1.
Upon postural assessment of your patient, you noted that his scapula on one side is elevated relative to the other side. How would you know which side is at the right position?
Correct Answer
B. Palpate for the spine of the scapula at T3
Explanation
To determine which side of the scapula is at the right position, you would palpate for the spine of the scapula at T3. The spine of the scapula is a bony ridge that can be felt along the upper back. By palpating for the spine of the scapula at T3, you can compare the position of the scapula on each side and identify any elevation or asymmetry. This will help you determine which side is at the correct position and which side may be elevated relative to the other.
2.
A 28 year old male patient comes to physical therapy due to anterior pain. Pain is elicited while performing hip motions with resistance. Pain is specifically palpated on the area of the ASIS. Which of the ff. structures may be the cause of the pain?
Correct Answer
A. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
Explanation
The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh may be the cause of the pain in this case. The pain is elicited while performing hip motions with resistance and is specifically palpated on the area of the ASIS (anterior superior iliac spine). The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve supplies sensation to the skin over the lateral part of the thigh, and compression or irritation of this nerve can result in pain in this area.
3.
Which of the ff. occurs during birth delivery?
Correct Answer
B. Coccyx moves posteriorly
Explanation
During birth delivery, the coccyx, which is the small bone at the base of the spine, moves posteriorly or backwards. This movement is important to create more space in the pelvic outlet, allowing the baby to pass through the birth canal more easily. The coccyx is flexible and can be pushed back to accommodate the baby's head during delivery. This movement is a natural part of the birthing process and helps facilitate a smoother and safer delivery.
4.
Which of the following occurs during counternutation?
Correct Answer
C. Sacrum moves upward & posteriorly
Explanation
Counternutation refers to the movement of the sacrum in the pelvis. During counternutation, the sacrum moves upward and posteriorly. This movement is opposite to nutation, where the sacrum moves downward and anteriorly. Counternutation is a normal motion that occurs during certain activities such as sitting or bending forward. It helps to maintain stability and balance in the pelvis and spine.
5.
Which test is being done to the patient?
Correct Answer
B. SI Gapping
Explanation
The test being done to the patient is SI Gapping.
6.
A patient comes to you and complains of low back pain. Having the knowledge that Low Back Pain may stem from different sources, you performed different assessment procedures to rule out certain joints. Upon assessment, this given special test tested positive. Which of the following joints assessed is involved in the case?
Correct Answer
B. Sacroiliac Joint
Explanation
The special test that tested positive suggests that the Sacroiliac Joint is involved in the case of low back pain. The Sacroiliac Joint is located at the junction of the sacrum and the ilium bones in the pelvis. When this joint is affected, it can cause pain in the lower back. By ruling out other joints through assessment procedures, the positive result of the special test points to the involvement of the Sacroiliac Joint as the source of the patient's pain.
7.
A 10 year old patient with Down Syndrome presents with a lordotic posture upon assessment. Which of the ff observations would most likely accompany this finding?
Correct Answer
B. Patient will present with anterior tilting of the pelvis
Explanation
The lordotic posture is characterized by an exaggerated inward curve of the lower back. Anterior tilting of the pelvis is commonly associated with a lordotic posture. This occurs when the front of the pelvis tilts forward, causing the lower back to arch excessively. This is often seen in individuals with Down Syndrome due to muscle imbalances and hypotonia, which can affect the alignment of the pelvis and spine. Lumbar flexion refers to a forward bending of the lower back, which is not typically associated with a lordotic posture. Nutated SIJ refers to a specific position of the sacroiliac joint and is not directly related to the lordotic posture.
8.
A 33 year old patient presents with tightness of the knee extensors. Upon further assessment, the following findings will also be evident:
Correct Answer
C. The patient has STRONG Quadriceps Femoris
Explanation
The patient having strong quadriceps femoris muscles suggests that the tightness in the knee extensors is not due to weakness in these muscles. Strong quadriceps femoris muscles would typically provide adequate strength for knee extension, so the tightness experienced by the patient is likely due to other factors such as tight iliopsoas muscles.
9.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding a patient with WEAK hip flexors?
Correct Answer
B. The patient has STRETCHED Rectus femoris
Explanation
Weak hip flexors can lead to a lengthening or stretching of the rectus femoris muscle. The rectus femoris is one of the muscles that helps to flex the hip, so if it is weak, it may become stretched or lengthened. This is because the opposing muscles, such as the hamstrings, may be stronger and pull the hip into extension, causing the rectus femoris to be stretched.
