CCT ATC Cto 16008

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| By 55mhaig

55mhaig

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 219

Questions: 80 | Attempts: 219 | Updated: Mar 22, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

The word "shall" means a procedure is _______.
- A.
  
  Recommended
- B.
  
  Advisable
- C.
  
  Mandatory
- D.
  
  Approved
Correct Answer
C. Mandatory

Explanation
The word "shall" indicates that a procedure is mandatory. It implies that the action or requirement must be followed or complied with, leaving no room for discretion or choice.

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2.

Procedural Letters of Agreement are _______ to JO 7110.65.
- A.
  
  Appended
- B.
  
  Added
- C.
  
  Supplemental
- D.
  
  Attached
Correct Answer
C. Supplemental

Explanation
Procedural Letters of Agreement are supplemental to JO 7110.65. This means that they provide additional information or instructions that complement the content of JO 7110.65. These letters serve as an extension or addition to the main document and are used to address specific procedures or agreements that are not covered in the original JO 7110.65.

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3.

When used in conjunction with visibility, "miles" refers to ______ miles; otherwise, "miles" means ________ miles.
- A.
  
  Nautical; statute
- B.
  
  Partial; unit
- C.
  
  Statute; nautical
- D.
  
  Full; partial
Correct Answer
C. Statute; nautical

Explanation
When used in conjunction with visibility, "miles" refers to nautical miles; otherwise, "miles" means statute miles. Nautical miles are used in aviation and marine navigation, while statute miles are used in everyday land-based measurements.

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4.

The word "altitude" refers to the indicated altitude expressed in mean sea level, _______, or both.
- A.
  
  Flight level
- B.
  
  Calibrated altitude
- C.
  
  True altitude
- D.
  
  Above ground level
Correct Answer
D. Above ground level

Explanation
The word "altitude" refers to the indicated altitude expressed in mean sea level, flight level, calibrated altitude, or both. However, the term "above ground level" is also used to describe altitude.

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5.

Unless requested by the pilot, do NOT issue a downwind takeoff to helicopters if the tailwind exceeds ______ knots
- A.
  
  3
- B.
  
  5
- C.
  
  10
- D.
  
  15
Correct Answer
B. 5

Explanation
Helicopters should not be issued a downwind takeoff if the tailwind exceeds 5 knots. This is because a tailwind can affect the helicopter's performance and stability during takeoff. A tailwind can increase the groundspeed of the helicopter, making it more difficult to control and potentially reducing its lift capability. Therefore, it is important to limit the tailwind to a maximum of 5 knots to ensure safe takeoff conditions for helicopters.

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6.

A nonapproach control tower may be authorized to provide visual separation between two aircraft within a(n) _______ area.
- A.
  
  Airport
- B.
  
  Approach control
- C.
  
  Surface
- D.
  
  Terminal
Correct Answer
C. Surface

Explanation
A nonapproach control tower may be authorized to provide visual separation between two aircraft within a surface area. This means that the control tower is responsible for ensuring that there is enough distance between the two aircraft to prevent any potential collisions. The surface area refers to the area of the airport where aircraft are taxiing, taking off, and landing.

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7.

Authorize simultaneous helicopter landings and takeoffs if the landing/takeoff points are at least 200 feet apart and __________.
- A.
  
  The courses have approach lights
- B.
  
  The pilots have each other in sight
- C.
  
  The courses to be flown do not conflict
- D.
  
  A Letter of Agreement exists
Correct Answer
C. The courses to be flown do not conflict

Explanation
Simultaneous helicopter landings and takeoffs can be authorized if the landing/takeoff points are at least 200 feet apart and the courses to be flown do not conflict. This means that as long as the flight paths of the helicopters do not intersect or overlap, they can safely operate at the same time. The other options, such as approach lights, pilots having each other in sight, and a Letter of Agreement, may be important for other aspects of helicopter operations but are not directly related to authorizing simultaneous landings and takeoffs.

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8.

Simultaneous opposite direction aircraft operations on parallel runways between sunset and sunrise are NOT authorized unless runway centerlines are separated by a minimum of _______ feet.
- A.
  
  500
- B.
  
  700
- C.
  
  1,400
- D.
  
  2,800
Correct Answer
D. 2,800

Explanation
Simultaneous opposite direction aircraft operations on parallel runways between sunset and sunrise are not authorized unless runway centerlines are separated by a minimum of 2,800 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure safe separation between the aircraft operating on the parallel runways. It allows for enough space for the aircraft to maneuver and maintain a safe distance from each other, reducing the risk of collision.

