Construction Documents Technology Exam: Quiz!

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 5,970

Questions: 124 | Attempts: 5,970 | Updated: Oct 22, 2024

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Construction Documents Technology Exam: Quiz! - Quiz

Questions and Answers

1.

All of the following are Articles in Part 3 Execution EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  Examination
- B.
  
  Application
- C.
  
  Fabrication
- D.
  
  System Startup
Correct Answer
C. Fabrication

Explanation
In Part 3 Execution, the focus is on carrying out or implementing a plan or process. The other options listed - Examination, Application, and System Startup - all involve taking action or performing tasks related to executing a plan. However, Fabrication refers to the act of creating or constructing something, which is not directly related to the execution of a plan. Therefore, Fabrication is the correct answer as it does not fit the category of Articles in Part 3 Execution.

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2.

As a result of the widely held misconception that a contractor's responsibility for defective work lasts only for the one-year guaranty period:
- A.
  
  The supplementary conditions should state that the period last a specific additional length of time
- B.
  
  EJCDC and AIA documents state correction period instead of guaranty period
- C.
  
  The owner accepts any repairs after that date
- D.
  
  The courts relieve the contractor of his responsibility
Correct Answer
B. EJCDC and AIA documents state correction period instead of guaranty period

Explanation
The correct answer is that EJCDC and AIA documents state correction period instead of guaranty period. This means that according to these documents, the contractor's responsibility for defective work lasts for a specific period of time called the correction period, rather than a guaranty period. This indicates that the contractor is responsible for making any necessary repairs or corrections during this specified time frame.

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3.

In the specifications, the stated requirements address:
- A.
  
  The owner's responsibilities
- B.
  
  The contractor's responsibilities
- C.
  
  The subcontractor's responsibilities
- D.
  
  The architect's responsibilities
- E.
  
  All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the above

Explanation
Specifications in a construction contract are detailed documents that outline the requirements for various aspects of the project. They typically cover the responsibilities and expectations of all parties involved, including the owner, contractor, subcontractors, and architect. This ensures that everyone understands their roles and obligations, as well as the standards and materials to be used, methods of installation, and other critical details necessary for the successful completion of the project.

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4.

Drawings prepared by the contractor, subcontractor, or material/equipment supplier that show how a particular aspect of the work is to be fabricated and installed, are called:
- A.
  
  Record drawings
- B.
  
  Construction Documents
- C.
  
  Shop Drawings
- D.
  
  Details
Correct Answer
C. Shop Drawings

Explanation
Shop drawings are detailed drawings prepared by the contractor, subcontractor, or material/equipment supplier to show how a specific aspect of the work is to be fabricated and installed. These drawings provide specific information about dimensions, materials, and installation methods, helping to ensure that the work is carried out accurately and according to the design intent. Shop drawings are typically used in construction projects to coordinate and communicate between different parties involved in the construction process. They are an essential tool for ensuring the quality and accuracy of the final construction.

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5.

The correct title for Division 10 is:
- A.
  
  Accessories
- B.
  
  Specialties
- C.
  
  Equipment
- D.
  
  Special Construction
Correct Answer
B. Specialties

Explanation
The correct title for Division 10 is "Specialties" because Division 10 in construction refers to the category of specialty items and products that are not classified under other divisions. These specialty items include things like toilet accessories, partitions, fire protection equipment, and other miscellaneous construction materials that are not covered by the other divisions. Therefore, "Specialties" is the appropriate title for Division 10.

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6.

All of the following are examples of project soft costs except which one?
- A.
  
  Relocation
- B.
  
  Commissioning
- C.
  
  Due diligence studies
- D.
  
  Design fees
- E.
  
  Topographical surveys
Correct Answer
E. TopograpHical surveys

Explanation
Soft costs refer to expenses that are not directly associated with the physical construction of a project. Relocation, commissioning, due diligence studies, and design fees are all examples of soft costs as they involve activities and services related to planning, coordination, and management of a project. However, topographical surveys are not considered soft costs because they are directly related to the physical aspects of a project, specifically the analysis and mapping of the land's surface features.

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7.

The following are the types of clauses that might be included in Supplementary Conditions EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  Project insurance requirements
- B.
  
  Liquidated damage amounts
- C.
  
  Tax exempt status of owner
- D.
  
