An auxiliary power unit (APU) is considered a dry sump system when the oil is not stored within the engine itself. In a dry sump system, the oil is stored in a separate reservoir or tank, rather than in the engine's crankcase. This allows for better oil control and lubrication, as well as improved engine performance and reliability. By keeping the oil separate from the engine, a dry sump system can also help prevent oil starvation during high-speed or high-g turns, ensuring that the engine remains properly lubricated at all times.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The acceleration control valve compares these two inputs to schedule the proper fuel-flow to the atomizer during a C-130 aircraft’s auxiliary power unit (APU) acceleration.
- A.
RPM and EGT
- B.
CDP and fuel pressure
- C.
CIT and RPM
- D.
EGT and fuel pressure
Correct Answer
B. CDP and fuel pressureExplanation
The acceleration control valve uses the inputs of CDP (Compressor Discharge Pressure) and fuel pressure to determine the appropriate fuel-flow to the atomizer during the acceleration of a C-130 aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU). These two parameters are crucial in ensuring that the APU receives the correct amount of fuel for optimal performance during acceleration. RPM and EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) are not mentioned in relation to the acceleration control valve, so they are not the correct inputs for this particular system.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which component does the thermostat bleed air pressure away from during the C-130 aircraft auxiliary power unit’s (APU) start and acceleration?
- A.
Load control valve.
- B.
Acceleration control diaphragm.
- C.
Pneumatic thermostat.
- D.
Compressor discharge solenoid.
Correct Answer
B. Acceleration control diapHragm.Explanation
During the start and acceleration of the C-130 aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU), the thermostat bleeds air pressure away from the acceleration control diaphragm. This component is responsible for controlling the acceleration of the APU. By bleeding air pressure, the thermostat helps regulate and maintain the proper acceleration of the APU, ensuring smooth and efficient operation.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What component provides the mounting pad for the bottom surface of the AE2100D3 air inlet housing?
- A.
PUAD
- B.
GMAD
- C.
FPMU
- D.
Inlet scroll case
Correct Answer
A. PUADExplanation
PUAD stands for Power Unit Accessory Drive. It is a component that provides the mounting pad for the bottom surface of the AE2100D3 air inlet housing.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What type of compressor rotor assembly is used on the AE2100D3 engine?
- A.
14-stage axial-flow
- B.
5-stage axial, 1-stage centrifugal
- C.
14-stage dual spool compressor
- D.
14-stage axial-flow, 1-stage centrifugal
Correct Answer
A. 14-stage axial-flowExplanation
The correct answer is 14-stage axial-flow. This means that the compressor rotor assembly on the AE2100D3 engine consists of 14 stages of axial-flow compressors. Axial-flow compressors are commonly used in gas turbine engines and are designed to provide a smooth and continuous flow of air through the compressor stages. This type of compressor assembly is efficient and capable of handling high volumes of air, making it suitable for use in aircraft engines.Rate this question:
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- 23.
How many fuel nozzles are in the AE2100D3 engine?
- A.
8
- B.
12
- C.
16
- D.
18
Correct Answer
C. 16Explanation
The AE2100D3 engine has 16 fuel nozzles.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The AE2100D3 GMAD supplies the pads and drives for the AC generator, hydraulic pump, PGB lube and scavenge pump, propeller overspeed governor (OSG) and high-pressure pump, and the
- A.
FPMU
- B.
Starter
- C.
PCU
- D.
Alternator stator
Correct Answer
C. PCUExplanation
The given answer "PCU" is correct because it stands for Power Control Unit. In the given context, the AE2100D3 GMAD supplies the pads and drives for various components, including the PCU. The PCU is responsible for controlling and regulating the power distribution to different systems and components in an aircraft. Therefore, it makes sense for the PCU to be included in the list of components supplied by the AE2100D3 GMAD.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The AE2100D3 starter control valve is spring-loaded to what position?
- A.
Opened
- B.
Closed
- C.
Fixed
- D.
Actuated
Correct Answer
B. ClosedExplanation
The AE2100D3 starter control valve is spring-loaded to the closed position. This means that when the spring is not being compressed, the valve remains closed, preventing the flow of any fluid or air.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How is the AE2100D3 starter control valve actuated?
- A.
Pneumatically.
- B.
Electrically.
- C.
Hydraulically.
- D.
Hydro-electrically.