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9.

Departing IFR civil aircraft should be instructed to contact departure control after takeoff about ______ mile(s) beyond the end of the runway.
- A.
  
  1/2
- B.
  
  1
- C.
  
  1 1/2
- D.
  
  2
Correct Answer
A. 1/2

Explanation
Departing IFR civil aircraft should be instructed to contact departure control after takeoff about 1/2 mile beyond the end of the runway. This instruction ensures that the aircraft has climbed to a safe altitude and is clear of any obstacles in the immediate vicinity of the airport. Contacting departure control at this point allows for a smooth transition of control from the tower to the departure control facility.

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10.

If a low-level wind shear/microburst alert is received, issue the _______ and the displayed field boundary wind.
- A.
  
  Magnetic Wind
- B.
  
  Airport Wind
- C.
  
  Speed loss or gain on approach
- D.
  
  Latest pilot report
Correct Answer
B. Airport Wind

Explanation
In the given scenario, when a low-level wind shear/microburst alert is received, it is necessary to issue the Airport Wind and the displayed field boundary wind. This is because the Airport Wind provides information about the current wind conditions at the airport, which is crucial for pilots to make informed decisions during takeoff and landing. The displayed field boundary wind helps pilots understand the wind conditions near the boundaries of the airport, which can also impact their approach and landing procedures.

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11.

When a low-level wind shear/microburst is reported by pilots or detected by LLWAS, the statement "LOW LEVEL WIND SHEAR ADVISORIES IN EFFECT" must be included on the ATIS broadcast for ______ minutes.
- A.
  
  10
- B.
  
  15
- C.
  
  20
- D.
  
  30
Correct Answer
C. 20

Explanation
When a low-level wind shear/microburst is reported by pilots or detected by LLWAS, the statement "LOW LEVEL WIND SHEAR ADVISORIES IN EFFECT" must be included on the ATIS broadcast for 20 minutes.

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12.

Skill requirements for operating positions in a control tower include the passing of a(n) ________ test.
- A.
  
  Essay
- B.
  
  Practical
- C.
  
  Oral
- D.
  
  Multiple choice
Correct Answer
B. Practical

Explanation
Operating positions in a control tower require individuals to have practical skills. This means that they need to demonstrate their ability to perform tasks and handle real-life situations effectively. A practical test would assess their competence in operating the equipment, following procedures, and making decisions in a controlled environment. Unlike an essay or oral test, a practical test would provide a more accurate evaluation of their hands-on skills and readiness to work in a control tower. Multiple choice tests are not suitable for assessing practical skills as they primarily test theoretical knowledge.

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13.

An endorsement that an applicant has met the requirements to control air traffic at a facility is called a(n) ________.
- A.
  
  Facility rating
- B.
  
  Area rating
- C.
  
  CTO certificate
- D.
  
  Facility certificate
Correct Answer
A. Facility rating

Explanation
A facility rating is an endorsement that indicates that an applicant has fulfilled the necessary requirements to have control over air traffic at a particular facility. This rating certifies that the individual has the knowledge, skills, and qualifications to perform air traffic control duties at that specific location. It is a recognition of their competence and ability to handle the responsibilities associated with managing air traffic within the designated facility.

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14.

Land and Hold Short Operations must only be conducted _________.
- A.
  
  In VFR conditions
- B.
  
  At nonapproach control towers
- C.
  
  With the concurrence of the departure controller
- D.
  
  In accordance with a Letter of Agreement
Correct Answer
A. In VFR conditions

Explanation
Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) are a type of operation where an aircraft is allowed to land and hold short of an intersecting runway or taxiway. These operations can only be conducted in Visual Flight Rules (VFR) conditions. VFR conditions refer to weather conditions that allow pilots to navigate and operate an aircraft by visual reference to the ground and other landmarks. Since LAHSO requires clear visibility and good weather conditions for pilots to safely see and avoid other aircraft and obstacles, it is crucial that these operations are only conducted in VFR conditions.

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15.

A provision for conducting a simultaneous operation on intersecting runways is that both aircraft involved must be issued ______.
- A.
  
  A wind report
- B.
  
  An altimeter setting
- C.
  
  Feet remaining
- D.
  
  Traffic information
Correct Answer
D. Traffic information

Explanation
In order to conduct a simultaneous operation on intersecting runways, it is necessary for both aircraft involved to be issued traffic information. This information ensures that both pilots are aware of the presence and location of other aircraft in the vicinity, allowing them to coordinate their movements and maintain safe separation. Without traffic information, the risk of collision or other hazardous situations would be significantly increased.

