SEC Fo 7 Lvl
- 1.
What is the most rigorous stage of development?
- A.
SrA.
- B.
MSgt.
- C.
SSgt and TSgt.
- D.
Amn and A1C.
Correct Answer
D. Amn and A1C.Explanation
The most rigorous stage of development is at the level of Amn (Airman) and A1C (Airman First Class). This is because at this stage, individuals are relatively new to the military and are still learning the basic skills and knowledge required for their job. They undergo intense training and are closely supervised to ensure they develop the necessary discipline, professionalism, and proficiency. This stage sets the foundation for their future growth and advancement in the military.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of these is not a Senior Airman (SrA) duty?
- A.
Patrol leader.
- B.
Squad leader.
- C.
Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) Controller.
- D.
Internal Security Response Team (ISRT)/External Security Response Team (ESRT) Leader.
Correct Answer
B. Squad leader.Explanation
The duties of a Senior Airman (SrA) include being a patrol leader, working as a Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller, and leading the Internal Security Response Team (ISRT)/External Security Response Team (ESRT). However, being a squad leader is not listed as a duty of a Senior Airman.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Technical Sergeant (TSgt) duty is available in certain locations?
- A.
Supervisor
- B.
Flight Sergeant.
- C.
Response force leader.
- D.
Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)/Assistant NCOIC.
Correct Answer
B. Flight Sergeant.Explanation
Flight Sergeant is the correct answer because the question asks for a duty that is available in certain locations. While all the other options may be duties performed by Staff Sergeants or Technical Sergeants, Flight Sergeant is unique in that it is a duty specific to certain locations. This suggests that Flight Sergeant is a duty that is only available in certain locations, making it the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership?
- A.
MSgt.
- B.
CMSgt.
- C.
SMSgt.
- D.
SSgt and TSgt.
Correct Answer
C. SMSgt.Explanation
SMSgt (Senior Master Sergeant) encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership. This rank is typically achieved after many years of experience and demonstrates a high level of expertise and leadership ability. SMSgts are responsible for overseeing and managing a large number of personnel and resources, and they play a crucial role in executing the mission and achieving organizational objectives. They are often involved in strategic planning, decision-making, and providing guidance to lower-ranking personnel.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or commands?
- A.
Tactical control.
- B.
Strategic control.
- C.
Operational control.
- D.
Administrative control.
Correct Answer
A. Tactical control.Explanation
Tactical control refers to the type of control that is present over assigned or attached forces or commands. It involves the immediate direction and control of military forces in order to achieve specific objectives in a particular operation. Tactical control focuses on the tactical aspects of a mission, such as the deployment and maneuvering of troops, coordination of firepower, and execution of specific tasks. This type of control is typically exercised by lower-level commanders who are responsible for the execution of military operations on the ground. Strategic control, on the other hand, refers to the overall direction and control of military forces to achieve long-term objectives, while operational control involves the coordination and direction of military forces in a theater of operations. Administrative control pertains to the management and support functions within a military organization.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which commander exercises operational control?
- A.
Squadron commander.
- B.
Installation commander.
- C.
Joint Force commander.
- D.
Major command (MAJCOM) commander.
Correct Answer
C. Joint Force commander.Explanation
The Joint Force commander exercises operational control because they are responsible for planning and executing joint military operations involving multiple branches of the armed forces. They have the authority to direct and coordinate the actions of all forces assigned to the joint operation, ensuring unity of effort and achieving the mission objectives. This role requires a high level of strategic and tactical decision-making, as well as effective communication and coordination with subordinate commanders and partner nations.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Supervisors must ensure their troops
- A.
Have food and water.
- B.
Possess required qualifications and certifications.
- C.
Are supplied with weapons and required equipment.
- D.
Are issued Special Security Instructions (SSIs) and study material.
Correct Answer
B. Possess required qualifications and certifications.Explanation
Supervisors must ensure their troops possess required qualifications and certifications. This is important because having the necessary qualifications and certifications ensures that the troops have the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their duties effectively and safely. It also helps to maintain the overall competency and professionalism of the troops. By ensuring that their troops possess these qualifications and certifications, supervisors can ensure that their troops are well-prepared and capable of carrying out their responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule?
- A.
Wing commander.
- B.
Squadron commander.
- C.
Security Forces manager.
- D.
Unit deployment manager.