  Submittal requirements
Correct Answer
D. Submittal requirements

Explanation
The given answer is "Submittal requirements". This is because submittal requirements are not a type of clause that would typically be included in Supplementary Conditions. Supplementary Conditions usually include clauses related to project insurance requirements, liquidated damage amounts, and the tax exempt status of the owner. Submittal requirements, on the other hand, are typically included in the General Conditions or in separate submittal documents.

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8.

True or False: There is no difference between the construction schedule and the project schedule.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
The statement is false because there is a difference between the construction schedule and the project schedule. The construction schedule specifically focuses on the timeline and activities related to the construction phase of a project, while the project schedule encompasses the entire project from start to finish, including planning, design, procurement, construction, and closeout. The project schedule is a broader and more comprehensive document that includes all the necessary tasks and milestones for the successful completion of the project, while the construction schedule is a subset of the project schedule that only pertains to the construction activities.

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9.

All of the following activities are associated with the project conception stage except which one?
- A.
  
  Predesign
- B.
  
  Planning
- C.
  
  Commissioning
- D.
  
  Programming
Correct Answer
C. Commissioning

Explanation
The project conception stage involves activities such as predesign, planning, and programming. Predesign refers to the initial phase of gathering information and conducting feasibility studies. Planning involves creating a roadmap and determining the resources required for the project. Programming involves defining the project's objectives and requirements. Commissioning, on the other hand, is associated with the project's implementation and refers to the process of ensuring that all systems and components are installed, tested, and functioning correctly. Therefore, commissioning is not typically associated with the project conception stage.

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10.

Integrated projects are distinguished by all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  Trust-based collaboration between project team members
- B.
  
  Maximized efficiency through design, fabrication, and construction
- C.
  
  "Just as needed" team involvement to reduce owner's pre-construction expenses
- D.
  
  Compensation structures supporting early engagement of team members in design and project planning
- E.
  
  Development of virtual project model through input from a collaborative team
Correct Answer
C. "Just as needed" team involvement to reduce owner's pre-construction expenses

Explanation
This answer is correct because all of the other characteristics mentioned (trust-based collaboration, maximized efficiency, compensation structures supporting early engagement, and development of virtual project model) are distinguishing features of integrated projects. However, "just as needed" team involvement to reduce owner's pre-construction expenses does not necessarily align with the collaborative and integrated nature of these projects.

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11.

Facility managers should perform a postoccupancy evaluation how long after initial occupancy?
- A.
  
  Three months
- B.
  
  Three to six months
- C.
  
  Six to nine months
- D.
  
  Just before the one-year correction period completion
Correct Answer
B. Three to six months

Explanation
Performing a postoccupancy evaluation three to six months after initial occupancy allows facility managers to gather sufficient data and feedback on the facility's performance and functionality. This timeframe allows occupants to settle into the space and identify any issues or areas for improvement. It also provides enough time for any initial problems to be addressed and resolved before conducting the evaluation. Performing the evaluation at this point ensures that any necessary adjustments can be made early on, leading to a more efficient and effective facility in the long run.

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12.

True or False: Zoning is an example of a land development regulation.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Zoning is indeed an example of a land development regulation. It refers to the process of dividing land into different zones or areas with specific regulations and restrictions regarding land use, building heights, density, and other factors. Zoning aims to promote orderly and efficient land development, protect property values, and ensure compatibility between different land uses within a community. It is commonly used by local governments to control and guide the growth and development of cities and towns.

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13.

Objectives of a good maintenance program include all of the following except which one?
- A.
  
  Minimize interruptions that affect the facility’s function and use
- B.
  
  Minimize failures of equipment and facility structures that affect productivity
- C.
  
  Select the best repair and replacement methods and materials
- D.
  
  Implement effective energy conservation practices
Correct Answer
D. Implement effective energy conservation practices

Explanation
While implementing effective energy conservation practices is important, it is not directly related to the primary objectives of a good maintenance program. The main objectives typically focus on minimizing interruptions, failures of equipment, and facility structures that affect productivity, and selecting the best repair and replacement methods and materials. Energy conservation, while beneficial, is more aligned with operational efficiency and sustainability initiatives rather than core maintenance goals.

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14.

True or False: As a project proceeds through the project delivery process (time), the ability to influence the cost is high at the beginning, but decreases as the project advances through the various stages.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
As a project progresses through the project delivery process, the ability to influence the cost is high at the beginning but decreases as the project advances through the various stages. This is because during the initial stages, there is more flexibility to make changes and adjustments that can impact the cost. However, as the project moves forward and more resources and activities are committed, the options for cost control become more limited. Therefore, it is important to address cost considerations early in the project to maximize the ability to influence and manage costs effectively.