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16.

The term "high key" relates to a(n) ________ approach.
- A.
  
  Overhead
- B.
  
  VOR
- C.
  
  TACAN
- D.
  
  Simulated flameout
Correct Answer
D. Simulated flameout

Explanation
The term "high key" refers to a simulated flameout approach. This approach is a training maneuver where the pilot intentionally shuts off the engine to simulate an engine failure. The pilot then glides the aircraft to a designated landing spot. This exercise helps pilots practice emergency procedures and develop skills in handling unexpected situations.

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17.

What factor should be considered when determining which runways are to be designated as "active" runways?
- A.
  
  Traffic flow
- B.
  
  Expected traffic
- C.
  
  Severe weather activity
- D.
  
  Request from the airport operator
Correct Answer
C. Severe weather activity

Explanation
When determining which runways should be designated as "active," one important factor to consider is severe weather activity. This is because severe weather conditions such as strong winds, heavy rain, or thunderstorms can affect the safety and efficiency of aircraft operations. By designating runways that are less prone to severe weather as "active," it helps ensure the smooth flow of air traffic and minimizes the risk of accidents or disruptions caused by adverse weather conditions.

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18.

Before issuing a clearance to aircraft that will transit another facility's surface area, coordinate with the appropriate _______.
- A.
  
  Nonapproach control tower
- B.
  
  Airport authority
- C.
  
  Flight Standards District Office
- D.
  
  Airport Advisory Service
Correct Answer
A. Nonapproach control tower

Explanation
Before issuing a clearance to aircraft that will transit another facility's surface area, it is important to coordinate with the appropriate nonapproach control tower. This is necessary to ensure the safe and efficient movement of the aircraft through the airspace and to avoid any conflicts or potential hazards. The nonapproach control tower is responsible for managing the movement of aircraft on the ground within their designated area, including taxiways, runways, and other surface areas. By coordinating with them, the issuing authority can ensure that all necessary precautions and instructions are given to the aircraft for a smooth and safe transit.

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19.

Identify a primary radar beacon target by observing the target make an identifying turn of ______ degrees or more.
- A.
  
  10
- B.
  
  20
- C.
  
  30
- D.
  
  40
Correct Answer
C. 30

Explanation
A primary radar beacon target can be identified by observing the target make an identifying turn of 30 degrees or more. This means that when the target changes its heading by at least 30 degrees, it becomes easier to identify and track using radar. This turn is significant enough to differentiate the target from other objects or aircraft in the vicinity, allowing for better surveillance and monitoring.

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20.

When issuing traffic to radar-identified aircraft, state the azimuth and distance from the aircraft and the _________.
- A.
  
  Altitude
- B.
  
  Speed
- C.
  
  Direction of flight
- D.
  
  Beacon code
Correct Answer
C. Direction of flight

Explanation
When issuing traffic to radar-identified aircraft, it is important to provide the azimuth and distance from the aircraft, as well as the direction of flight. This additional information helps the pilot to better understand the relative position and movement of other aircraft in their vicinity, enabling them to make informed decisions and avoid potential conflicts. Providing the direction of flight allows the pilot to anticipate the path of the other aircraft and adjust their own course accordingly.

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21.

What term describes a physical or automated action taken to transfer the radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another if the aircraft will enter the receiving controller's airspace and radio communications with the aircraft will NOT be transferred?
- A.
  
  Handoff
- B.
  
  Point out
- C.
  
  Radar contact
- D.
  
  Quick look
Correct Answer
B. Point out
22.

Radar separation shall be applied between the _______ of beacon control slashes.
- A.
  
  Lines
- B.
  
  Centers
- C.
  
  Axes
- D.
  
  Ends
Correct Answer
D. Ends

Explanation
Radar separation shall be applied between the ends of beacon control slashes. This means that there should be a certain distance maintained between the endpoints of the slashes on the radar display. This is important for ensuring the accuracy and effectiveness of radar navigation and avoiding any potential collisions or confusion.

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23.

Except where it is NOT operationally feasible, interfacility and intrafacility transfers of _______ must be accomplished in all areas of radar surveillance.
- A.
  
  Radio communications
- B.
  
  Responsibility
- C.
  
  Radar identification
- D.
  