Correct Answer
B. Electrically.Explanation
The AE2100D3 starter control valve is actuated electrically. This means that an electrical signal is used to control the valve, allowing it to open or close as needed. This method of actuation is commonly used in many systems and provides precise control and quick response times.Rate this question:
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- 27.
From where does the AE2100D3 ignition system receive its electrical power?
- A.
FADEC
- B.
Alternator stator 20-40 VAC
- C.
Aircraft battery
- D.
28 VDC
Correct Answer
B. Alternator stator 20-40 VACExplanation
The AE2100D3 ignition system receives its electrical power from the alternator stator, which produces an output of 20-40 VAC. This voltage is used to power the ignition system and provide the necessary electrical energy for the engine to operate efficiently. The alternator stator is a critical component in the electrical system of the aircraft, as it helps generate the power needed for various systems and equipment onboard.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What component monitors and records the AE2100D3 ignition exciters spark rate?
- A.
NIU
- B.
FADEC
- C.
DEC
- D.
Mission computer
Correct Answer
A. NIUExplanation
The NIU (Nonessential Integrated Unit) component monitors and records the AE2100D3 ignition exciters spark rate. It is responsible for overseeing the ignition system and ensuring that the spark rate is within the desired range. This helps to maintain proper engine performance and reliability. The NIU plays a crucial role in monitoring and recording this specific aspect of the ignition system.Rate this question:
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- 29.
How many sparks per second can the AE2100D3 ignition exciters produce?
- A.
2-5
- B.
4-7
- C.
1-3
- D.
3-6
Correct Answer
B. 4-7Explanation
The AE2100D3 ignition exciters can produce a range of 4-7 sparks per second.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Approximately how many GPM does the AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provide at engine takeoff power?
- A.
3
- B.
7
- C.
5
- D.
9
Correct Answer
C. 5Explanation
The AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provides approximately 5 gallons per minute (GPM) at engine takeoff power.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which propeller subassembly will retain the prop blades?
- A.
Barrel
- B.
Prop hub
- C.
Blade retainer
- D.
PGB
Correct Answer
A. BarrelExplanation
The propeller subassembly that will retain the prop blades is the barrel. The barrel is designed to securely hold and encase the prop blades, ensuring that they remain in place during operation. This helps to maintain the efficiency and effectiveness of the propeller system.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What is the purpose of the front and rear cones?
- A.
Prevents the barrel from sliding off the prop shaft
- B.
Transfers hydraulic fluid to the dome piston
- C.
Provides torque transmission and alignment
- D.
Locks the dome piston at a position.
Correct Answer
C. Provides torque transmission and alignmentExplanation
The front and rear cones in this context are used to provide torque transmission and alignment. This means that they help in transferring the rotational force (torque) from one component to another and also ensure that the components are properly aligned. They play a crucial role in maintaining the stability and efficiency of the system by ensuring that the torque is transmitted accurately and the components are properly aligned to prevent any issues or malfunctions.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which is a function of the pitch lock regulator?
- A.
Prevents the blades from increasing pitch if hydraulic pressure is lost.
- B.
Prevents the blades from decreasing pitch if hydraulic pressure is lost.
- C.
Prevents the cam bearing rollers from bottoming out in the track slopes
- D.
Prevents the propeller from going into beta range when throttle is in alpha range.
Correct Answer
B. Prevents the blades from decreasing pitch if hydraulic pressure is lost.Explanation
The pitch lock regulator is responsible for preventing the blades from decreasing pitch if hydraulic pressure is lost. This is important because if the blades were allowed to decrease pitch without hydraulic pressure, it could result in a loss of control or stability of the aircraft. By maintaining the pitch of the blades, the pitch lock regulator ensures that the aircraft can still maintain a safe and controlled flight even in the event of hydraulic pressure loss.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What function is a task of the low pitch stop assembly?
- A.
Prevents the propeller from going into the beta range when the throttle in is alpha range
- B.
Limits cam travel and prevents the prop from exceeding feather and reverse blade angles
- C.
Prevents blades from decreasing pitch if an overspeed condition occurs
- D.
Transmits engine torque to the blades
Correct Answer
A. Prevents the propeller from going into the beta range when the throttle in is alpHa rangeExplanation
The low pitch stop assembly prevents the propeller from going into the beta range when the throttle is in the alpha range. This means that it restricts the propeller from going into a range where the blades are at a low pitch angle, which is typically used for reverse thrust or fine-tuning the propeller pitch. By preventing this, the low pitch stop assembly ensures that the propeller operates within the desired pitch range and avoids any potential issues or malfunctions that could occur if the propeller went into the beta range while the throttle is in the alpha range.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which component provides a means for balancing the propeller?