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15.

All of the following are AIA Instruments of Change EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  Change Order
- B.
  
  Architect's Supplemental Instruction
- C.
  
  Field Order
- D.
  
  Construction Change Directive
Correct Answer
C. Field Order

Explanation
The given question asks for an exception among the listed options, which are AIA Instruments of Change. A Field Order is not considered an AIA Instrument of Change.

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16.

True or False: Record drawings and project manual provide adequate record documentation.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
Record drawings and project manuals do not provide adequate record documentation. While record drawings may provide visual documentation of the project, they may not capture all the necessary details and information. On the other hand, project manuals typically contain instructions and specifications for the project but may not include comprehensive documentation of the actual construction process. Therefore, additional documentation such as daily logs, progress reports, and change orders may be required to provide a more complete record of the project.

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17.

If the construction budget of a 50,000 square foot project is $5,000,000 based on $100 per square foot, it is an example of which method of preparing the budget?
- A.
  
  Unit price
- B.
  
  Cost per measured unit
- C.
  
  Systems
- D.
  
  Component cost
Correct Answer
B. Cost per measured unit

Explanation
The given scenario of a construction budget for a 50,000 square foot project being calculated based on $100 per square foot indicates the use of the "Cost per measured unit" method. In this method, the budget is prepared by determining the cost of each measured unit (in this case, the cost per square foot) and multiplying it by the quantity required (in this case, the total square footage of the project).

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18.

Reference Drawings serve which purpose:
- A.
  
  Show existing work that is to be modified
- B.
  
  Show construction related to the work, but which is not included in the contract
- C.
  
  Provide the Owner with a set of documents that will facilitat
- D.
  
  Bidding is open to any bidder demonstrating the financial ability to perform the work
Correct Answer
B. Show construction related to the work, but which is not included in the contract

Explanation
Reference drawings serve the purpose of showing construction related to the work, but which is not included in the contract. These drawings provide additional information about the project that may be helpful for understanding the context of the work being done. They can include details about existing structures or elements that are not directly part of the contract but are relevant to the project. These drawings help ensure that all parties involved have a comprehensive understanding of the scope of work.

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19.

Resource materials should be:
- A.
  
  Should be permanently retained and accessible
- B.
  
  Should be filed for safe keeping until the end of the correction period
- C.
  
  Should be given to the contractor with the release of retainage
- D.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Should be permanently retained and accessible

Explanation
Resource materials should be permanently retained and accessible in order to ensure that they can be easily accessed and referred to whenever needed. This is important for various reasons such as future reference, auditing purposes, or in case any issues arise that require reviewing the materials. By retaining and making them accessible, it ensures that the necessary information and documentation are readily available, promoting efficiency and effectiveness in managing the resources.

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20.

Experienced owners may require project teams to utilize integrated project delivery based upon:
- A.
  
  Previous negative experience with adversarial project team relationships
- B.
  
  Desire for reduction in project claims and disputes
- C.
  
  Desire to utilize collaboratively-produced BIM as a facilities management asset
- D.
  
  Expectation of benefit from innovation stemming from collaborative effort
- E.
  
  All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the above

Explanation
Experienced owners may require project teams to utilize integrated project delivery for several reasons. Firstly, they may have had previous negative experiences with adversarial project team relationships, and integrating the team can help improve communication and collaboration. Secondly, they may desire a reduction in project claims and disputes, which can be achieved through a more collaborative approach. Additionally, they may want to utilize collaboratively-produced Building Information Modeling (BIM) as a facilities management asset, as it can provide valuable information for the long-term maintenance of the project. Lastly, they may expect to benefit from innovation stemming from the collaborative effort of the team. Therefore, all of the given reasons can be valid explanations for why experienced owners may require integrated project delivery.

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21.

Which is true concerning MasterFormat?
- A.
  
  It is used to establish the proper location of information within the sixteen divisions
- B.
  
  It contains a complete listing of topics covered in each division
- C.
  
  It contains a key word index
- D.
  
  All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above

Explanation
MasterFormat is a standardized system used in the construction industry to organize and classify information related to construction projects. It is used to establish the proper location of information within the sixteen divisions, which helps in efficient communication and coordination among various stakeholders. Additionally, it contains a complete listing of topics covered in each division, ensuring that all aspects of a project are properly addressed. Furthermore, MasterFormat includes a keyword index, making it easier to locate specific information. Therefore, all the given statements about MasterFormat are true.