  Control
Correct Answer
C. Radar identification

Explanation
In order to ensure effective radar surveillance, interfacility and intrafacility transfers of radar identification must be accomplished in all areas, except where it is not operationally feasible. This means that the transfer of information regarding the identification of radar targets must be carried out between different facilities and within the same facility to maintain continuous monitoring and tracking of targets. This helps in maintaining situational awareness and coordination between different radar surveillance systems.

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24.

The minimum requirement for vertical separation between an IFR aircraft and a Special VFR aircraft is that the Special VFR aircraft be assigned an altitude at least _______ any conflicting IFR traffic.
- A.
  
  1,000 feet above
- B.
  
  1,000 feet below
- C.
  
  500 feet above
- D.
  
  500 feet below
Correct Answer
D. 500 feet below

Explanation
The minimum requirement for vertical separation between an IFR aircraft and a Special VFR aircraft is that the Special VFR aircraft be assigned an altitude at least 500 feet below any conflicting IFR traffic. This ensures that there is a safe distance between the two aircraft, reducing the risk of collision. By assigning the Special VFR aircraft an altitude lower than the IFR traffic, there is a clear separation in their flight paths, allowing them to operate safely in the same airspace.

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25.

Local controllers must visually scan runways _______.
- A.
  
  Every 3 minutes
- B.
  
  Every 90 seconds
- C.
  
  Only when there is traffic
- D.
  
  To the maximum extent possible
Correct Answer
D. To the maximum extent possible

Explanation
Local controllers must visually scan runways to the maximum extent possible in order to ensure the safety and efficiency of aircraft operations. By continuously monitoring the runways, controllers can quickly identify any potential hazards or obstructions that may affect aircraft movement. This allows them to take immediate action and make informed decisions to prevent accidents or delays. Regular visual scanning also helps controllers maintain situational awareness and stay alert to any changes or developments on the runways, enabling them to effectively manage traffic and maintain smooth operations.

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26.

Special VFR aircraft are NOT assigned fixed altitudes because of the _______.
- A.
  
  Wake turbulence requirement
- B.
  
  Visibility requirement
- C.
  
  Clearance-from-clouds requirement
- D.
  
  Minimum separation requirements
Correct Answer
C. Clearance-from-clouds requirement

Explanation
Special VFR aircraft are not assigned fixed altitudes because of the clearance-from-clouds requirement. This is because special VFR operations allow pilots to fly in controlled airspace with less than the standard visibility and cloud clearance requirements. By not assigning fixed altitudes, air traffic control can provide flexibility to special VFR aircraft to maneuver as necessary to maintain the required cloud clearance. Assigning fixed altitudes could restrict their ability to avoid clouds and maintain visual reference, which is crucial for safe operations in reduced visibility conditions.

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27.

Unless required fro message content, the duration of an ATIS message should NOT exceed ________ seconds.
- A.
  
  20
- B.
  
  30
- C.
  
  45
- D.
  
  60
Correct Answer
B. 30

Explanation
The correct answer is 30 seconds. An ATIS message is an automatic weather information broadcast provided by airports to pilots. It contains crucial information about weather conditions, runway conditions, and other relevant details. It is important for the duration of the ATIS message to be concise and precise to ensure that pilots receive the necessary information quickly and efficiently. A duration of 30 seconds strikes a balance between providing sufficient information and minimizing the time pilots spend listening to the message.

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28.

The sequence for departure under gate hold procedures must be maintained in accordance with _______ unless modified by flow control restrictions.
- A.
  
  Standard Operating Procedures
- B.
  
  A Letter of Agreement
- C.
  
  Traffic complexity
- D.
  
  The initial call
Correct Answer
D. The initial call

Explanation
The sequence for departure under gate hold procedures must be maintained in accordance with the initial call unless modified by flow control restrictions. This means that the order in which aircraft are allowed to depart from the gate is determined by the initial call made by the pilots or air traffic control. However, if there are flow control restrictions in place, the sequence may be modified.

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29.

What term describes the position that is in direct communication with aircraft and ensures the separation of aircraft in the area of jurisdiction?
- A.
  
  Tower Position
- B.
  
  Tower Associate Position
- C.
  
  Tower Cab Position
- D.
  
  Tower Cab Coordinator Position
Correct Answer
A. Tower Position

Explanation
The term "Tower Position" describes the role that is responsible for direct communication with aircraft and ensuring the separation of aircraft in the designated area. This position is typically located in the control tower of an airport and plays a crucial role in coordinating the movements of aircraft to maintain safety and efficiency in the airspace.

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30.

The light system arranged to provide vertical visual approach slope guidance information during the approach to a runway is ______.
- A.
  