Correct Answer
B. Squadron commander.Explanation
The squadron commander is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule. As the leader of the squadron, they have the authority and knowledge to make decisions regarding flight operations. They consider various factors such as mission requirements, aircraft availability, and pilot schedules to create an effective and efficient flight schedule for the unit. The squadron commander's role is crucial in ensuring that the unit's flight operations are well-coordinated and meet the objectives of the organization.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the
- A.
Duty roster.
- B.
Post priority listing.
- C.
Unit manning document.
- D.
Unit personnel manning roster.
Correct Answer
B. Post priority listing.Explanation
The correct answer is "Post priority listing." This is because the post priority listing is a document that determines the order in which posts and patrols will be manned. It outlines the importance and urgency of each post, allowing for an organized and efficient allocation of personnel. The duty roster, unit manning document, and unit personnel manning roster may contain information about staffing and assignments, but they do not specifically address the prioritization of posts.Rate this question:
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- 10.
All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other that routine law enforcement and security duties, except the
- A.
Major command (MAJCOM) commander.
- B.
MAJCOM vice commander.
- C.
Installation commander.
- D.
Combatant commander.
Correct Answer
C. Installation commander.Explanation
The installation commander is not authorized to allow personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other than routine law enforcement and security duties. This responsibility falls under the jurisdiction of the Major command (MAJCOM) commander, MAJCOM vice commander, and the Combatant commander. The installation commander is responsible for the management and operation of a specific military installation, but does not have the authority to make decisions regarding firearms authorization in foreign countries.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person’s right to bear a firearm?
- A.
Supervisor.
- B.
Commander
- C.
Servicing armory.
- D.
Security Forces manager.
Correct Answer
B. CommanderExplanation
The commander is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm. This is because the commander has the authority and power to make decisions regarding the use and possession of firearms within their jurisdiction. They have the ability to assess the situation and determine if it is necessary to temporarily suspend someone's right to bear arms for the safety and well-being of others.Rate this question:
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- 12.
How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
3.
- D.
4.
Correct Answer
C. 3.Explanation
There are three types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What drives a post priority chart?
- A.
Vulnerability assessment
- B.
Inspector General (IG) assessment.
- C.
Force protection conditions (FPCONs).
- D.
Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment.
Correct Answer
D. Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment.Explanation
The Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment drives a post priority chart. This assessment allows for a comprehensive evaluation of risks and threats to a post, helping to prioritize and allocate resources accordingly. It considers various factors such as vulnerability assessment, Inspector General (IG) assessment, and force protection conditions (FPCONs) to determine the level of risk and the appropriate actions to mitigate those risks. By conducting an IDRMP assessment, a post can effectively manage and address potential security concerns.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Post priority charts are used to
- A.
Allocate vehicles
- B.
Allocate manpower.
- C.
Determine post rotations.
- D.
Determine weapon configurations.
Correct Answer
B. Allocate manpower.Explanation
Post priority charts are used to allocate manpower. These charts help in determining the distribution of available personnel to different posts or positions based on their skills, qualifications, and the priority of tasks or responsibilities associated with each post. By using these charts, organizations can efficiently assign manpower resources to ensure that the right people are deployed to the right places, optimizing productivity and effectiveness in various operations or projects.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned?
- A.
Group commander.
- B.
Security Forces manager.
- C.
Defense force commander.
- D.
Each individual flight chief.
Correct Answer
C. Defense force commander.Explanation
The Defense force commander has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned. This means that they have the power to decide whether or not a post needs to be manned by someone. The other options, such as the Group commander, Security Forces manager, and Each individual flight chief, do not have the same level of authority as the Defense force commander in making this decision.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in
- A.
Higher force protection conditions (FPCONs).
- B.
Peacetime and wartime.
- C.
Peacetime.
- D.
Wartime.
Correct Answer
B. Peacetime and wartime.Explanation
The post priority chart is designed to optimize the allocation of limited Security Forces (SF) during both peacetime and wartime. This means that regardless of the force protection conditions (FPCONs), the chart will be used to determine the most efficient use of SF resources. By using the chart in both peacetime and wartime, the SF can effectively prioritize and allocate their resources to ensure the highest level of security and protection for the post or facility.Rate this question:
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- 17.
When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain
- A.
Proficiency
- B.
Discipline.
- C.
Fairness.
- D.
Control.