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22.

The mood that is recommended for specifications is:
- A.
  
  The imperative mood
- B.
  
  The indicative mood
- C.
  
  The symbolic mood
- D.
  
  The conflicting mood
Correct Answer
A. The imperative mood

Explanation
The imperative mood is recommended for specifications because it is a grammatical mood that expresses commands, requests, or instructions. Specifications typically provide detailed instructions or requirements for a particular task or project, and using the imperative mood helps to convey these instructions clearly and directly. It creates a sense of authority and urgency, making it easier for the reader to understand and follow the specifications accurately.

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23.

The parties to an owner/design-builder contract are::
- A.
  
  The Owner, the designer, and the builder.
- B.
  
  The Owner, the Architect, and the Contractor
- C.
  
  The Owner and the construction manager
- D.
  
  The Owner and the design-builder
Correct Answer
D. The Owner and the design-builder

Explanation
In an owner/design-builder contract, the parties involved are the owner and the design-builder. This means that the owner of the project and the entity responsible for both the design and construction of the project are the main parties in this type of contract. The owner/design-builder contract allows for a more streamlined and integrated approach to the project, as the design and construction aspects are handled by a single entity. This can lead to greater efficiency and cost savings for the owner. The other options provided in the question do not accurately represent the parties involved in an owner/design-builder contract.

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24.

All of the following subjects are usually included in Supplementary Conditions EXCEPT
- A.
  
  Insurance requirements
- B.
  
  Liquidated damages
- C.
  
  Tax exempt status of Owner
- D.
  
  Submittal requirements
Correct Answer
D. Submittal requirements

Explanation
Supplementary conditions are additional contract provisions that modify or supplement the general conditions of a construction contract. They typically address specific project requirements or conditions. Insurance requirements, liquidated damages, and tax exempt status of the owner are all common subjects that may be included in supplementary conditions. However, submittal requirements are not typically included in supplementary conditions. Submittal requirements are usually addressed in the contract documents or project specifications, rather than in supplementary conditions.

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25.

Under the AIA A201 and EJCDC C-700, who provides property insurance covering the Work?
- A.
  
  Contractor's surety
- B.
  
  Owner
- C.
  
  Contractor
- D.
  
  Financing agency
- E.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Owner

Explanation
According to the AIA A201 and EJCDC C-700, the owner is responsible for providing property insurance covering the work. This means that the owner is responsible for insuring the property during the construction process. The contractor's surety, contractor, financing agency, or any other party mentioned in the options is not responsible for providing this insurance.

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26.

Which of the following is TRUE concerning application of integrated project delivery?
- A.
  
  Collaborative team effort reduces planning and design expenses.
- B.
  
  Determination of liability for decisions is generally made by the team leader in order to reduce arbitration expenses.
- C.
  
  Technologies such as data exchange protocols evolve on a phase-by-phase basis.
- D.
  
  Team culture based upon problem resolution rather than determination of liability.
Correct Answer
D. Team culture based upon problem resolution rather than determination of liability.

Explanation
The correct answer is team culture based upon problem resolution rather than determination of liability. This means that in integrated project delivery, the focus is on resolving issues and finding solutions rather than assigning blame or determining who is at fault. This promotes a collaborative and cooperative atmosphere where the team works together to overcome challenges and achieve the project's goals. This approach helps to reduce conflicts and arbitration expenses, as the team is more focused on problem-solving rather than engaging in legal disputes.

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27.

All of the following are articles in PART 1, GENERAL EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  References
- B.
  
  Submittals
- C.
  
  Source Quality Control
- D.
  
  Sequencing and Scheduling
Correct Answer
C. Source Quality Control
28.

Since he or she is most familiar with a product, the manufacturer's representative should:
- A.
  
  Write the specification section.
- B.
  
  Review the specification section.
- C.
  
  Supply information to the specification writer.
- D.
  
  Not be consulted in order to avoid a conflict of interest.
Correct Answer
C. Supply information to the specification writer.

Explanation
The manufacturer's representative should supply information to the specification writer because they have the most familiarity with the product. They can provide the necessary details and technical information that the specification writer may need to accurately describe the product in the specification section. This ensures that the specifications are accurate and meet the requirements of the product. Consulting the manufacturer's representative helps in avoiding any conflict of interest and ensures that the specification section is well-informed and comprehensive.

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29.

The following are true of reference standards, EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  May be relied upon by the specifier to describe quality of work
- B.
  