- A.
Deicer contact ring holder
- B.
Hub mounting bulkhead
- C.
Front spinner
- D.
Afterbody
Correct Answer
B. Hub mounting bulkheadExplanation
The hub mounting bulkhead is the correct answer because it is the component that provides a means for balancing the propeller. The hub mounting bulkhead is a structural component that connects the propeller hub to the engine and helps to distribute the load evenly. It ensures that the propeller remains balanced during operation, which is crucial for smooth and efficient performance.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What is a function of the differential gear train assembly?
- A.
Drives the main and standby pressure pumps
- B.
Controls operation of the pilot valve and serves as an electrical ground.
- C.
Drives the rotating sleeve when the throttle is positioned in the beta range.
- D.
Transmits blade angle movement to the valve housing and drives the propeller governor flyweights
Correct Answer
D. Transmits blade angle movement to the valve housing and drives the propeller governor flyweightsExplanation
The differential gear train assembly is responsible for transmitting the blade angle movement to the valve housing and driving the propeller governor flyweights. This allows for the adjustment of the propeller blade angle and the regulation of engine power output.Rate this question:
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- 37.
During normal propeller operation, the output of which pumps is used?
- A.
Main pressure and main scavenge
- B.
Standby pressure and main scavenge.
- C.
Auxiliary pressure and main pressure
- D.
Auxiliary pressure and auxiliary scavenge.
Correct Answer
A. Main pressure and main scavengeExplanation
During normal propeller operation, the output of the main pressure and main scavenge pumps is used. These pumps are responsible for maintaining the required pressure and scavenging the system to remove any contaminants or debris. The main pressure pump ensures that there is sufficient pressure for proper operation, while the main scavenge pump helps to remove any excess oil or gases from the system. Therefore, the output of these pumps is crucial for the propeller's normal operation.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which pump assists the main pressure pump when large blade angle movements are required?
- A.
Main pump
- B.
Standby pressure
- C.
AUX pressure
- D.
AUX scavenge
Correct Answer
B. Standby pressureExplanation
The standby pressure pump assists the main pressure pump when large blade angle movements are required. This pump provides additional pressure to support the main pump in situations where the blade angle needs to be adjusted significantly.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which cam disarms the negative torque signal (NTS) system linkage when the throttle is positioned in the beta range?
- A.
Manual feather
- B.
Beta set
- C.
Beta follow-up
- D.
Speed set
Correct Answer
A. Manual featherExplanation
The correct answer is "Manual feather". When the throttle is positioned in the beta range, the negative torque signal (NTS) system linkage is disarmed by the manual feather cam. This cam is responsible for controlling the feathering of the propeller blades, and in the beta range, it ensures that the NTS system does not interfere with the throttle control.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which cam cancels the beta set cam command and stop blade movement at the proper blade angle?
- A.
Alpha back-up valve
- B.
Beta follow-up
- C.
Manual feather
- D.
Speed set
Correct Answer
A. AlpHa back-up valveExplanation
The alpha back-up valve cancels the beta set cam command and stops the blade movement at the proper blade angle. This suggests that the alpha back-up valve is a mechanism or device that overrides or counteracts the beta set cam command, ensuring that the blade is positioned correctly.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which valve contained in the valve housing assembly, controls the hydraulic fluid flow to and from the dome assembly?
- A.
Standby
- B.
Feather
- C.
Pilot
- D.
Backup
Correct Answer
C. PilotExplanation
The pilot valve, contained in the valve housing assembly, controls the hydraulic fluid flow to and from the dome assembly.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which valve joins the main, standby, and auxiliary pumps to increase pitch during NTS conditions?
- A.
High pressure relief
- B.
Feather
- C.
Pilot
- D.
Governor
Correct Answer
B. FeatherExplanation
During NTS (Negative Torque Sensing) conditions, the valve that joins the main, standby, and auxiliary pumps to increase pitch is called the feather valve. This valve controls the flow of oil to the propeller blades, allowing them to move into the feathered position. Feathering the propeller reduces drag and allows the aircraft to maintain a controlled descent in the event of an engine failure or other NTS conditions.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which valve assists the feather solenoid valve with positioning of the feather and pilot valves?
- A.
Feather actuating valve
- B.
High pressure relief
- C.
