1.
Which code on an issue request is used by the Materiel Management System to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction?
Correct Answer
A. Transaction identification code (TRIC).
Explanation
The Materiel Management System uses the Transaction Identification Code (TRIC) to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction. The TRIC serves as a unique identifier for different types of transactions, allowing the system to determine the appropriate program or process to handle the specific transaction. This ensures that the input transaction is processed correctly and efficiently within the Materiel Management System.
2.
What one position alpha code is used to indicate how the Materiel Management System accumulates demand data for stock leveling and due in from maintenance (DIFM) control?
Correct Answer
A. Demand code.
Explanation
The correct answer is demand code. The demand code is used to indicate how the Materiel Management System accumulates demand data for stock leveling and due in from maintenance (DIFM) control. It helps in determining the quantity and timing of stock replenishment based on the demand for a particular item. Transaction codes are used to identify specific types of transactions in the system. Force Activity Designator is used to identify the force activity responsible for a particular item. Urgency justification code is used to prioritize requests based on their urgency.
3.
What benefit can occur by challenging possibly inflated urgency-of-need designators (UNDs) and urgency justification codes (UJCs) on an issue request?
Correct Answer
B. Reduce the number of UMMIPS violations.
Explanation
By challenging possibly inflated urgency-of-need designators (UNDs) and urgency justification codes (UJCs) on an issue request, it can help reduce the number of UMMIPS violations. UMMIPS violations occur when there is a mismatch between the urgency of the request and the actual need for the item. Challenging inflated UNDs and UJCs ensures that the requests are justified and prioritized correctly, reducing the likelihood of unnecessary and incorrect prioritization. This can help prevent UMMIPS violations and ensure that resources are allocated properly based on genuine urgency and need.
4.
What letter is entered where on the AF Form 2005 for part number requests?
Correct Answer
D. P in position 8.
Explanation
In the AF Form 2005 for part number requests, the letter "P" is entered in position 8.
5.
Which management notice will be produced because of issue processing and reflects issue, kill, or backorder quantity status?
Correct Answer
A. I004.
Explanation
The correct answer is I004. This management notice will be produced because of issue processing and reflects issue, kill, or backorder quantity status.
6.
An I007 management notice will be produced when a
Correct Answer
B. Part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control.
Explanation
An I007 management notice will be produced when a part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control. This means that if a user requests a specific part number, but the system is unable to find a corresponding stock number for that part, it will generate an I007 management notice. This notice serves as a notification to the user that their requested part number cannot be fulfilled due to program control limitations.
7.
Which management notice reflects the total base asset position of an item?
Correct Answer
D. I023.
Explanation
Management notice I023 reflects the total base asset position of an item.
8.
Who needs to be contacted when an I023 management notice shows Interchangeable Substitute Group (ISG) items are available?
Correct Answer
A. Customer.
Explanation
When an I023 management notice shows Interchangeable Substitute Group (ISG) items are available, the customer needs to be contacted. This is because the ISG items are alternative products that can be substituted for the original item requested by the customer. Therefore, it is important to inform the customer about the availability of these substitute items and discuss whether they would like to proceed with the substitution or make any changes to their order.
9.
What transaction exception code is used to reprocess the issue request when the customer requests a backorder?
Correct Answer
C. M.
Explanation
The transaction exception code "M" is used to reprocess the issue request when the customer requests a backorder.
10.
Which base wide organization utilizes the core automated maintenance system (CAMS) to interface with Materiel Management System?
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance.
Explanation
The correct answer is Maintenance. The question is asking which base wide organization uses the core automated maintenance system (CAMS) to interface with the Materiel Management System. Out of the given options, Maintenance is the most logical choice as it directly relates to the maintenance of equipment and would require a system like CAMS to manage and interface with the Materiel Management System. Base Supply, Civil Engineering, and Vehicle Maintenance are not directly related to the use of CAMS for interfacing with the Materiel Management System.
11.
What activity code identifies an issue request as a core automated maintenance system (CAMS) document?