  Are consensus documents developed by various industry committees
- C.
  
  Are frequently incorporated in code requirements
- D.
  
  Are included in specifications to avoid having to reproduce lengthy requirements
Correct Answer
A. May be relied upon by the specifier to describe quality of work

Explanation
Reference standards are documents that provide guidelines and specifications for various aspects of work. They are consensus documents developed by industry committees and are frequently incorporated into code requirements. They are included in specifications to avoid the need to reproduce lengthy requirements. However, reference standards are not meant to be relied upon by the specifier to describe the quality of work. The quality of work is typically described by other means, such as performance specifications or quality control measures.

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30.

Which bond protects the owner from losing the benefit of an accepted bid?
- A.
  
  Maintenance bond
- B.
  
  Payment bond
- C.
  
  Bid bond
- D.
  
  Performance bond
Correct Answer
C. Bid bond

Explanation
A bid bond is a type of surety bond that protects the owner from financial loss if the bidder fails to fulfill their obligations after being awarded the contract. It ensures that the bidder will enter into a contract and provide the required performance and payment bonds if their bid is accepted. In other words, it guarantees that the owner will not lose the benefit of the accepted bid if the bidder backs out or fails to meet their contractual obligations.

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31.

True or False: The EPA’s definition of a green building covers all three primary aspects of the built environment, siting, design and construction.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
The EPA's definition of a green building does not cover all three primary aspects of the built environment, siting, design, and construction. The correct answer is False.

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32.

Use of master guide specifications:
- A.
  
  Relies upon the quality of their update process
- B.
  
  Requires knowledge of the conditions of the contract for which they were prepared
- C.
  
  May be based upon a commercially-produced specification library
- D.
  
  Requires practice knowledge in order to properly create project specifications
- E.
  
  All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the above

Explanation
The use of master guide specifications encompasses all of the given statements. The quality of the update process is crucial as it ensures that the specifications are up to date and accurate. Knowledge of the contract conditions is necessary to tailor the specifications accordingly. Utilizing a commercially-produced specification library can provide a standardized and comprehensive approach. Lastly, practice knowledge is required to effectively create project specifications that meet the specific requirements and standards. Therefore, all of the above statements are valid explanations for the correct answer.

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33.

The following are TRUE concerning CSI's GreenFormat online product data resource EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  CSI validates and certifies information contained in GreenFormat.
- B.
  
  GreenFormat product information is organized by MasterFormat numbers.
- C.
  
  Information in GreenFormat supports specifying by proprietary, reference standard, performance, and descriptive methods.
- D.
  
  The Product Lifecycle category provides information on product Life Cycle Analysis, Material Extraction and Transportation, Manufacturing, and Facility Operations.
- E.
  
  Manufacturers provide a technical contact for followup questions from GreenFormat users.
Correct Answer
A. CSI validates and certifies information contained in GreenFormat.

Explanation
CSI does not validate and certify information contained in GreenFormat.

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34.

Which of the following is the proper sequence for an Addendum as illustrated in the PDPG?
- A.
  
  Changes to Procurement Requirements, changes to previous Addenda, Changes to Conditions of the Contract, changes to the Agreement.
- B.
  
  Changes to previous Addenda, changes to Procurement Requirements, changes to Agreements and other contract forms,changes to specifications and drawings
- C.
  
  Changes to Specifications, changes to Drawings, changes to previous Addenda.
- D.
  
  Contract documents, changes to specifications
Correct Answer
B. Changes to previous Addenda, changes to Procurement Requirements, changes to Agreements and other contract forms,changes to specifications and drawings

Explanation
The proper sequence for an Addendum as illustrated in the PDPG is to first make changes to previous Addenda, then make changes to Procurement Requirements, followed by changes to Agreements and other contract forms, and finally make changes to specifications and drawings. This sequence ensures that any changes to previous addenda are addressed first, followed by changes to procurement requirements, and then changes to the agreement and other contract forms. Finally, any changes to specifications and drawings are made.

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35.

The following are TRUE about closed proprietary specifications EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  Manufacturer and product brand names or unique characteristics are used in the specifications.
- B.
  
  Several products may be named as options.
- C.
  
  The A/E must coordinate the named product with other specification requirements.
- D.
  
  Other products are allowed as substitutions upon approval of the owner.
Correct Answer
D. Other products are allowed as substitutions upon approval of the owner.

