Secfo Journeyman Vol. 4
(47).webp "Secfo Journeyman Vol. 4 - Quiz")
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
What analytical process is used to achieve integrated defense?
- A.
ID Threat Risk
- B.
ID Principles of Risk
- C.
ID Risk Management
- D.
ID Principles of Critical
Correct Answer
C. ID Risk ManagementExplanation
The correct answer is ID Risk Management. Integrated defense refers to the process of combining various security measures and strategies to protect an organization's assets from potential threats. ID Risk Management involves identifying and assessing potential risks, implementing controls and mitigation strategies, monitoring and evaluating the effectiveness of these measures, and continuously improving the organization's defense capabilities. This process ensures a comprehensive and coordinated approach to managing risks and safeguarding the organization's assets.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Who must review the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency?
- A.
Staff Judge Advocate
- B.
Installation Commander
- C.
Defense Force Commander
- D.
Air Force Office of Investigations
Correct Answer
A. Staff Judge AdvocateExplanation
The Staff Judge Advocate is responsible for reviewing the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency. They are legally trained and provide legal advice to the Installation Commander. They ensure that all procedures and protocols are in compliance with the law and meet the necessary legal requirements.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The first step in risk analysis is asset
- A.
Risk assessment
- B.
Threat assessment
- C.
Criticality assessment
- D.
Vulnerability assessment
Correct Answer
C. Criticality assessmentExplanation
The first step in risk analysis is criticality assessment. This involves identifying and evaluating the critical assets within an organization or system. By assessing the criticality of assets, organizations can prioritize their risk management efforts and allocate resources accordingly. Criticality assessment helps in determining the potential impact of a risk event on the organization's operations, reputation, and overall objectives. It allows organizations to focus on protecting the most important assets and mitigating risks effectively.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Through which agency will the BDOC up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents?
- A.
Site security control.
- B.
Security Forces.
- C.
Higher headquarters.
- D.
Installation command post.
Correct Answer
A. Site security control.Explanation
The BDOC (Base Defense Operations Center) is responsible for monitoring and responding to security incidents on the site. Therefore, it is logical that the up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents would be reported to the Site security control, as they are the agency in charge of site security.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon component is an example of a nuclear weapon
- A.
Accident
- B.
Incident
- C.
Mistake
- D.
Mishap
Correct Answer
A. AccidentExplanation
The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon component can be classified as an accident because it implies an unintentional and unexpected event. It suggests that the action of discarding the weapon was not planned or intended, but rather occurred due to an unforeseen circumstance or malfunction. This categorization as an accident indicates that it was not a deliberate act or part of any planned operation, but rather an unintended occurrence with potentially severe consequences.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What does the color yellow indicate when calling in a LACE report?
- A.
Less than 33 percent available
- B.
Less than 66 percent available
- C.
Greater than 33 percent available
- D.
Greater than 66 percent available
Correct Answer
C. Greater than 33 percent availableExplanation
The color yellow in a LACE report indicates that more than 33 percent of something is available.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Personnel assigned to the Priority II priority category should be evacuated within how many hours?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
B. 4Explanation
Personnel assigned to the Priority II priority category should be evacuated within 4 hours. This means that these individuals are at a higher level of risk and need to be evacuated more urgently than those in lower priority categories. Evacuating them within 4 hours ensures their safety and reduces the potential for harm or further danger.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?
- A.
6
- B.
12
- C.
18
- D.
24
Correct Answer
D. 24Explanation
Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that they are not in immediate danger and can be safely evacuated within a day. Evacuating them within this time frame ensures their safety and allows for proper planning and coordination of resources.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who must approve each installation localized integrated defense plan (IDP)?
- A.
SJA
- B.
Installation Commander
- C.
Defense Force Commander
- D.
Air Force Office of Investigation
Correct Answer
B. Installation CommanderExplanation
The installation commander is responsible for approving each installation localized integrated defense plan (IDP). As the highest-ranking officer on the installation, the commander has the authority and knowledge to evaluate and approve the plan. They are familiar with the specific needs and requirements of the installation and can ensure that the plan aligns with the overall defense strategy. The commander's approval is crucial to ensure that the IDP is implemented effectively and in line with the installation's objectives and priorities.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Who determines what posts are not staffed during funding or personnel shortages?