10.
At which milestone does lumbar lordosis develop?
Correct Answer
D. Standing
Explanation
Lumbar lordosis is the inward curvature of the lower spine. It develops when a person starts standing. When standing, the weight of the body is supported by the legs and spine, causing the lumbar spine to curve inward. In supine and prone positions, the spine is typically in a more neutral position, and the curvature is not as pronounced. Supported sitting may also contribute to some degree of lumbar lordosis, but it is not as significant as when standing. Therefore, standing is the milestone at which lumbar lordosis develops.
11.
All of the following are part of the deep muscles of the back except for:
Correct Answer
D. Serratus posterior inferior
Explanation
The deep muscles of the back include the interspinales, iliocostalis, and intertransversarii. These muscles play a role in various movements and stabilizing the spine. However, the serratus posterior inferior is not considered part of the deep muscles of the back. Instead, it is a muscle located in the lower back and is involved in the movement of the ribcage during breathing.
12.
Patient is in prone with shoulders abducted to 120 degrees and elbow flexed to 90 degrees. You asked him to retract the scapula and he was able to do this against maximal resistance. Which is an appropriate assessment?
Correct Answer
C. Grade 5 Lower trapezius
Explanation
The correct answer is Grade 5 Lower trapezius. The patient's ability to retract the scapula against maximal resistance indicates that the lower trapezius muscle is functioning at full strength. The other options, upper trapezius, middle trapezius, and rhomboid major, are not appropriate assessments because the patient's ability to perform the movement indicates that these muscles are not the primary source of strength in this action.
13.
While your patient is performing oblique curl ups, you observed that he has less movement towards the (R) compared to the (L). Which muscle must be strengthened?
Correct Answer
A. (R) internal oblique and (L) external oblique
Explanation
The patient has less movement towards the right side compared to the left side during oblique curl ups. This indicates that the right internal oblique and left external oblique muscles need to be strengthened. The internal oblique muscles are responsible for trunk rotation and lateral flexion, while the external oblique muscles assist in trunk flexion and rotation. Strengthening these specific muscles will help improve the patient's movement towards the right side during oblique curl ups.
14.
The facets of the lumbar region are oriented towards the sagittal plane giving a/an ________ glide that facilitates __________ in the lumbosacral joint?
Correct Answer
A. AP, flexion and extension
Explanation
The facets of the lumbar region are oriented towards the sagittal plane, which means they allow for anterior-posterior (AP) movement. This AP glide facilitates flexion and extension in the lumbosacral joint.
15.
What is the capsular pattern of the lumbar spine?
Correct Answer
D. Lateral flexion = rotation > Extension > Flexion
Explanation
The capsular pattern of the lumbar spine refers to the characteristic pattern of joint restriction or limitation of movement that is commonly seen in certain conditions or pathologies affecting the lumbar spine. In this case, the correct answer suggests that the capsular pattern of the lumbar spine involves a limitation in lateral flexion and rotation, followed by a limitation in extension, and then a limitation in flexion. This means that in conditions affecting the lumbar spine, lateral flexion and rotation will be more restricted compared to extension and flexion.
16.
True about the thoracic vertebra, except:
Correct Answer
A. Costal facets are present on all segments for attachments of the ribs
Explanation
The thoracic vertebrae have costal facets on the transverse processes for attachment of the ribs, so the statement that costal facets are present on all segments for attachments of the ribs is true.
17.
This ligament connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae
Correct Answer
C. Ligamentum flavum
Explanation
The ligamentum flavum is the correct answer because it is the ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. This ligament is located in the spinal column and helps to support and stabilize the vertebral column. It is composed of elastic fibers and is known for its yellow color, hence the name "ligamentum flavum" which means "yellow ligament" in Latin.
18.
This muscle is part of the oblique running intermediate muscle in the deep muscles of the back
Correct Answer
D. Rotatores
Explanation
The rotatores muscle is part of the oblique running intermediate muscle in the deep muscles of the back. It is responsible for rotating and stabilizing the spine. The other options listed, such as Longissimus, Interspinales, and Intertransversarii, are also muscles in the back, but they do not specifically belong to the oblique running intermediate muscle group. Therefore, the correct answer is Rotatores.
19.