  VALS
- B.
  
  VASI
- C.
  
  VRAS
- D.
  
  VSI
Correct Answer
B. VASI

Explanation
The correct answer is VASI. VASI stands for Visual Approach Slope Indicator, which is a light system that provides vertical guidance to pilots during the approach to a runway. It consists of a series of lights arranged in a row, with some lights being red and some being white. The pilot can determine their position relative to the desired glide path by observing the colors of the lights. If the pilot sees red lights, they are below the glide path and need to descend, while if they see white lights, they are above the glide path and need to climb.

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31.

Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) shall be operated when the visibility is less than _____ mile(s) and instrument approaches are being made to the runway served by the associated ALS.
- A.
  
  1
- B.
  
  2
- C.
  
  3
- D.
  
  4
Correct Answer
C. 3

Explanation
Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) are used in low visibility conditions when instrument approaches are being made to the runway served by the associated ALS. This helps to enhance the visual cues for pilots during approach and landing. The correct answer is 3, indicating that SFL shall be operated when the visibility is less than 3 miles.

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32.

What is the phraseology used to issue RVR information?
- A.
  
  "RUNWAY TWO EIGHT LEFT RVR VISIBILITY SIX HUNDRED FEET"
- B.
  
  "RVR ON RUNWAY TWO EIGHT SIX THOUSAND FEET"
- C.
  
  "RUNWAY ONE FOUR RVR TWO THOUSAND FOUR HUNDRED"
- D.
  
  "RVR RUNWAY THREE TWO THREE QUARTERS"
Correct Answer
C. "RUNWAY ONE FOUR RVR TWO THOUSAND FOUR HUNDRED"

Explanation
The correct answer is "RUNWAY ONE FOUR RVR TWO THOUSAND FOUR HUNDRED". This answer follows the correct phraseology used to issue RVR (Runway Visual Range) information. The phraseology typically includes stating the runway number followed by the RVR visibility in feet. In this case, the phrase "RUNWAY ONE FOUR RVR TWO THOUSAND FOUR HUNDRED" correctly indicates that the RVR visibility on runway 14 is 2400 feet.

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33.

The runway edge lights for the runway-in-use shall be turned on whenever the associated _______ lights are on.
- A.
  
  Runway
- B.
  
  Approach
- C.
  
  Taxiway
- D.
  
  Centerline
Correct Answer
B. Approach

Explanation
The runway edge lights are turned on whenever the associated approach lights are on. This is because the approach lights provide guidance to aircraft during the final approach and landing phase, and the runway edge lights help to define the edges of the runway and provide visual cues for pilots. Therefore, it is important for both sets of lights to be operational simultaneously to ensure the safety and proper navigation of aircraft during landing.

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34.

Determining which runways are to be designated as "active" is a primary responsibility of the ________.
- A.
  
  Local controller
- B.
  
  Tower supervisor/CIC
- C.
  
  Airport manager
- D.
  
  Approach control supervisor/CIC
Correct Answer
B. Tower supervisor/CIC

Explanation
The tower supervisor/CIC is responsible for determining which runways are to be designated as "active." They oversee the overall operations of the control tower and coordinate with air traffic controllers to ensure safe and efficient aircraft movement on the runways. This includes making decisions on which runways are suitable for use based on factors such as weather conditions, aircraft traffic volume, and runway maintenance requirements. The tower supervisor/CIC plays a crucial role in managing runway operations and ensuring the smooth flow of air traffic at the airport.

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35.

What terminal radar service provides, in addition to basic radar service, sequencing of all IFR and participating VFR aircraft to the primary airport and separation between all participating VFR aircraft?
- A.
  
  Class A
- B.
  
  Class B
- C.
  
  Class C
- D.
  
  TRSA
Correct Answer
D. TRSA

Explanation
A Terminal Radar Service Area (TRSA) provides sequencing of all IFR and participating VFR aircraft to the primary airport, as well as separation between all participating VFR aircraft. TRSAs are established in areas where there is a high volume of radar traffic and provide additional services beyond basic radar service. This helps to ensure the safe and efficient flow of air traffic in and out of the primary airport.

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36.

Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSAs) are solely established to define airspace within which ______ service will be provided.
- A.
  
  IFR
- B.
  
  VFR
- C.
  
  Control
- D.
  