- A.
Flight Chief
- B.
Operations Officer
- C.
Flight Commander
- D.
Defense Force Commander
Correct Answer
D. Defense Force CommanderExplanation
The Defense Force Commander is responsible for determining what posts are not staffed during funding or personnel shortages. As the highest-ranking officer in the defense force, they have the authority to make decisions regarding staffing and resource allocation. They would take into account the available funding and personnel resources to determine which posts can be left unfilled during shortages.Rate this question:
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- 11.
How many days are the majority of security forces unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing without support?
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
20
Correct Answer
A. 5Explanation
The majority of security forces unit type codes (UTC) are capable of existing without support for 5 days.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?
- A.
Standoff
- B.
Penetration
- C.
Chemical, biological
- D.
Information operation
Correct Answer
B. PenetrationExplanation
Penetration attacks involve an insider threat. This type of attack occurs when someone with authorized access to an organization's systems or information intentionally misuses their privileges to gain unauthorized access or cause harm. Insiders may exploit their knowledge of the system's vulnerabilities to bypass security measures, steal sensitive data, or disrupt operations. Therefore, penetration attacks are a significant concern for organizations as they involve individuals who already have access to critical resources and can cause significant damage if their actions go undetected.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?
- A.
Department of State
- B.
Department of Justice
- C.
Department of Defense
- D.
Federal Bureau of Investigation
Correct Answer
A. Department of StateExplanation
The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US because it is responsible for coordinating and implementing the country's foreign policy. As part of its role, the Department of State works closely with other countries and international organizations to address and respond to terrorist threats and incidents that occur abroad. This includes sharing intelligence, providing support to affected countries, and coordinating efforts to prevent future attacks. The Department of State's primary focus on diplomacy and international relations makes it the appropriate agency to lead in addressing terrorist incidents outside the US.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as a state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology?
- A.
Activity
- B.
Intentions
- C.
Operational capability
- D.
Operational environment
Correct Answer
C. Operational capabilityExplanation
Operational capability focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology. This factor assesses the group's ability to carry out attacks successfully and the resources available to them. It takes into consideration their access to weapons, training, funding, and technological expertise. By evaluating the operational capability, security agencies can better understand the potential threat posed by a terrorist group and devise appropriate countermeasures.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What type of supporters do not actually commit violent acts but assist the terrorists by providing money, intelligence, legal or medical services?
- A.
Passive Supporter
- B.
Active Supporters
- C.
Hardcore Leadership
- D.
Active operational cadre
Correct Answer
B. Active SupportersExplanation
Active Supporters are individuals who do not directly engage in violent acts but provide assistance to terrorists through means such as financial support, intelligence gathering, legal aid, or medical services. They play a crucial role in enabling terrorist activities by providing necessary resources and support. Unlike Active operational cadre who directly participate in violent acts, Active Supporters contribute indirectly to the terrorist cause. Hardcore Leadership refers to individuals who hold influential positions within terrorist organizations and play a key role in planning and executing attacks.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?
- A.
Significant
- B.
Moderate
- C.
High
- D.
Low
Correct Answer
A. SignificantExplanation
The threat level assessment of "Significant" indicates that anti-US terrorists are operationally active and prefer to carry out large casualty-producing attacks. This suggests that there is a high risk of such attacks occurring, posing a significant threat to the safety and security of the United States.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as a state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology?
- A.
Activity
- B.
Intentions
- C.
Operational capability
- D.
Operational environment
Correct Answer
C. Operational capabilityExplanation
Operational capability refers to the level of skill, resources, and expertise possessed by a terrorist group to carry out attacks. This factor focuses on the attack methods used by the group and their ability to enhance effectiveness through measures such as state sponsorship and the ingenious use of technology. It assesses the group's capacity to plan, coordinate, and execute attacks successfully, taking into account their access to weapons, training, funding, and support networks. By considering the operational capability of a terrorist group, analysts can gauge the potential impact and scale of their attacks.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What threat level is considered a peacetime threat and increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities?