Correct Answer
C. J.
Explanation
The activity code "J" identifies an issue request as a core automated maintenance system (CAMS) document. This code is specifically assigned to CAMS documents, indicating that the issue request is related to the automated maintenance system.
12.
When the Materiel Management System detects an error in a transaction sent by CAMS the image is
Correct Answer
B. Returned to CAMS.
Explanation
The Materiel Management System detects an error in a transaction sent by CAMS, it means that there was a mistake or issue with the transaction. In such cases, it is common practice to return the transaction back to the original sender for correction or further action. Therefore, the correct answer is "returned to CAMS."
13.
What is sent to the materiel management computer system when a mission capable (MICAP) requisition is transmitted to the source of supply with immediately available assets?
Correct Answer
C. Positive Status.
Explanation
When a mission capable (MICAP) requisition is transmitted to the source of supply with immediately available assets, a positive status is sent to the materiel management computer system. This means that the source of supply confirms that they have the requested assets in stock and are able to fulfill the requisition immediately. This positive status update allows the materiel management computer system to proceed with processing the requisition and arranging for the delivery of the assets to the requesting unit or individual.
14.
What status is transmitted from the depot when assets are not available for a mission capable (MICAP) requisition?
Correct Answer
A. Backorder.
Explanation
When assets are not available for a Mission Capable (MICAP) requisition, the status that is transmitted from the depot is "Backorder". This means that the requested assets are currently out of stock or unavailable, and the depot is unable to fulfill the requisition at the moment. The backorder status indicates that the request will be placed on hold until the assets become available again, and the depot will fulfill the requisition as soon as possible.
15.
Which of the following best describes whom the Aircraft Parts Store (APS) or Customer Support Liaison will contact to verify a MICAP condition exists?
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance Production Superintendent.
Explanation
The Maintenance Production Superintendent is the best contact to verify a MICAP condition exists because they are responsible for overseeing the maintenance production process and ensuring that all maintenance tasks are completed in a timely manner. They have direct knowledge of the status of aircraft parts and can confirm if a MICAP condition exists. The AFMC SCM-R Stock Control Activity and Quality Control Activity may be involved in the process, but the Maintenance Production Superintendent is the most appropriate contact for verification. The Source of Supply may be contacted for ordering replacement parts, but they are not involved in verifying the MICAP condition.
16.
Where will an exhaustive search be conducted for asset availability as part of the mission capable (MICAP) verification?
Correct Answer
A. Base stocks.
Explanation
An exhaustive search for asset availability as part of the mission capable (MICAP) verification will be conducted in the base stocks. This means that the search will be carried out within the inventory of assets that are stored and maintained at the base. The base stocks are likely to contain the necessary resources and equipment needed to fulfill the mission requirements and ensure that the assets are available for use.
17.
Which cause code is loaded on the mission capability (MICAP) report (DIC B9*) that identifies no stock level established—first time demand?
Correct Answer
A. A.
Explanation
The cause code A is loaded on the mission capability (MICAP) report (DIC B9*) to identify that no stock level has been established for the first time demand.
18.
What information needs to be aggressively monitored and updated on a mission capability (MICAP) requirement?
Correct Answer
A. Status.
Explanation
The status of a mission capability (MICAP) requirement needs to be aggressively monitored and updated. This is because the status provides information about the progress and current state of the requirement. By monitoring the status, it becomes easier to track the fulfillment of the requirement and take necessary actions if any issues or delays arise. Regular updates ensure that all stakeholders are informed about the latest developments and can make informed decisions based on the current status of the requirement.
19.
What code found on the mission capability (MICAP) report (DIC B9*) identifies the reason for termination of the MICAP condition?
Correct Answer
C. Delete.
Explanation
The code "Delete" found on the mission capability (MICAP) report identifies the reason for termination of the MICAP condition. This suggests that when the code "Delete" is used, it signifies that the MICAP condition has been removed or deleted from the report, indicating that the issue or problem that required the MICAP condition no longer exists.