Correct Answer
A. ProficiencyExplanation
Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified for is important in order to maintain proficiency. This means that individuals should be given the opportunity to work in different positions to enhance their skills and knowledge in various areas. By doing so, they can become proficient in multiple roles, which can be beneficial for the organization as it ensures that there are always qualified individuals available to handle different tasks. This rotation also helps in preventing complacency and stagnation, as employees are constantly challenged and motivated to learn and grow.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high?
- A.
Post rotations
- B.
Specialized courses.
- C.
Recognition program.
- D.
Providing time off.
Correct Answer
A. Post rotationsExplanation
Post rotations can assist a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high because it allows the personnel to have a change in their duties and responsibilities. This helps to prevent monotony and burnout, as individuals get the opportunity to experience different tasks and roles within the flight. Additionally, post rotations can provide a sense of fairness and equal opportunities for everyone, as they get the chance to be exposed to various aspects of the job. This can ultimately contribute to increased motivation and job satisfaction among the flight personnel.Rate this question:
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- 19.
As a supervisor, what must you instill in each of your subordinates?
- A.
Standards.
- B.
Discipline
- C.
Work ethic.
- D.
Mentorship.
Correct Answer
C. Work ethic.Explanation
As a supervisor, it is important to instill a strong work ethic in each of your subordinates. A work ethic refers to the set of values and principles that guide an individual's approach towards work. By emphasizing the importance of a strong work ethic, supervisors can encourage their subordinates to be diligent, responsible, and dedicated to their tasks. This can lead to increased productivity, efficiency, and overall success within the team or organization.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?
- A.
Issue paperwork.
- B.
Verbally counsel the subordinate.
- C.
Investigate to determine the cause.
- D.
Assign the subordinate a new supervisor.
Correct Answer
C. Investigate to determine the cause.Explanation
If a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance, it is important to investigate to determine the cause. This will help in understanding the underlying reasons for the poor performance and finding appropriate solutions. Simply issuing paperwork or verbally counseling the subordinate may not address the root cause of the issue. Similarly, assigning a new supervisor may not necessarily solve the problem if the cause lies elsewhere. Therefore, investigating to determine the cause is the most effective approach to dealing with substandard duty performance.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is
- A.
Report
- B.
Parade rest.
- C.
Open ranks march.
- D.
Prepare for inspection.
Correct Answer
A. ReportExplanation
The correct answer is "Report" because when the flight falls in for inspection, the first command given is usually "Report". This command signals to the members of the flight to report their presence to the inspecting officer or to their superior. It is a standard protocol followed during inspections to ensure accountability and organization within the flight.Rate this question:
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- 22.
After the command "Open rank, MARCH," which of the following action does the flight take?
- A.
The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two, paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.
- B.
The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.
- C.
The first element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element also stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress.
- D.
The last element stands fast. Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward and halts.
Correct Answer
B. The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.Explanation
After the command "Open rank, MARCH," the flight takes the following action: The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress. This means that the last person in the formation remains stationary and performs the dress right dress, while the people in front of them move forward a certain number of paces, halt, and then perform the dress right dress.Rate this question:
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- 23.
After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement?
- A.
1.
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
After aligning the fourth element, you advance three paces beyond the first element to execute a left facing movement.Rate this question:
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- 24.
When does the second element leader give the command, "Second Element, ATTENTION"?
- A.
As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands “Second Element, ATTENTION.”
- B.
As the inspecting official gets six paces past the last person in the first element, the second element leader commands “Second Element, ATTENTION.”
- C.
As the inspecting official is within two paces of the right flank to the formation, the second element leader commands, “Second Element, ATTENTION.”
- D.
As soon as the inspecting official is facing the second element leader, he/she will give the command, “Second Element, ATTENTION.”
Correct Answer
A. As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands “Second Element, ATTENTION.”Explanation
The second element leader gives the command "Second Element, ATTENTION" as the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation. This indicates that the second element should stand at attention and be prepared for inspection.Rate this question:
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- 25.
When do you give the command, "Close Ranks, MARCH!"?
- A.
Upon departure of the inspecting official.
- B.
At the completion of the guardmount briefing
- C.
Immediately after the forth rank has been inspected.
- D.
When the remarks of the inspecting official are completed.
Correct Answer
A. Upon departure of the inspecting official.Explanation
The command "Close Ranks, MARCH!" is given upon the departure of the inspecting official. This command is used to signal the guards to close ranks and resume their original formation after the inspection is complete. It is important to wait for the inspecting official to leave before giving this command to ensure that the guards maintain a professional appearance and follow proper protocol.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Where can you find information about current fitness standards and assessments?