- A.
Threat Level I
- B.
Threat Level II
- C.
Threat Level III
- D.
Threat Level IV
Correct Answer
A. Threat Level IExplanation
Threat Level I is considered a peacetime threat and increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What threat level consists of guerilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units?
- A.
Threat Level I
- B.
Threat Level II
- C.
Threat Level III
- D.
Threat Level IV
Correct Answer
B. Threat Level IIExplanation
Threat Level II consists of guerilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units. This threat level indicates a higher level of danger as it involves more organized and skilled adversaries who employ unconventional tactics. These forces are capable of launching surprise attacks and carrying out asymmetric warfare, posing a significant threat to security and stability.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What Desired Effect is achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television?
- A.
Anticipate
- B.
Deter
- C.
Detect
- D.
Warn
Correct Answer
C. DetectExplanation
Lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television collectively contribute to the detection of potential threats or unauthorized activities. These measures are designed to identify any suspicious behavior or security breaches that may occur. By implementing these systems, organizations can quickly identify and respond to any potential risks, ensuring the safety and security of their premises and assets.Rate this question:
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- 21.
How many random antiterrorism measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) are required daily?
- A.
At least one
- B.
At least two
- C.
At least three
- D.
At least four
Correct Answer
C. At least threeExplanation
At least three random antiterrorism measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) are required daily to ensure adequate security and protection against potential terrorist threats. This means that a minimum of three measures should be implemented each day to enhance safety and minimize the risk of terrorist activities.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What Desired Effect is achieved through threat-and-effects-based planning that integrate all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan, ensuring friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming and use of force?
- A.
Warn
- B.
Defeat
- C.
Delay
- D.
Defend
Correct Answer
D. DefendExplanation
The desired effect achieved through threat-and-effects-based planning that integrates all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan, ensuring they are trained and qualified on arming and use of force, is to defend. This type of planning allows for a coordinated and unified defense against potential threats by utilizing all available resources and ensuring that friendly forces are prepared to effectively respond and protect themselves.Rate this question:
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- 23.
How long has the US military been called upon to defeat insurgencies?
- A.
Less than one century
- B.
Less than two centuries
- C.
Within the last 50 years
- D.
More than two centuries
Correct Answer
D. More than two centuriesExplanation
The correct answer is "More than two centuries." This is because the US military has been involved in defeating insurgencies for over 200 years. From the early days of the American Revolution to recent conflicts in Iraq and Afghanistan, the US military has faced various insurgencies and has been called upon to counter them. This demonstrates a long history of dealing with insurgent threats and adapting military strategies to combat them.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What must units develop about the area of responsibility (AOR) to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, and terrain?
- A.
Insurgency picture
- B.
Counterinsurgency picture
- C.
Common Operating Picture
- D.
Operational Environment Picture
Correct Answer
C. Common Operating PictureExplanation
Units must develop a common operating picture about the area of responsibility (AOR) to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, and terrain. This means that they need to have a comprehensive understanding of these factors in order to effectively operate in the AOR. By developing a common operating picture, units can ensure that all personnel have the same knowledge and awareness, enabling them to make informed decisions and adapt their strategies accordingly. This understanding of the AOR's religious customs, local leaders, culture, and terrain is crucial for successful operations and building relationships with the local population.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What will insurgents resort to if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them?
- A.
Bribery
- B.
Coercion
- C.
Persuasion
- D.
Encouragement
Correct Answer
B. CoercionExplanation
Insurgents will resort to coercion if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them. Coercion refers to the use of force or threats to intimidate or manipulate others into complying with their demands. In situations where persuasion or encouragement fails to gain the desired cooperation, insurgents may turn to coercion as a means to achieve their objectives. This can involve various forms of violence, intimidation, or blackmail to compel locals into supporting or not obstructing their activities.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Joint doctrine defines a nongovernmental organization (NGO) as a
- A.