During trunk lateral flexion to the (R)
Correct Answer
A. Lumbar segments will rotate to the (L)
Explanation
During trunk lateral flexion to the right, the lumbar segments will rotate to the left. This is because during lateral flexion, the spine undergoes a combination of lateral bending and rotation. When the trunk bends to the right, the lumbar segments will bend to the right side, but due to the natural curvature of the spine, they will also rotate towards the left. This rotation helps to maintain the alignment and stability of the spine during lateral flexion.
20.
A patient presents with muscle imbalance of the hip muscles. Upon assessment, you noted a STRONG Gluetus Maximus. Which of the following is applicable in this case?
Correct Answer
C. Gluteus Maximus is contracted due to excessive activation versus the flexors
Explanation
In this case, the correct answer is that the Gluteus Maximus is contracted due to excessive activation versus the flexors. This means that the Gluteus Maximus is overactive and tight, causing the muscle imbalance in the hip. The intervention required would be to strengthen the Gluteus Maximus to restore balance and reduce the excessive activation of the muscle. Stretching the Gluteus Maximus would not be appropriate in this case as it is already in a contracted state.
21.
A patient comes to your for complaints of low back pain. Upon postural assessment, you took a picture and noted the patient’s habitual posture. Knowing these, which of the following impairments would you most likely find?
Correct Answer
C. Stretched hip flexors, strong hip extensors
Explanation
Based on the information provided, the patient's habitual posture is noted to have stretched hip flexors and strong hip extensors. This suggests that the hip flexors are being constantly stretched and lengthened, while the hip extensors are being strengthened and contracted. This imbalance in muscle length and strength indicates that the patient may have a tendency to tilt their pelvis forward, leading to increased stress and tension on the hip flexors and extensors. This can result in low back pain, as the muscles in the hip region are not functioning optimally to support the spine and maintain proper posture.
22.
A physical therapist examines a patient lying supine with both lower extremities extended. The therapist notes that both of the patient’s medial malleoli are aligned with each other. The therapist asks the patient to assume the long-sitting position and notes the position of the malleoli (the right malleolus shifted inferiorly). What is the MOST likely cause of this patient’s test results?
Correct Answer
B. Anterior rotation of the innominate on the right
Explanation
The patient's medial malleoli being aligned in the supine position suggests that the innominates are in a neutral position. However, when the patient assumes the long-sitting position and the right malleolus shifts inferiorly, it indicates anterior rotation of the right innominate. This means that the right side of the pelvis is rotating forward, causing a positional change in the malleoli. Therefore, the most likely cause of this patient's test results is anterior rotation of the innominate on the right.
23.
The therapist is evaluating a 38-year-old man who complains of right sacroiliac joint pain. The therapist decides to assess leg length discrepancy to supine versus sitting position. When the patient is in supine position, leg lengths are equal; however, when the patient rises to the sitting position, the right lower extremity appears 2 cm. shorter. Which of the following should be a part of the treatment plan?
Correct Answer
A. Right posterior S1 mobilization
Explanation
The correct answer is right posterior S1 mobilization. The patient's leg length discrepancy suggests a possible sacroiliac joint dysfunction. Right posterior S1 mobilization would be a suitable treatment plan as it can help address any dysfunction or misalignment in the sacroiliac joint, specifically on the right side. This mobilization technique can help restore proper joint mechanics and alleviate the patient's right sacroiliac joint pain.
24.
A patient presents with leg-length discrepancy. As a therapist, you know that this may be due to several causes. If the patient’s diagnosis states that he/she has Coxa Vara, what compensations would you expect during assessment?
Correct Answer
C. Subtalar inversion
Explanation
If a patient has Coxa Vara, it means that their hip joint has a decreased angle, causing the leg to be shorter. In order to compensate for this leg-length discrepancy, the patient may exhibit subtalar inversion during assessment. Subtalar inversion refers to the inward rolling of the foot, which helps to raise the arch and effectively lengthen the leg. This compensation helps to equalize the leg lengths and maintain balance during walking or standing.
25.
An adolescent female is referred to therapy with the diagnosis if anterior knee pain. Positive findings include pes planus, lateral tibial torsion and genu valgum. The position that the femur will be in excessive:
Correct Answer
B. Medial rotation
Explanation
The correct answer is medial rotation. In this case, the adolescent female has pes planus (flat feet), lateral tibial torsion (the tibia bone is twisted outward), and genu valgum (knock knees). These conditions can cause the femur bone to rotate medially, meaning it moves inward toward the midline of the body. This excessive medial rotation of the femur can contribute to anterior knee pain.