20.
Which report is transmitted to the applicable source of supply to report the initiation, termination, or change to a mission capability (MICAP) condition?
Correct Answer
B. MICAP report (B9*).
Explanation
The correct answer is MICAP report (B9*). This report is transmitted to the applicable source of supply to report the initiation, termination, or change to a mission capability (MICAP) condition. The B9* code indicates that it is specifically a MICAP report.
21.
What transaction can be processed on an existing requisition that will initiate mission capability (MICAP) reporting?
Correct Answer
A. Upgrade.
Explanation
An upgrade transaction on an existing requisition can initiate mission capability (MICAP) reporting. This means that if there is a need to improve or enhance the capabilities of the requisition, an upgrade transaction can be processed to trigger the MICAP reporting process. This could involve upgrading the specifications, features, or performance of the requested items or services to ensure that they meet the required mission capabilities.
22.
What transaction is used for upgrading and downgrading to and from a mission capability (MICAP) condition?
Correct Answer
C. NOR.
Explanation
The correct answer is NOR. NOR stands for "Not Operationally Ready." This transaction is used for upgrading and downgrading to and from a mission capability (MICAP) condition. It is used to indicate that a system or equipment is not in a ready state to perform its intended mission.
23.
Which activity is responsible for providing Repair Cycle Support with new status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail?
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance.
Explanation
The activity responsible for providing Repair Cycle Support with new status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail is Maintenance. This implies that the Maintenance department is responsible for updating the status and location information of items that are due-in from maintenance, ensuring that Repair Cycle Support has accurate and up-to-date information for further processing.
24.
What transaction is used to process the updated status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) record?
Correct Answer
B. TRIC DFM.
Explanation
The correct answer is TRIC DFM. This transaction is used to process the updated status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) record. DIFM records are used to track items that are currently in maintenance and are due to be returned to inventory. The TRIC DFM allows users to update the status and location information for these items, ensuring accurate tracking and inventory management.
25.
Which listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation?
Correct Answer
C. D23.
Explanation
The listing used to perform the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation is D23.
26.
What is the purpose of performing a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation between the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) and the maintenance activities?
Correct Answer
A. Ensure maintenance activities pHysically have all the DIFM items.
Explanation
Performing a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation between the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) and the maintenance activities is done to ensure that the maintenance activities actually possess all the DIFM items. This process helps in verifying that the items are physically available and can be used for maintenance purposes. It ensures that the maintenance activities have the necessary resources to carry out their tasks effectively.
27.
Which listing is the most important tool for monitoring status and maintaining visibility of due-in from maintenance (DIFM) assets?
Correct Answer
C. D23.
Explanation
D23 is the most important tool for monitoring status and maintaining visibility of due-in from maintenance (DIFM) assets.
28.
Within how many duty days will a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) item that was not inducted into maintenance repair be returned to the LRS from the date of issue?
Correct Answer
B. 4.
Explanation
The correct answer is 4. When a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) item is not inducted into maintenance repair, it will be returned to the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) within 4 duty days from the date of issue. This means that if the item is not sent for repair within 4 days, it will be returned to the LRS.
29.
Which listing reflects awaiting parts (AWP) due-out detail records with their applicable due-in and status detail records?
Correct Answer
A. D19.
Explanation
D19 reflects awaiting parts (AWP) due-out detail records with their applicable due-in and status detail records.
30.
What is used on a turn-in request for DIFM items indicating what actions were taken by maintenance and LRS/Materiel Management activity?
Correct Answer
B. Action taken code.
Explanation
The action taken code is used on a turn-in request for DIFM items to indicate what actions were taken by maintenance and LRS/Materiel Management activity. This code helps track and document the specific actions and steps that were taken in regards to the DIFM items, providing a clear record of the maintenance and management activities performed.
31.
Which action taken code indicates an item is condemned?
Correct Answer
C. 9
Explanation
The action taken code "9" indicates that an item is condemned.
32.