Government supported, self-governing, not-for-profit organization
- B.
Government supported, self-governing, for profit organization
- C.
Private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization
- D.
Private, self-governing, for profit organization
Correct Answer
C. Private, self-governing, not-for-profit organizationExplanation
A nongovernmental organization (NGO) is defined as a private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization. This means that NGOs are independent entities that are not controlled by the government and operate on their own. They are also not driven by profit motives but rather focus on providing services or addressing social issues for the betterment of society.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What type of agency is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?
- A.
Multinational corporation
- B.
Governmental organization
- C.
Host nation security council
- D.
Intergovernmental organization
Correct Answer
D. Intergovernmental organizationExplanation
An intergovernmental organization is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments. It is a type of agency that facilitates cooperation and coordination among member states on various issues of common interest, such as economic development, security, or environmental protection. Examples of intergovernmental organizations include the United Nations, World Bank, and European Union. These organizations provide a platform for member states to discuss and address global challenges collectively, promoting international cooperation and diplomacy.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world?
- A.
United Nations
- B.
World Health Organization
- C.
North Atlantic Treaty Organization
- D.
International Refugee Organization
Correct Answer
A. United NationsExplanation
The United Nations is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world because it is a global organization that promotes international cooperation and addresses global issues such as peace and security, human rights, and sustainable development. It has a wide membership of countries and plays a crucial role in maintaining peace and stability, coordinating humanitarian efforts, and facilitating dialogue among nations. The United Nations is recognized as the foremost global organization and its impact and influence on global affairs make it the most notable IGO.Rate this question:
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- 29.
To avoid adverse effect on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US
- A.
Senators
- B.
Governors
- C.
Ambassador
- D.
Congressman
Correct Answer
C. AmbassadorExplanation
To avoid any negative impact on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the ambassador. The ambassador represents the highest diplomatic authority of a country and is responsible for handling diplomatic relations and negotiations with other nations. By involving the ambassador, commanders can ensure that sovereignty issues are properly addressed and resolved in a diplomatic and official manner, maintaining good relations between countries and minimizing any potential disruption to operations.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key
- A.
Terrain issues
- B.
Logistical issues
- C.
Sovereignty issues
- D.
Transportation issues
Correct Answer
C. Sovereignty issuesExplanation
The given correct answer is "sovereignty issues". Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all locations that involve the movement of goods, people, or military personnel across borders or territories. These locations are subject to the jurisdiction and control of the respective countries or regions they are located in. Therefore, the issue of sovereignty arises as these countries or regions assert their authority over these ports and crossings, ensuring that their laws, regulations, and policies are followed.Rate this question:
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- 31.
If countries do not use the English alphabet, a combatant command-wide standard for spelling names should be set by the
- A.
Defense force commander
- B.
Non-DoD agencies
- C.
Local commander
- D.
DOD agencies
Correct Answer
B. Non-DoD agenciesExplanation
In situations where countries do not use the English alphabet, it would be impractical for the defense force commander or DOD agencies to set a combatant command-wide standard for spelling names. This is because they may not have the necessary knowledge or expertise in the local language or alphabet. Therefore, it would be more appropriate for non-DoD agencies, who are likely to have a better understanding of the local language and culture, to set the standard for spelling names in such cases.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Who primarily uses alternate fighting positions?
- A.
Sniper
- B.
Rifleman
- C.
Grenadier
- D.
Crew-served weapons operator
Correct Answer
D. Crew-served weapons operatorExplanation
Crew-served weapons operators primarily use alternate fighting positions. This is because crew-served weapons, such as heavy machine guns or mortars, require a team of operators to effectively operate them. These weapons are usually heavy and require stability and precision to aim and fire accurately. Alternate fighting positions allow the crew-served weapons operators to take cover and engage the enemy from different locations, providing them with better tactical advantage and reducing the risk of being easily targeted by the enemy.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What illusion does the ground sloping upward method of range determination give to the observer?
- A.
Greater distance
- B.
Shorter distance
- C.
Equal distance
- D.