Explanation
Closed proprietary specifications refer to specifications that specify a particular manufacturer's product or brand name. These specifications typically include unique characteristics or features of the product. The A/E (architect/engineer) is responsible for coordinating the named product with other specification requirements. While multiple products may be named as options, closed proprietary specifications do not allow for substitutions without the owner's approval. Therefore, the correct answer is "Other products are allowed as substitutions upon approval of the owner."

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36.

The Design Stage includes all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  Review of owner's program, schedule and budget
- B.
  
  Design Development
- C.
  
  Schematic Design
- D.
  
  Project Conception
Correct Answer
D. Project Conception

Explanation
The Design Stage includes activities such as reviewing the owner's program, schedule, and budget, as well as developing the design and creating schematic designs. However, it does not include Project Conception. Project Conception refers to the initial idea or concept for the project, which typically takes place before the Design Stage begins.

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37.

What information is found within Division 13 in the MasterFormat System?
- A.
  
  Mechanical Systems
- B.
  
  Furnishings
- C.
  
  Equipment
- D.
  
  Special Construction
Correct Answer
D. Special Construction

Explanation
Division 13 in the MasterFormat System contains information about Special Construction. This division includes any unique or specialized construction elements that do not fit within the other divisions. It covers items such as pre-engineered buildings, swimming pools, domes, and other non-standard construction methods or materials.

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38.

Green buildings are designed to reduce the overall impact of the built environment on human health and the natural environment by:
- A.
  
  Efficiently using energy, water and other resources
- B.
  
  Protecting occupant health and improving employee productivity
- C.
  
  Reducing waste, pollution and environmental degradation during construction
- D.
  
  A and B only
- E.
  
  A and C only
Correct Answer
D. A and B only

Explanation
Green buildings are designed to reduce the overall impact of the built environment on human health and the natural environment. This is achieved by efficiently using energy, water, and other resources, as well as protecting occupant health and improving employee productivity. The option "A and B only" correctly identifies the measures taken in green buildings to achieve these goals. Option "A and C only" is incorrect because it does not include the aspect of protecting occupant health and improving employee productivity, which is an important component of green building design.

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39.

Which of the following items should not be included in Section 01110?
- A.
  
  Owner-furnished items of work
- B.
  
  Site traffic regulating during construction
- C.
  
  Sequence of work and Owner occupancy
- D.
  
  Contractors use of site
Correct Answer
B. Site traffic regulating during construction

Explanation
In Section 01110, which typically covers general requirements for the project, site traffic regulating during construction should not be included. This section usually focuses on the owner's responsibilities, contractor's responsibilities, and general project requirements. Site traffic regulation is typically covered under a separate section or specification that specifically addresses traffic control and safety measures during construction.

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40.

The following are all advantages gained by using standard agreement forms EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  Parties' familiarity with the forms
- B.
  
  Uniformity of terminology
- C.
  
  Legal precedents interpreting the documents
- D.
  
  Accommodate choice from a wide variety of standard contract conditions
- E.
  
  Recognized customs resulting from longtime use
Correct Answer
D. Accommodate choice from a wide variety of standard contract conditions

Explanation
Standard agreement forms do not accommodate choice from a wide variety of standard contract conditions. Instead, they offer a set of predetermined terms and conditions that parties can use without making significant changes. The other advantages mentioned in the options are all benefits of using standard agreement forms. Parties' familiarity with the forms helps streamline the negotiation process, uniformity of terminology ensures clarity and consistency, legal precedents provide guidance on interpreting the documents, and recognized customs result from the longstanding use of these forms.

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41.

The Supplementary Conditions must be carefully coordinated with all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  General Conditions
- B.
  
  Bidding Requirements
- C.
  
  Owner Contractor Agreement
- D.
  
  Owner/Architect Agreement
Correct Answer
D. Owner/Architect Agreement

Explanation
The Supplementary Conditions must be carefully coordinated with the General Conditions, Bidding Requirements, and Owner-Contractor Agreement. The Owner/Architect Agreement, however, does not need to be coordinated with the Supplementary Conditions. This is because the Owner/Architect Agreement primarily governs the relationship between the owner and the architect, whereas the Supplementary Conditions focus on additional project-specific requirements and conditions that supplement the main contract documents. Therefore, the Owner/Architect Agreement is not directly related to the coordination of the Supplementary Conditions.

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42.

Which of the following is NOT defined as a contract modification by the PDPG?
- A.
  
  Change Order
- B.
  
  Construction Change Directive/ Work Change Directive
- C.
  