- A.
AFI 36−2903.
- B.
AFI 36−2905.
- C.
AFMAN 36−2903.
- D.
AFMAN 36−2905.
Correct Answer
B. AFI 36−2905.Explanation
The correct answer is AFI 36-2905. This Air Force Instruction provides information about current fitness standards and assessments. It is a document that outlines the policies and procedures for maintaining physical fitness within the Air Force. It covers topics such as fitness assessments, body composition, and physical training programs. By referring to AFI 36-2905, individuals can find the necessary information to understand and meet the fitness standards set by the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?
- A.
Flight member.
- B.
Flight supervisor.
- C.
Flight commander.
- D.
Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), Supply.
Correct Answer
A. Flight member.Explanation
The flight member is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment. This means that each individual within the flight is accountable for ensuring the proper upkeep and functionality of the equipment assigned to them. This includes regular maintenance, inspections, and reporting any issues or damages. By holding each flight member responsible, it promotes a sense of ownership and ensures that equipment is well-maintained and ready for use at all times.Rate this question:
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- 28.
A post check generally includes all of these items except
- A.
Area inspection
- B.
Facility inspection.
- C.
Weapons inspection.
- D.
Classified material inspection.
Correct Answer
C. Weapons inspection.Explanation
A post check is a process that involves inspecting various aspects of a particular area or facility. This includes conducting an area inspection to ensure its safety and security, performing a facility inspection to assess its condition and functionality, and conducting a classified material inspection to ensure the proper handling and storage of sensitive information. However, a weapons inspection is not typically part of a post check process as it is more specific to checking and verifying the presence, condition, and compliance of weapons within a given area or facility.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you the tools to review and assess someone else’s writing?
- A.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 33–337.
- B.
Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–336.
- C.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 32–337.
- D.
Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–337.
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–337.Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–337. This publication is likely to assist in becoming a good communicator and provide tools for reviewing and assessing someone else's writing.Rate this question:
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- 30.
When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is
- A.
Lengthy
- B.
Made up.
- C.
Irrelevant.
- D.
Inappropriate
Correct Answer
C. Irrelevant.Explanation
When reviewing material for technical accuracy, a concern is that it may contain irrelevant information. This means that the material includes content that is not necessary or applicable to the topic being discussed. Irrelevant information can confuse readers and detract from the main points being conveyed. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the material is concise and focused, without any unnecessary or unrelated details.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The primary function of reviewing is to ensure
- A.
The communication gets the point across.
- B.
Ideas are being communicated understandably and the communication gets the point across.
- C.
Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (incorrect grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; incorrect punctuation), and the communication get the point across.
- D.
Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across.
Correct Answer
D. Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, pHrases, and paragrapHs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across.Explanation
The primary function of reviewing is to ensure that ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and that the communication gets the point across. Reviewing involves assessing the clarity and coherence of the communication, as well as the use of proper grammar, vocabulary, and punctuation. The goal is to ensure that the message is effectively conveyed to the intended audience.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?
- A.
Unit training section.
- B.
Defense Force commander.
- C.
Air Force Security Forces Center.
- D.
Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs).
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Security Forces Center.Explanation
The Air Force Security Forces Center is responsible for the overall security forces training program. This organization is specifically designated to oversee and coordinate the training of security forces personnel in the Air Force. They are responsible for developing and implementing training programs, ensuring that all security forces personnel receive the necessary training to perform their duties effectively.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?
- A.
Unit training section.
- B.
Immediate supervisors.
- C.
Air Force Security Forces Center.
- D.
Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs).
Correct Answer
D. Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs).Explanation
Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs) are responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and given the chance to attend professional military education schools. They play a crucial role in overseeing the training and development of the enlisted personnel under their command, ensuring that they receive the necessary education and qualifications to perform their duties effectively. As senior NCOs, they have the experience and knowledge to guide and mentor their subordinates, ensuring they receive the necessary training and education for their professional growth and advancement in the Security Forces career field.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?
- A.
Analysis
- B.
Feedback.
- C.
Evaluation.
- D.
Cross-feed.
Correct Answer
B. Feedback.Explanation
Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides them with valuable information about the effectiveness of their strategies, decisions, and actions. Feedback allows commanders to assess the impact of their decisions and make necessary adjustments or improvements. It helps in identifying strengths and weaknesses, enabling commanders to enhance their decision-making process and achieve better outcomes. Feedback also promotes continuous learning and development, enabling commanders to adapt to changing circumstances and improve their performance over time.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to
- A.
Measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions.
- B.
Determine that only the highest quality of individual perform duties as installation entry controller.
- C.
Measure the qualification of individuals and decertify them in specific duty positions
- D.
Surprise and decertify squadron personnel unprepared for duty.
Correct Answer
A. Measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions.Explanation
The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions. This process ensures that only individuals who meet the necessary qualifications are assigned to these positions, thus ensuring the highest quality of performance in those roles.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to
- A.
Aggress against, deter and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
- B.
Track, detect and aggress against intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources
- C.
Detain, detract and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
- D.
Deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
Correct Answer
D. Deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.Explanation
The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources. This means that the MWD is trained to discourage potential intruders from approaching, identify and locate intruders through scent or other means, and physically restrain or hold intruders until human personnel can intervene. By performing these tasks, the MWD plays a crucial role in maintaining security and protecting Air Force resources from unauthorized access or threats.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is
- A.
Apprehension or release.
- B.
Pepper spray or gunfire.
- C.
Resistance or restraint.
- D.
Gunfire or escape.
Correct Answer
D. Gunfire or escape.Explanation
Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is gunfire or escape. This means that instead of resorting to using firearms or allowing the suspect to flee, patrol dogs are used as a less extreme option. They can be deployed to apprehend and detain the suspect without causing serious harm or resorting to lethal force. By choosing patrol dogs over gunfire or escape, law enforcement aims to strike a balance between effectively apprehending the suspect and minimizing the potential for fatal outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 38.
When using dogs on detection screen posts, where should they be positioned to get maximum usage?
- A.
In low contact areas, so they don’t give away your position to the enemy by barking.
- B.
Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize their smelling capability.
- C.
At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.
- D.
Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy.
Correct Answer
C. At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.Explanation
Dogs should be positioned at key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons. This allows the dogs to effectively monitor and prevent unauthorized access to an area. Placing them strategically at these locations ensures that they can detect and deter any individuals attempting to enter without permission.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous
- A.
Deterrent to potential violators.
- B.
Physical deterrent to potential violators.
- C.
Physiological deterrent to potential violators.
- D.
Psychological deterrent to potential violators.
Correct Answer
D. Psychological deterrent to potential violators.Explanation
A patrol dog team used in police services activities can act as a psychological deterrent to potential violators. The presence of a trained police dog can create fear and uncertainty in the minds of individuals who may be considering engaging in illegal activities. The perception that a highly skilled and powerful animal is working alongside law enforcement can discourage individuals from committing crimes. This psychological impact can help prevent potential violators from taking action, making the patrol dog team an effective deterrent.Rate this question:
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- 40.
During peaceful confrontations, the Military Working Dog (MWD) team should be positioned
- A.
In reserve, out of sight of the crowd.
- B.
Off to the side, out of direct vision of the crowd.
- C.
Right out in front to ward off potential participants.
- D.
Elsewhere and not used in peaceful confrontations
Correct Answer
A. In reserve, out of sight of the crowd.Explanation
During peaceful confrontations, it is best to position the Military Working Dog (MWD) team in reserve, out of sight of the crowd. This ensures that the presence of the dogs does not escalate the situation and cause unnecessary fear or tension among the crowd. Keeping them out of sight also allows the team to be ready to respond if needed, without drawing unnecessary attention or becoming a distraction during the peaceful confrontation.Rate this question:
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- 41.
All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel, MAJCOM requirements, and as required by the
- A.
Threat Working Group.
- B.
Integrated Base Defense Council.
- C.
Force Protection Commodity Council
- D.
Equipment, Weapons, and Configuration Board.
Correct Answer
B. Integrated Base Defense Council.Explanation
The correct answer is Integrated Base Defense Council. This is because the sentence states that "All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel, MAJCOM requirements, and as required by the Integrated Base Defense Council." This suggests that the Integrated Base Defense Council is responsible for setting the arming rules in accordance with the mentioned regulations and requirements.Rate this question:
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- 42.
"All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must be properly marked" means that they
- A.
All must have SF badges applied to both the front doors.
- B.
All must have emergency lights, flood lights, and mobile radios.
- C.
Must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system
- D.
All must have a cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a military working dog (MWD).