26.
The therapist is evaluating a 32-year-old woman for complaints of right hip pain. The patient has injured the strongest ligament of the hip. The therapist places the patient in the prone position on the plinth and passively extends the involved hip. The therapist notes an abnormal amount of increase in passive hip extension. Which of the following ligaments is damaged?
Correct Answer
B. Iliofemoral ligament (Y ligament of Bigelow)
Explanation
The therapist observes an abnormal increase in passive hip extension when evaluating the patient. This indicates that the iliofemoral ligament, also known as the Y ligament of Bigelow, is damaged. The iliofemoral ligament is one of the strongest ligaments in the hip joint and helps to stabilize and limit excessive extension of the hip. Damage to this ligament can result in increased passive hip extension, leading to the patient's complaints of right hip pain.
27.
In the presence of paralysis of active hip extension, as in the case of a paraplegic patient, functional standing balance is achieved by the following technique:
Correct Answer
B. Placing the center of gravity of the Head, Arms and Trunk posterior to the hip joint and leaning against the Iliofemoral ligament
Explanation
In the presence of paralysis of active hip extension, the technique that allows for functional standing balance is to place the center of gravity of the Head, Arms and Trunk posterior to the hip joint and lean against the Iliofemoral ligament. This positioning helps to create a counterbalance and stability by shifting the weight behind the hip joint. Leaning against the Iliofemoral ligament provides additional support and helps to maintain balance.
28.
Which of the following motions would you guard your hip against to prevent dislocation?
Correct Answer
A. Flexion and adduction
Explanation
To prevent hip dislocation, one should guard against the motion of flexion and adduction. Flexion refers to bending the hip joint, while adduction refers to bringing the leg towards the midline of the body. These motions can put excessive stress on the hip joint, leading to dislocation. By avoiding flexion and adduction, one can help maintain the stability of the hip joint and reduce the risk of dislocation.
29.
The intervention for a patient who has right sciatic pain caused by piriformis compression would NOT include:
Correct Answer
C. Active resistive strengthening exercise to the piriformis with the patient prone and the knee flexed
Explanation
The correct answer is active resistive strengthening exercise to the piriformis with the patient prone and the knee flexed. This exercise would involve contracting the piriformis muscle against resistance, which could potentially exacerbate the compression and increase pain in the sciatic nerve. Therefore, it would not be included in the intervention for a patient with right sciatic pain caused by piriformis compression.
30.
You are assessing a patient’s flexibility by asking the patient to reach her toes in a long sitting position similar to the picture above. The result of the assessment is exactly depicted in the above illustration. What can you infer from the result?
Correct Answer
D. Hamstrings muscle is responsible for the result due to its passive insufficiency
Explanation
The illustration shows the patient's inability to reach her toes in a long sitting position, indicating limited flexibility in the hamstrings muscle. Passive insufficiency refers to the inability of a muscle to lengthen fully due to its antagonist muscle being shortened. In this case, the hamstrings muscle is being passively insufficient, meaning it is unable to lengthen fully due to the shortened quadriceps muscle. Therefore, the correct answer is that the hamstrings muscle is responsible for the result due to its passive insufficiency.
31.
This is strengthening for which of the following hip muscles?
Correct Answer
C. Gluteus maximus
Explanation
The gluteus maximus is the correct answer because it is a major hip muscle responsible for hip extension and external rotation. Strengthening the gluteus maximus can help improve hip stability, power, and overall lower body strength.
32.
A patient is lying supine with his hips and knees extended and hands behind his head. The patient is able to raise his head, shoulder and thorax from the treatment table, but is unable to come to a complete long-sitting position. The PT should target which muscle for strengthening program?
Correct Answer
A. Iliopsoas
Explanation
The patient's inability to come to a complete long-sitting position suggests a weakness in the hip flexors. The iliopsoas muscle is the primary hip flexor, responsible for lifting the thigh towards the abdomen. Strengthening the iliopsoas through targeted exercises would help the patient improve their ability to sit up fully. The other muscles listed do not have as direct of a role in hip flexion and would not be the primary target for this specific issue.
33.
What disease is being shown in the x-ray film?