  Addendum
- D.
  
  Architect's Supplemental Instruction/Field Order
Correct Answer
C. Addendum

Explanation
The PDPG defines a contract modification as a Change Order, Construction Change Directive/ Work Change Directive, and Architect's Supplemental Instruction/Field Order. However, it does not define an Addendum as a contract modification. Therefore, the correct answer is Addendum.

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43.

The document named "Available Information" is part of the:
- A.
  
  Instructions to Bidders
- B.
  
  Contract Documents
- C.
  
  Specifications
- D.
  
  Procurement Requirements
- E.
  
  All of the above
Correct Answer
D. Procurement Requirements

Explanation
The document named "Available Information" is part of the Procurement Requirements. This document provides information that is relevant to the procurement process, such as details about the project, the bidding process, and any specific requirements that bidders need to meet. It is separate from the Instructions to Bidders, Contract Documents, and Specifications, which may contain different types of information related to the project. Therefore, the correct answer is Procurement Requirements.

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0
1
44.

The Invitation to Bid/Advertisement for Bid includes all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  Right to reject bids and governing laws and regulations
- B.
  
  Bid opening date, time and location
- C.
  
  Details concerning bid security requirements
- D.
  
  Multiple prime contracts
Correct Answer
C. Details concerning bid security requirements

Explanation
The Invitation to Bid/Advertisement for Bid includes all of the listed options except for "Details concerning bid security requirements." This means that the bid document will contain information about the right to reject bids and the governing laws and regulations, the bid opening date, time, and location, as well as the possibility of multiple prime contracts. However, it will not provide specific details about the bid security requirements.

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1
1
45.

The purpose of an objective needs assessment is to:
- A.
  
  Test and validate goals
- B.
  
  Determine space requirements
- C.
  
  Document expected performance levels
- D.
  
  Confirm the budget
- E.
  
  Prioritize needs vs. wants
- F.
  
  B and C above
- G.
  
  All of the above
- H.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
G. All of the above

Explanation
An objective needs assessment serves multiple purposes. It helps in testing and validating goals by assessing the current state and identifying the gaps. It also helps determine the space requirements by analyzing the resources and facilities needed. Additionally, it documents the expected performance levels to ensure that the goals are met. It confirms the budget by evaluating the financial resources available. Lastly, it prioritizes needs vs. wants to ensure that the most essential requirements are addressed first. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above".

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46.

An information organizing framework for the design and construction industry that assigns built environment data into 15 discrete, coordinated tables to facilitate the organization of project information and databases is known as:
- A.
  
  Industry foundation classes (IFCs)
- B.
  
  OmniClass
- C.
  
  Building information model (BIM)
- D.
  
  Building information management (BIM)
Correct Answer
B. OmniClass

Explanation
OmniClass is an information organizing framework for the design and construction industry that categorizes built environment data into 15 coordinated tables. These tables help in organizing project information and databases efficiently. It provides a standardized system for classifying and organizing information related to construction projects, making it easier for professionals in the industry to communicate and collaborate effectively. OmniClass is widely used in the industry as a classification system and is recognized for its ability to streamline project management and improve data interoperability.

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47.

An alternate becomes part of the contract documents:
- A.
  
  When the bids are opened
- B.
  
  When owner makes his or her decision to accept
- C.
  
  On A/E's recommendation
- D.
  
  When stipulated in the Owner/Contractor Agreement.
Correct Answer
D. When stipulated in the Owner/Contractor Agreement.

Explanation
The correct answer is "When stipulated in the Owner/Contractor Agreement." This means that an alternate becomes part of the contract documents only if it is specifically mentioned and outlined in the agreement between the owner and the contractor. The other options, such as when bids are opened or when the owner makes a decision, may be important steps in the process but do not guarantee that the alternate will be included in the contract. The recommendation of the architect/engineer (A/E) may also be considered, but ultimately it is the agreement between the owner and contractor that determines whether the alternate becomes part of the contract.

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48.

According to the BEES model, life cycle analysis (LCA) is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  Questions regarding the materials and impacts related to the six stages of the product life cycle
- B.
  
  Estimates of the cumulative environmental impacts resulting from all stages of a product life cycle over a 50-year period
- C.
  
  Support for selection of products with the lowest total environmental impact
- D.
  