What will the computer scan for in its internal records after an item was repaired and turned in serviceable?
Correct Answer
A. Due-outs.
Explanation
After an item has been repaired and turned in serviceable, the computer will scan its internal records for due-outs. This means that it will check for any pending requests or outstanding commitments for the item, such as items that have been reserved or requested by other users. This is important to ensure that the item is not already allocated to someone else and can be made available for use again.
33.
Where will processed returns in a serviceable condition be forwarded to after receiving a "notice to stock" document?
Correct Answer
D. Appropriate storage facility.
Explanation
After receiving a "notice to stock" document, processed returns in a serviceable condition will be forwarded to an appropriate storage facility. This means that the returns will be stored in a designated location that is suitable for their preservation and future use. The storage facility will ensure that the returns are kept in a secure and organized manner, ready to be accessed and utilized as needed.
34.
What is produced after processing an unserviceable turn-in for an asset that cannot be repaired at base level?
Correct Answer
A. Shipment document.
Explanation
After processing an unserviceable turn-in for an asset that cannot be repaired at base level, a shipment document is produced. This document is generated to record the transfer of the unserviceable asset from the base to a higher-level repair facility or disposal location. The shipment document includes details such as the asset's identification, condition, and destination, ensuring proper documentation and tracking throughout the transportation process.
35.
Which action taken code indicates an item is not authorized base level repair?
Correct Answer
B. 1
Explanation
The action taken code "1" indicates that an item is not authorized for base level repair.
36.
Where will processed returns for unserviceable and condemned assets be transferred to?
Correct Answer
B. SOS.
Explanation
Processed returns for unserviceable and condemned assets will be transferred to SOS. SOS stands for Supply Operations Squadron, which is responsible for managing and processing returns of assets that are no longer usable or deemed unfit for service. This squadron ensures that these assets are properly handled, documented, and disposed of according to the appropriate procedures and regulations.
37.
What term is used to describe selected XD2 items that are candidates for two-level repair?
Correct Answer
D. Depot-level reparables.
Explanation
Depot-level reparables refers to selected XD2 items that are candidates for two-level repair. This term is used to describe items that require repair at a higher level, typically at a depot or central repair facility. These items are not repaired at the shop or equipment level, but instead, they are sent to a specialized facility for more extensive repairs.
38.
The repair cycle process concept involving the practice of sending certain XD2 assets directly to the depot for repair, without first attempting to repair them at base level, reduces the number of maintenance levels from
Correct Answer
A. 3 to 2.
Explanation
The repair cycle process concept involves sending certain XD2 assets directly to the depot for repair instead of attempting to repair them at the base level. This reduces the number of maintenance levels from 3 to 2. This means that instead of going through three levels of maintenance, the assets only go through two levels, which can save time and resources.
39.
Failure to process turnaround (TRN) data in a correct and timely manner results in reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made by
Correct Answer
A. HQ AFMC.
Explanation
Failure to process turnaround (TRN) data in a correct and timely manner can have negative consequences on base stock levels and reports. This is because TRN data is crucial for making decisions related to buying, repairing, and distributing resources. If the TRN data is not processed correctly and on time, it can lead to reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports. In this scenario, HQ AFMC is the entity responsible for making these decisions based on the reports. Therefore, if TRN data is not processed correctly and timely, HQ AFMC will be affected.
40.
Which update is prepared and processed by repair cycle support (RCS) to update demand data on the item record and repair cycle data on the repair cycle record?
Correct Answer
B. Turnaround.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Turnaround." In the repair cycle support (RCS) process, the turnaround update is used to update demand data on the item record and repair cycle data on the repair cycle record. This update helps to track and manage the repair cycle and ensure that the necessary repairs are carried out efficiently. Calibration, repair cycle, and cannibalization updates do not specifically address the updating of demand data and repair cycle data in the same way as the turnaround update.
41.
What is the source of data Supply uses to process turnaround transactions?