Correct Answer
A. LCPD
Explanation
LCPD stands for Legg-Calve-Perthes disease, which is a condition that affects the hip joint in children. It occurs when the blood supply to the femoral head (top of the thigh bone) is disrupted, leading to bone death and subsequent deformity. The x-ray film is likely showing characteristic changes in the hip joint associated with LCPD, such as flattening and fragmentation of the femoral head. SCFE (Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis) is another condition that affects the hip joint in children, but it is characterized by the slippage of the femoral head from the femoral neck. Hip dislocation and malalignment syndrome are unrelated conditions and would not present with the same x-ray findings as LCPD.
34.
All of the following statements describe the neck region except:
Correct Answer
C. It has both the cervical vertebrae and the hyoid bone as the only bones in the region
Explanation
The neck region is not only composed of the cervical vertebrae and the hyoid bone, but also includes other bones such as the clavicle. It serves as the base of the skull and contains several muscular layers that protect structures passing through it.
35.
All of the following describe the atlanto-occipital joint except:
Correct Answer
E. None of the above
Explanation
The given answer "None of the above" is correct because all of the statements provided in the question accurately describe the atlanto-occipital joint. It allows slight lateral flexion, it is a hinge type joint, and it is attached by the anterior atlanto occipital ligament to the anterior margin of the foramen magnum. Additionally, it allows extension beyond midline. Therefore, there is no statement that is incorrect or does not describe the atlanto-occipital joint.
36.
Which of the following ligaments first receives tension upon movement of the neck region:
Correct Answer
C. Supraspinous ligament
Explanation
The supraspinous ligament is the correct answer because it is located on the posterior aspect of the vertebral column and connects the tips of the spinous processes. When the neck region moves, the supraspinous ligament is the first ligament to receive tension due to its position and function in stabilizing the vertebrae.
37.
Which of the following statements are true:I. Digastric is a suprahyoid muscleII. Omohyoid is an infrahyoid muscleIII. Ansa cervicalis supplies all of the hyoid musclesIV. Hyoid bone is found at the level of C6V. Sternohyoid is found above the hyoid bone
Correct Answer
D. I and II
Explanation
The correct answer is I and II.
I. Digastric is a suprahyoid muscle: This statement is true. The digastric muscle is located above the hyoid bone, making it a suprahyoid muscle.
II. Omohyoid is an infrahyoid muscle: This statement is true. The omohyoid muscle is located below the hyoid bone, making it an infrahyoid muscle.
III. Ansa cervicalis supplies all of the hyoid muscles: This statement is false. The ansa cervicalis is a nerve loop that supplies some of the infrahyoid muscles, but not all of the hyoid muscles.
IV. Hyoid bone is found at the level of C6: This statement is false. The hyoid bone is located at the level of C3-C4, not C6.
V. Sternohyoid is found above the hyoid bone: This statement is false. The sternohyoid muscle is located below the hyoid bone, making it an infrahyoid muscle.
38.
A type of torticollis caused by traumatic injury specifically burn injury:
Correct Answer
D. Cicatricial
Explanation
Cicatricial torticollis is a type of torticollis that is caused by traumatic injury, specifically burn injury. It occurs when scar tissue forms in the neck muscles, causing them to contract and resulting in a twisted or tilted neck position. This differs from other types of torticollis, such as psychogenic torticollis which is caused by psychological factors, congenital torticollis which is present at birth, and traumatic torticollis which is caused by physical trauma other than burns.
39.
Upon observation of a patient who entered your clinic, you found that the patient’s neck is rotated towards right and is laterally flexed towards left. Which muscle is probably tight?
Correct Answer
A. (L) SCM
Explanation
The correct answer is (L) SCM. The sternocleidomastoid (SCM) muscle is responsible for rotating the head towards the opposite side and laterally flexing it towards the same side. In this case, the patient's neck is rotated towards the right and laterally flexed towards the left, indicating that the left SCM muscle is tight.
40.
You were asked by your clinical supervisor to stretch your patient’s tight neck muscle. Upon assessment, you found out that your patient has tight (L) scalenes. Which of the following maneuvers should you perform?
Correct Answer
D. Stretch the neck towards (R) rotation and lateral flexion
Explanation
The correct answer suggests that the neck should be stretched towards right rotation and lateral flexion. This is because the patient has tight (L) scalenes, which are muscles located on the left side of the neck. Stretching the neck towards right rotation and lateral flexion will help to stretch and lengthen the tight scalene muscles, providing relief and improving flexibility.
41.
Which structure passess beneath this part of the skull?