  Market analysis of demand for sustainable products
Correct Answer
D. Market analysis of demand for sustainable products

Explanation
The BEES model focuses on providing estimates of the cumulative environmental impacts resulting from all stages of a product life cycle over a 50-year period. It also supports the selection of products with the lowest total environmental impact by considering questions regarding the materials and impacts related to the six stages of the product life cycle. However, it does not specifically address market analysis of demand for sustainable products.

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49.

Bidding Requirements:
- A.
  
  Are not enforceable during administration of contract
- B.
  
  Should not repeat Division 1
- C.
  
  Should be referenced to the General Conditions
- D.
  
  Bear no relationship to the Contract Documents
- E.
  
  Both A and B
Correct Answer
E. Both A and B

Explanation
The correct answer is "Both A and B". This means that bidding requirements are not enforceable during the administration of the contract and they should not repeat Division 1. This suggests that the bidding requirements are separate from the contract administration and should not be repeated in the contract documents.

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50.

True or False: The OmniClass construction specification system is based on the International Organization for Standards (ISO).
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
The statement is true. The OmniClass construction specification system is indeed based on the International Organization for Standards (ISO). This means that the system follows the guidelines and standards set by ISO, ensuring consistency and compatibility with other international standards.

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Current Version
Oct 22, 2024

Quiz Edited by
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Oct 24, 2016

Quiz Created by
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Construction Documents Technology Exam: Quiz!

All of the following are Articles in Part 3 Execution EXCEPT:

As a result of the widely held misconception that a contractor's responsibility for defective work lasts only for the one-year guaranty period:

In the specifications, the stated requirements address:

Drawings prepared by the contractor, subcontractor, or material/equipment supplier that show how a particular aspect of the work is to be fabricated and installed, are called:

The correct title for Division 10 is:

All of the following are examples of project soft costs except which one?

The following are the types of clauses that might be included in Supplementary Conditions EXCEPT:

True or False: There is no difference between the construction schedule and the project schedule.

All of the following activities are associated with the project conception stage except which one?

Integrated projects are distinguished by all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

Facility managers should perform a postoccupancy evaluation how long after initial occupancy?

True or False: Zoning is an example of a land development regulation.

Objectives of a good maintenance program include all of the following except which one?

True or False: As a project proceeds through the project delivery process (time), the ability to influence the cost is high at the beginning, but decreases as the project advances through the various stages.

All of the following are AIA Instruments of Change EXCEPT:

True or False: Record drawings and project manual provide adequate record documentation.

If the construction budget of a 50,000 square foot project is $5,000,000 based on $100 per square foot, it is an example of which method of preparing the budget?

Reference Drawings serve which purpose:

Resource materials should be:

Experienced owners may require project teams to utilize integrated project delivery based upon:

Which is true concerning MasterFormat?

The mood that is recommended for specifications is:

The parties to an owner/design-builder contract are::

All of the following subjects are usually included in Supplementary Conditions EXCEPT

Under the AIA A201 and EJCDC C-700, who provides property insurance covering the Work?

Which of the following is TRUE concerning application of integrated project delivery?

All of the following are articles in PART 1, GENERAL EXCEPT:

Since he or she is most familiar with a product, the manufacturer's representative should:

The following are true of reference standards, EXCEPT:

Which bond protects the owner from losing the benefit of an accepted bid?

True or False: The EPA’s definition of a green building covers all three primary aspects of the built environment, siting, design and construction.

Use of master guide specifications:

The following are TRUE concerning CSI's GreenFormat online product data resource EXCEPT:

Which of the following is the proper sequence for an Addendum as illustrated in the PDPG?

The following are TRUE about closed proprietary specifications EXCEPT:

The Design Stage includes all of the following EXCEPT:

What information is found within Division 13 in the MasterFormat System?

Green buildings are designed to reduce the overall impact of the built environment on human health and the natural environment by:

Which of the following items should not be included in Section 01110?

The following are all advantages gained by using standard agreement forms EXCEPT:

The Supplementary Conditions must be carefully coordinated with all of the following EXCEPT:

Which of the following is NOT defined as a contract modification by the PDPG?

The document named "Available Information" is part of the:

The Invitation to Bid/Advertisement for Bid includes all of the following EXCEPT:

The purpose of an objective needs assessment is to:

An information organizing framework for the design and construction industry that assigns built environment data into 15 discrete, coordinated tables to facilitate the organization of project information and databases is known as:

An alternate becomes part of the contract documents:

According to the BEES model, life cycle analysis (LCA) is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

Bidding Requirements:

True or False: The OmniClass construction specification system is based on the International Organization for Standards (ISO).