Correct Answer
B. AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag.
Explanation
The correct answer is AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag. This form is used by Supply to process turnaround transactions. The AFTO Form 350 is specifically designed for tracking and processing reparable items, which are items that can be repaired and returned to service. This form includes important information such as the item's identification, condition, and repair instructions. By using this form, Supply can efficiently manage and track the turnaround process for reparable items.
42.
Which management notice is produced notifying stock awaiting disposition instructions after an unserviceable turn-in process?
Correct Answer
C. I012.
43.
What TRIC is not an option for processing after dispositions instructions for an unserviceable asset has been received?
Correct Answer
A. ISU.
Explanation
The correct answer is ISU. The question is asking for the option that is not available for processing after disposition instructions for an unserviceable asset have been received. ISU stands for Inventory Storage and Utilization, which is a process used for managing and storing inventory. However, after disposition instructions have been received, the asset is no longer being stored or utilized, so ISU is not an applicable option. TRM stands for Transportation Management, MSI stands for Material Supportability Information, and SHP stands for Shipping, all of which could be relevant options for processing after disposition instructions have been received.
44.
Who maintains ownership of supply point assets until they are used?
Correct Answer
A. LRS.
Explanation
LRS (Logistic Readiness Squadron) maintains ownership of supply point assets until they are used. This means that the squadron is responsible for the management and control of these assets until they are utilized for their intended purposes. They ensure that the assets are properly maintained and accounted for, ensuring their availability and functionality when needed.
45.
Which activity and organization code is used when loading a supply point detail document number?
Correct Answer
C. S, 005.
Explanation
When loading a supply point detail document number, the activity and organization code used is S, 005.
46.
Which listing is used to verify balances during a supply point reconciliation?
Correct Answer
B. Q13.
Explanation
Q13 is the correct answer because it is the only option that is related to verifying balances during a supply point reconciliation. The other options (D04, R14, S07) do not have any relevance to the topic.
47.
What Transaction Identifier Code (TRIC) is processed when the on hand quantity is less than the authorized quantity after a supply point reconciliation?
Correct Answer
C. ISU.
Explanation
The correct answer is ISU. ISU stands for Issue. When the on hand quantity is less than the authorized quantity after a supply point reconciliation, an issue transaction is processed to record the discrepancy and adjust the inventory levels accordingly. This transaction helps to keep track of the inventory and ensure accurate stock management.
48.
Who is responsible for continuously monitoring requirements that support AF war plans and ensuring the validity of all war reserve material (WRM) requirements?
Correct Answer
C. MAJCOM.
Explanation
MAJCOM, or Major Command, is responsible for continuously monitoring requirements that support AF war plans and ensuring the validity of all war reserve material (WRM) requirements. MAJCOMs are the highest level of command in the Air Force and are responsible for organizing, training, and equipping forces for combat. They oversee the operational readiness of units under their command and ensure that the necessary resources, including WRM, are available to support war plans. Therefore, MAJCOM is the correct answer for this question.
49.
Who is responsible for physical material handling, receipt, storage, and processing of war reserve material (WRM) shipment request?
Correct Answer
A. Bases.
Explanation
Bases are responsible for the physical material handling, receipt, storage, and processing of war reserve material (WRM) shipment requests. They are the primary locations where these activities take place, ensuring that the materials are properly handled, stored, and processed according to established procedures and guidelines. The bases play a crucial role in the logistics and management of WRM, ensuring that the materials are readily available and in good condition when needed.
50.
Who will inform the Accountable Officer (AO) whether accountability for equipment items is to be transferred to the gaining base or remain with the home station prior to a deployment?
Correct Answer
A. Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).
Explanation
The Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO) is responsible for informing the Accountable Officer (AO) whether accountability for equipment items is to be transferred to the gaining base or remain with the home station prior to a deployment. They have the authority and knowledge to make this decision based on the needs and requirements of the deployment. The Source of Supply (SOS), MAJCOM, and AFMC may have their own roles and responsibilities, but in this specific scenario, it is the CEMO that holds the responsibility for informing the AO.