  Separation
Correct Answer
D. Separation

Explanation
Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSAs) are established to define airspace within which separation service will be provided. TRSAs are designed to provide additional radar services to VFR aircraft in high-density areas. While IFR and VFR are types of flight plans, and control is a broader concept that encompasses various aspects of air traffic management, separation specifically refers to the service provided to maintain a safe distance between aircraft to prevent collisions. Therefore, the correct answer is separation.

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37.

The position relief briefing process involves _______ separate and distinct steps.
- A.
  
  2
- B.
  
  3
- C.
  
  4
- D.
  
  5
Correct Answer
C. 4

Explanation
The position relief briefing process involves 4 separate and distinct steps.

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38.

When basic radar service is being provided, an aircraft sighted by the local controller at the time of first radio contact may be positioned in the landing sequence after _________.
- A.
  
  Radar contact
- B.
  
  Coordination with approach control
- C.
  
  Communication with the center
- D.
  
  Issuing landing clearance
Correct Answer
B. Coordination with approach control

Explanation
When basic radar service is being provided, an aircraft sighted by the local controller at the time of first radio contact may be positioned in the landing sequence after coordination with approach control. This means that the local controller will need to communicate with the approach control to ensure that the aircraft is properly integrated into the landing sequence. This coordination is necessary to maintain the flow of traffic and ensure safe and efficient operations.

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39.

Issue radar advisories to flight inspection aircraft where adequate coverage exists and to the extent permitted by ___________.
- A.
  
  Facility orders
- B.
  
  Letters of Agreement
- C.
  
  Workload
- D.
  
  Equipment
Correct Answer
C. Workload

Explanation
The correct answer is workload. The explanation for this is that radar advisories are issued to flight inspection aircraft based on the workload of the radar operators. If the workload is manageable and there is adequate coverage, the radar advisories can be issued to the aircraft. However, if the workload is too high or if there is insufficient coverage, the radar advisories may not be issued. Therefore, the extent to which radar advisories can be issued is determined by the workload of the operators.

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40.

When issuing advisories on bird activity, include the position, species or size (if known), direction of flight, and __________.
- A.
  
  Altitude
- B.
  
  Location where they were first spotted
- C.
  
  Type of aircraft that spotted them
- D.
  
  Flight service frequency for more information
Correct Answer
A. Altitude

Explanation
When issuing advisories on bird activity, it is important to include the altitude along with the position, species or size, and direction of flight. This information is crucial for pilots and air traffic controllers to be aware of the potential hazards posed by birds in the airspace. Knowing the altitude at which the birds are flying helps in determining the risk of collision and allows pilots to take appropriate measures to avoid them.

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41.

The ordered listing of items to be covered during a position relief briefing is called the _______.
- A.
  
  Checklist
- B.
  
  Relief list
- C.
  
  Position list
- D.
  
  Brief list
Correct Answer
A. Checklist

Explanation
A position relief briefing is a process where one person is being replaced by another in a particular position or role. During this briefing, there is a need for an ordered listing of the items that need to be covered to ensure a smooth transition. This ordered listing is called a checklist, as it helps to ensure that all necessary information and tasks are addressed and completed during the briefing.

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42.

Do NOT ask a flight check aircraft to deviate from the pilot's planned action except to preclude a(n) ________ situation.
- A.
  
  Traffic
- B.
  
  Emergency
- C.
  
  Delay
- D.
  
  Priority
Correct Answer
B. Emergency

Explanation
A flight check aircraft should only deviate from the pilot's planned action in order to prevent an emergency situation. This means that if there is an immediate threat to safety or if there is a risk of a hazardous situation occurring, the flight check aircraft can request a deviation from the pilot's planned action. This ensures that safety is prioritized and that any potential emergencies are addressed promptly.

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43.

A designated STOL runway may be assigned only when requested by the pilot or as specified in a __________.
- A.
  
  Letter of Agreement with the airport operator
- B.
  
  Letter of Agreement with the aircraft operator
- C.
  
  Memorandum of Understanding with the airport operator
- D.
  
  Memorandum of Understanding with the aircraft operator
Correct Answer
B. Letter of Agreement with the aircraft operator

Explanation
A designated STOL (Short Takeoff and Landing) runway may be assigned only when requested by the pilot or as specified in a Letter of Agreement with the aircraft operator. This means that the pilot or the aircraft operator must specifically request the use of a STOL runway, or it must be outlined in a formal agreement between the aircraft operator and the relevant parties. This ensures that the appropriate runway is available for STOL operations and that all parties involved are aware of and agree to the arrangement.

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44.

NO person may fly in formation if the aircraft is carrying ____________.
- A.
  