Correct Answer
B. Middle meningeal arteries
Explanation
The middle meningeal arteries pass beneath this part of the skull. These arteries are branches of the maxillary artery and are responsible for supplying blood to the meninges, which are the protective layers surrounding the brain and spinal cord. They are located between the dura mater and the skull, and any damage to these arteries can lead to a condition called epidural hematoma.
42.
This structure often impinges which cranial nerve causing nerve contusion?
Correct Answer
B. Olfactory nerve
Explanation
The olfactory nerve is responsible for the sense of smell and is located in the nasal cavity. In certain situations, such as head trauma or a strong impact to the face, this nerve can become compressed or injured, resulting in a nerve contusion.
43.
Which of the following statements are true:I. Cranial Nerve II exits at the optic canalII. Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve exits at foramen rotundumIII. Opthalmic branch of Cranial nerve 5 exits at superior orbital fissureIV. Cranial nerves 9,10,11 and 12 exits at jugular foramenV. Abducens nerve exits at superior orbital fissure
Correct Answer
D. I, III and V
Explanation
Cranial Nerve II, also known as the optic nerve, exits at the optic canal. The ophthalmic branch of Cranial nerve 5, also known as the trigeminal nerve, exits at the superior orbital fissure. The abducens nerve, which is Cranial Nerve VI, also exits at the superior orbital fissure. Therefore, the correct statements are I, III, and V.
44.
Only unpaired triangle of the neck:
Correct Answer
A. Muscular triangle
Explanation
The muscular triangle is the only unpaired triangle of the neck. The other three triangles mentioned (submandibular, submental, and carotid) are all paired, meaning there is one on each side of the neck. The muscular triangle is located in the front of the neck, between the anterior belly of the digastric muscle, the superior belly of the omohyoid muscle, and the midline of the neck. It contains several muscles, including the infrahyoid muscles and the thyroid gland.
45.
All of the following statements describe levator palpebrae superioris except:
Correct Answer
C. It is the only muscle that open the eyes
Explanation
The statement "It is the only muscle that opens the eyes" is incorrect because there are other muscles involved in opening the eyes, such as the superior tarsal muscle and the orbicularis oculi muscle. The levator palpebrae superioris muscle primarily lifts the upper eyelid, but it is not the only muscle responsible for opening the eyes.
46.
This muscle also elevates the eyelid. The reason why the ptosis in Horner's syndrome is just partial.
Correct Answer
A. Mueller's muscle
Explanation
Mueller's muscle is responsible for elevating the eyelid. In Horner's syndrome, there is partial ptosis, which means only a partial drooping of the eyelid. This is because Mueller's muscle is still functioning partially, allowing some elevation of the eyelid.
47.
During assessment, you asked your patient to look down and right. Which cranial nerves are you trying to test?
Correct Answer
B. R CN 3 and L CN 4
Explanation
When asking the patient to look down and right, the cranial nerves being tested are the right cranial nerve 3 (oculomotor nerve) and the left cranial nerve 4 (trochlear nerve). The oculomotor nerve controls the movements of the eye, including downward gaze, while the trochlear nerve controls the movement of the superior oblique muscle, which helps to move the eye downward and inward. Therefore, testing these cranial nerves helps to assess the patient's eye movements and coordination.
48.
You asked your patient to close his mouth tightly however patient cannot maintain mouth closure. All of the following muscles may be responsible for weak/poor mouth closure except:
Correct Answer
C. Lateral pterygoid
Explanation
The lateral pterygoid muscle is not responsible for weak/poor mouth closure. The masseter, medial pterygoid, and temporalis muscles are all involved in closing the mouth tightly. The lateral pterygoid muscle is responsible for opening the mouth and moving the jaw from side to side. Therefore, it would not be responsible for the patient's inability to maintain mouth closure.
49.
Oral muscle involved in this motion:
Correct Answer
C. Mentalis
Explanation
The mentalis muscle is involved in this motion. The mentalis muscle is located in the chin area and is responsible for controlling the movement of the lower lip. It helps in raising and wrinkling the skin of the chin and pushing the lower lip upwards. This muscle is important for facial expressions such as pouting or expressing doubt.
50.
Which extraocular muscle is damaged in this individual?
Correct Answer
C. L medial rectus
Explanation
The individual in question has damage to their left medial rectus muscle. This muscle is responsible for inward movement of the eye towards the nose (adduction). Damage to the medial rectus muscle can result in a condition known as medial rectus palsy, which causes the affected eye to be unable to move inward properly. This can lead to double vision and difficulty with tasks that require both eyes to work together.