Correct Answer
C. Must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address systemExplanation
The correct answer is that all permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system. This means that these vehicles are required to have these specific features to ensure effective communication, alerting others in emergency situations, and maintaining public safety.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which radio type can talk over great distances?
- A.
Base station.
- B.
Portable radio.
- C.
Base station remote.
- D.
Mobile two-way radio.
Correct Answer
D. Mobile two-way radio.Explanation
A mobile two-way radio is the correct answer because it is designed to communicate over long distances. Unlike a base station, which typically has a limited range, a mobile two-way radio can be used while on the move, allowing for communication over greater distances. Portable radios are more suitable for shorter range communication, and base station remotes are used to control base stations rather than directly communicate over long distances.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to
- A.
Ensure the Air Force is allowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions
- B.
Ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year.
- C.
Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission.
- D.
Provide Congress a means to determine the budget submitted at the start of its session.
Correct Answer
B. Ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year.Explanation
The correct answer is "ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year." This means that the purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to ensure that the budget allocated by the President for the upcoming fiscal year is distributed fairly and evenly among different areas and departments within the Air Force. The goal is to avoid any biases or favoritism and ensure that the resources are allocated in a balanced and equitable manner to meet the needs of the Air Force effectively.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Who provides the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year?
- A.
Numbered air force.
- B.
Headquarters Air Force
- C.
Major commands (MAJCOMs).
- D.
Air Force Security Forces Center.
Correct Answer
C. Major commands (MAJCOMs).Explanation
The correct answer is Major commands (MAJCOMs). Major commands are responsible for the organization, training, and equipping of the Air Force's forces. They provide the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year, ensuring that the necessary security personnel are allocated to each unit based on their needs and requirements. This allows for efficient and effective security operations throughout the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What is not a category for the status of funds?
- A.
Committed
- B.
Obligated.
- C.
End of year.
- D.
Uncommitted.
Correct Answer
C. End of year.Explanation
The status of funds can be categorized as committed, obligated, and uncommitted. Committed funds refer to money that has been set aside for a specific purpose, obligated funds are those that have been allocated for a particular project or expenditure, and uncommitted funds are available for general use. "End of year" is not a category for the status of funds, as it does not provide any information about the allocation or availability of funds.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Who reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas?
- A.
Major command (MAJCOM) functional.
- B.
MAJCOM corporate structure.
- C.
Financial Management Board.
- D.
Financial working group.
Correct Answer
A. Major command (MAJCOM) functional.Explanation
The Major command (MAJCOM) functional reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas. This means that they are responsible for assessing and approving installation submissions related to various functional areas within the MAJCOM corporate structure. The Financial Management Board and Financial working group are not mentioned in relation to reviewing and validating installation submissions, so they are not the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units?
- A.
Air Force Manpower Standards Program (MSP).
- B.
Air Force Manpower Standards Platform (MSP).
- C.
Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP).
- D.
Air Force Management and Equipment Program (MEP).
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP).Explanation
The Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP) provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units. This program focuses on management and engineering principles to optimize manpower utilization and ensure efficient operations within the Air Force. By using the MEP, commanders can make informed decisions regarding the allocation of manpower resources, ensuring that their units have the appropriate number of personnel to meet mission requirements.Rate this question:
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- 49.
When are manpower numbers reviewed?
- A.
Monthly.
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Annually.
- D.
Bi-annually.
Correct Answer
C. Annually.Explanation
Manpower numbers are reviewed on an annual basis. This means that the review of the number of employees or workforce is conducted once every year. This allows organizations to assess their manpower needs, make necessary adjustments, and plan for the future. Reviewing manpower numbers annually helps in evaluating the effectiveness of the current workforce, identifying any gaps or surpluses, and ensuring that the organization has the right number of employees to meet its objectives. It also provides an opportunity to analyze workforce trends and make strategic decisions regarding recruitment, training, and resource allocation.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document?
- A.
Work center.
- B.
Position number
- C.
Air Force specialty code.
- D.
Report No Later than Date.
Correct Answer
D. Report No Later than Date.Explanation
The unit manning document is a record that tracks various information about personnel in a unit. It includes details such as work center, position number, and Air Force specialty code. These details help in organizing and managing the manpower within the unit. However, the "Report No Later than Date" is not typically included in the unit manning document. This date refers to the deadline by which a report or task needs to be completed, and it is not directly related to personnel tracking.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Dec 13, 2016Quiz Created by
Catherine Halcomb