  Hazardous material
- B.
  
  Commercial cargo
- C.
  
  Civilians
- D.
  
  Passengers for hire
Correct Answer
D. Passengers for hire

Explanation
This question is testing knowledge of regulations regarding flying in formation. According to aviation regulations, it is not allowed for any person to fly in formation if the aircraft is carrying passengers for hire. This means that if there are paying passengers on board, flying in formation is prohibited.

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45.

Aerobatic flight may NOT be conducted below _________ feet AGL.
- A.
  
  1,000
- B.
  
  1,500
- C.
  
  2,000
- D.
  
  2,500
Correct Answer
B. 1,500

Explanation
Aerobatic flight may not be conducted below 1,500 feet AGL because it requires a certain altitude to ensure safety. Performing aerobatic maneuvers at lower altitudes increases the risk of collision with the ground or obstacles. Additionally, higher altitudes provide more time and space for recovery in case of any issues or emergencies during the maneuvers. Therefore, a minimum altitude of 1,500 feet AGL is necessary for conducting aerobatic flight safely.

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46.

Speed restrictions do NOT apply if the prescribed speed is lower than the _________ of an aircraft.
- A.
  
  Operating speed
- B.
  
  True airspeed
- C.
  
  Maximum safe speed
- D.
  
  Minimum safe speed
Correct Answer
D. Minimum safe speed

Explanation
Speed restrictions do not apply if the prescribed speed is lower than the minimum safe speed of an aircraft. This means that if the minimum safe speed is specified for a particular aircraft, any speed below that can be considered safe and there are no restrictions in terms of maximum speed. This could be because the aircraft may not be able to maintain stability or control at speeds below the minimum safe speed, so it is important to adhere to this limit for safe operation.

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47.

The maximum allowable airspeed for an aircraft below 10,000 feet is _______ knots.
- A.
  
  200
- B.
  
  230
- C.
  
  250
- D.
  
  280
Correct Answer
C. 250

Explanation
The maximum allowable airspeed for an aircraft below 10,000 feet is 250 knots. This is a standard regulation enforced by aviation authorities to ensure the safety of aircraft operating at lower altitudes. The specific speed limit may vary depending on the country, aircraft type, and other factors, but 250 knots is a common limit. Exceeding this speed could increase the risk of accidents and make it more difficult for pilots to maintain control of the aircraft.

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48.

If requested, a pilot who is granted priority by ATC in an emergency shall submit to the ATC facility manager a detailed report of that emergency within _________ hours.
- A.
  
  8
- B.
  
  24
- C.
  
  48
- D.
  
  72
Correct Answer
C. 48

Explanation
In the event of an emergency, a pilot who is granted priority by ATC is required to submit a detailed report of the emergency within 48 hours to the ATC facility manager. This report allows for a thorough understanding of the emergency situation, helps identify any potential issues or improvements in the ATC system, and ensures that appropriate actions can be taken to prevent similar emergencies in the future.

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49.

Routes or altitudes specifically for helicopters are prescribed by ________.
- A.
  
  The controlling agency
- B.
  
  Airport management
- C.
  
  The Administrator
- D.
  
  A Letter of Agreement
Correct Answer
C. The Administrator

Explanation
The Administrator, in this context, refers to the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) which is responsible for regulating and overseeing aviation activities in the United States. As helicopters are considered aircraft, the FAA has the authority to prescribe specific routes or altitudes for their operations. This ensures the safe and efficient movement of helicopters and helps prevent conflicts with other aircraft or airspace users.

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50.

Aircraft approaching to land should circle the airport to the___________.
- A.
  
  Right
- B.
  
  Left
- C.
  
  North
- D.
  
  South
Correct Answer
B. Left

Explanation
When an aircraft is approaching to land, it should circle the airport to the left. This is because most airports have a standard traffic pattern for landing, which involves making left turns. By circling to the left, the aircraft can align itself with the runway and enter the traffic pattern in a safe and orderly manner. Additionally, circling to the left allows the pilot to have better visibility of the airport and other aircraft in the vicinity, reducing the risk of collisions.

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Current Version
Mar 22, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Oct 22, 2016

Quiz Created by
55mhaig

CCT ATC Cto 16008

The word "shall" means a procedure is _______.

Procedural Letters of Agreement are _______ to JO 7110.65.

When used in conjunction with visibility, "miles" refers to ______ miles; otherwise, "miles" means ________ miles.

The word "altitude" refers to the indicated altitude expressed in mean sea level, _______, or both.