Standby
- D.
Backup
Correct Answer
A. Feather actuating valveExplanation
The feather actuating valve assists the feather solenoid valve with positioning of the feather and pilot valves. It is responsible for controlling the movement and positioning of these valves, ensuring that they function properly and accurately. Without the assistance of the feather actuating valve, the feather and pilot valves may not be able to operate effectively, leading to potential malfunctions or failures in the system.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which switch located in the valve housing is opened by a cam from 81 to 85 degrees propeller blade angle?
- A.
NTS
- B.
Beta indicator
- C.
Pressure cutout backup (PCBS)
- D.
Governor
Correct Answer
C. Pressure cutout backup (PCBS)Explanation
The correct answer is Pressure cutout backup (PCBS). The PCBS switch is opened by a cam from 81 to 85 degrees propeller blade angle. This switch is located in the valve housing and serves as a backup in case of pressure cutout failure. It helps to ensure the safe operation of the propeller system by activating when the propeller blade angle reaches a certain range.Rate this question:
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- 45.
In the control quadrant, the throttle lever gate that separates alpha and beta ranges represent the
- A.
Highest degree setting on the coordinator protractor
- B.
Lowest degree setting on the coordinator protector
- C.
Highest possible power setting for flight
- D.
Lowest possible power setting for flight
Correct Answer
D. Lowest possible power setting for flightExplanation
The throttle lever gate that separates alpha and beta ranges represents the lowest possible power setting for flight. This gate is used to restrict the throttle lever from being moved into the beta range, which is reverse thrust. Therefore, when the throttle lever is within the alpha range, it indicates the lowest power setting that can be achieved for normal forward flight.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What switch in the control quadrant activates the governor speed bias servo when the throttle moves to flight idle gate?
- A.
Weight on wheels
- B.
Low speed ground idle
- C.
Synchrophaser disarming
- D.
Prop feather override
Correct Answer
C. SynchropHaser disarmingExplanation
When the throttle moves to the flight idle gate, the governor speed bias servo is activated by the synchrophaser disarming switch in the control quadrant. This switch is responsible for disarming the synchrophaser, which is a device used to synchronize the propellers on multi-engine aircraft. By disarming the synchrophaser, the governor speed bias servo is able to adjust the propeller speed independently, allowing for better control and performance during flight idle.Rate this question:
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- 47.
The output of what pump is sufficient to supply hydraulic pressure for normal propeller operation?
- A.
AUX pressure
- B.
Main pressure
- C.
Backup pressure
- D.
Standby pressure
Correct Answer
B. Main pressureExplanation
The main pressure pump is responsible for supplying hydraulic pressure for normal propeller operation. This pump is designed to provide sufficient pressure to ensure the propeller functions properly. The other options, such as AUX pressure, backup pressure, and standby pressure, may have different roles or may not provide the necessary pressure for normal propeller operation.Rate this question:
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- 48.
If the main filter becomes clogged, which valve opens to assure continued flow?
- A.
Check
- B.
Bypass
- C.
Low pressure relief
- D.
High pressure relief
Correct Answer
B. BypassExplanation
When the main filter becomes clogged, the bypass valve opens to ensure that there is continued flow. This valve allows the fluid to bypass the clogged filter and continue moving through the system. By opening the bypass valve, the flow is redirected and the system can continue to operate, albeit with reduced filtration efficiency.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which valve sets and maintains a PSID of about 100 pounds per square inch (psi) between system pressure and the increase- or decrease-pitch pressure?
- A.
Check
- B.
Bypass
- C.
Low pressure relief
- D.
High pressure relief
Correct Answer
C. Low pressure reliefExplanation
The low pressure relief valve is responsible for setting and maintaining a PSID of about 100 psi between system pressure and the increase- or decrease-pitch pressure. This valve is designed to release excess pressure when it falls below the desired level, ensuring that the pressure remains within the specified range.Rate this question:
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- 50.
When standby pump output is not required, where is it routed?
- A.
Atmospheric sump
- B.
Pressurized sump
- C.
Dome assembly
- D.
Pilot valve
Correct Answer
B. Pressurized sumpExplanation
The standby pump output is routed to the pressurized sump when it is not required. This means that the pump's output is directed to a sump that is already under pressure. This allows for the pump to maintain the pressure in the system even when it is not actively being used. Routing the output to the pressurized sump ensures that the system remains pressurized and ready for use at all times.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 29, 2016Quiz Created by
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