Unless requested by the pilot, do NOT issue a downwind takeoff to helicopters if the tailwind exceeds ______ knots

A nonapproach control tower may be authorized to provide visual separation between two aircraft within a(n) _______ area.

Authorize simultaneous helicopter landings and takeoffs if the landing/takeoff points are at least 200 feet apart and __________.

Simultaneous opposite direction aircraft operations on parallel runways between sunset and sunrise are NOT authorized unless runway centerlines are separated by a minimum of _______ feet.

Departing IFR civil aircraft should be instructed to contact departure control after takeoff about ______ mile(s) beyond the end of the runway.

If a low-level wind shear/microburst alert is received, issue the _______ and the displayed field boundary wind.

When a low-level wind shear/microburst is reported by pilots or detected by LLWAS, the statement "LOW LEVEL WIND SHEAR ADVISORIES IN EFFECT" must be included on the ATIS broadcast for ______ minutes.

Skill requirements for operating positions in a control tower include the passing of a(n) ________ test.

An endorsement that an applicant has met the requirements to control air traffic at a facility is called a(n) ________.

Land and Hold Short Operations must only be conducted _________.

A provision for conducting a simultaneous operation on intersecting runways is that both aircraft involved must be issued ______.

The term "high key" relates to a(n) ________ approach.

What factor should be considered when determining which runways are to be designated as "active" runways?

Before issuing a clearance to aircraft that will transit another facility's surface area, coordinate with the appropriate _______.

Identify a primary radar beacon target by observing the target make an identifying turn of ______ degrees or more.

When issuing traffic to radar-identified aircraft, state the azimuth and distance from the aircraft and the _________.

What term describes a physical or automated action taken to transfer the radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another if the aircraft will enter the receiving controller's airspace and radio communications with the aircraft will NOT be transferred?

Radar separation shall be applied between the _______ of beacon control slashes.

Except where it is NOT operationally feasible, interfacility and intrafacility transfers of _______ must be accomplished in all areas of radar surveillance.

The minimum requirement for vertical separation between an IFR aircraft and a Special VFR aircraft is that the Special VFR aircraft be assigned an altitude at least _______ any conflicting IFR traffic.

Local controllers must visually scan runways _______.

Special VFR aircraft are NOT assigned fixed altitudes because of the _______.

Unless required fro message content, the duration of an ATIS message should NOT exceed ________ seconds.

The sequence for departure under gate hold procedures must be maintained in accordance with _______ unless modified by flow control restrictions.

What term describes the position that is in direct communication with aircraft and ensures the separation of aircraft in the area of jurisdiction?

The light system arranged to provide vertical visual approach slope guidance information during the approach to a runway is ______.

Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) shall be operated when the visibility is less than _____ mile(s) and instrument approaches are being made to the runway served by the associated ALS.

What is the phraseology used to issue RVR information?

The runway edge lights for the runway-in-use shall be turned on whenever the associated _______ lights are on.

Determining which runways are to be designated as "active" is a primary responsibility of the ________.

What terminal radar service provides, in addition to basic radar service, sequencing of all IFR and participating VFR aircraft to the primary airport and separation between all participating VFR aircraft?

Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSAs) are solely established to define airspace within which ______ service will be provided.

The position relief briefing process involves _______ separate and distinct steps.

When basic radar service is being provided, an aircraft sighted by the local controller at the time of first radio contact may be positioned in the landing sequence after _________.

Issue radar advisories to flight inspection aircraft where adequate coverage exists and to the extent permitted by ___________.

When issuing advisories on bird activity, include the position, species or size (if known), direction of flight, and __________.

The ordered listing of items to be covered during a position relief briefing is called the _______.

Do NOT ask a flight check aircraft to deviate from the pilot's planned action except to preclude a(n) ________ situation.

A designated STOL runway may be assigned only when requested by the pilot or as specified in a __________.

NO person may fly in formation if the aircraft is carrying ____________.

Aerobatic flight may NOT be conducted below _________ feet AGL.

Speed restrictions do NOT apply if the prescribed speed is lower than the _________ of an aircraft.

The maximum allowable airspeed for an aircraft below 10,000 feet is _______ knots.

If requested, a pilot who is granted priority by ATC in an emergency shall submit to the ATC facility manager a detailed report of that emergency within _________ hours.

Routes or altitudes specifically for helicopters are prescribed by ________.

Aircraft approaching to land should circle the airport to the___________.

When used in conjunction with visibility, "miles" refers to miles; otherwise, "miles" means __ miles.