Real distance
Correct Answer
A. Greater distanceExplanation
The ground sloping upward method of range determination gives the illusion of a greater distance to the observer. This means that when the ground appears to slope upward, objects may appear farther away than they actually are. This can be misleading for the observer, as it may cause them to underestimate the actual distance to the objects in question.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility, leaders establish en route rally points every 100 to
- A.
500 meters
- B.
400 meters
- C.
300 meters
- D.
200 meters
Correct Answer
B. 400 metersExplanation
Leaders establish en route rally points every 400 meters based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility. This distance allows for efficient navigation and communication between units while providing sufficient opportunities for rest and regrouping. Rally points serve as checkpoints where leaders can reassess the situation, ensure the safety and accountability of their troops, and make any necessary adjustments to the mission plan. By establishing rally points every 400 meters, leaders can maintain control and cohesion within their units during movement.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which organization normally assigns graphic control measures?
- A.
Flight
- B.
Squadron
- C.
Command post
- D.
Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)
Correct Answer
D. Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)Explanation
The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) is responsible for assigning graphic control measures. This organization is specifically tasked with coordinating and managing the defense and security operations of a military base. As part of their duties, they establish and enforce measures to control and regulate the movement of personnel, vehicles, and equipment within the base. This includes assigning graphic control measures, such as signage, barriers, and markings, to ensure the orderly and safe flow of traffic and operations on the base.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What type of fire control measures do security forces (SF) flight leaders or subordinate leaders use a means to control their defenders?
- A.
Direct
- B.
Indirect
- C.
Sustained
- D.
Suppressive
Correct Answer
A. DirectExplanation
Security forces flight leaders or subordinate leaders use direct fire control measures to control their defenders. Direct fire control measures involve the use of direct fire weapons, such as rifles or handguns, to engage and eliminate threats in a precise and targeted manner. This allows the leaders to have immediate control over their defenders and respond quickly to any threats or situations that may arise. Indirect fire control measures, on the other hand, involve the use of artillery or mortars to engage targets from a distance. Sustained fire control measures involve continuous and prolonged firing, while suppressive fire control measures aim to suppress the enemy's ability to engage effectively.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What is the most common means of giving fire commands?
- A.
Sound
- B.
Visual signals
- C.
Airman-initiated
- D.
Radio communications
Correct Answer
B. Visual signalsExplanation
Visual signals are the most common means of giving fire commands because they can be easily understood and followed by individuals in various situations. Visual signals, such as hand signals or flags, can be seen from a distance and are effective in conveying instructions to a group of people. They are particularly useful in situations where other forms of communication, such as sound or radio communications, may not be practical or reliable. Additionally, visual signals can be used in noisy or chaotic environments where verbal instructions may not be heard or understood.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What is your first course of action when caught in an assault?
- A.
Throw hand grenades
- B.
Look for the enemy and return fire
- C.
Immediately return fire and assault the enemy
- D.
Immediately return fire and take a covered position
Correct Answer
D. Immediately return fire and take a covered positionExplanation
When caught in an assault, the first course of action should be to immediately return fire and take a covered position. This response is the most logical and effective way to protect oneself and gain an advantage in the situation. By returning fire, it can deter the attacker and potentially neutralize the threat. Taking a covered position ensures that the individual is shielded from further harm and allows for better assessment of the situation and potential next steps.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Machine gunners fire at groups of five or more targets when in the
- A.
Secondary sector from farthest to closest
- B.
Secondary sector from closest to farthest
- C.
Primary sector from closest to farthest
- D.
Primary sector from farthest to closest
Correct Answer
A. Secondary sector from farthest to closestExplanation
In a military context, machine gunners strategically fire at groups of five or more targets in a specific sector. The correct answer states that they fire in the secondary sector from farthest to closest. This means that they prioritize shooting at targets that are farthest away and then gradually move towards targets that are closer. This approach allows them to effectively engage multiple targets and potentially suppress enemy forces by targeting those who pose the greatest threat from a distance before dealing with those in closer proximity.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid?
- A.
Sound
- B.
Movement
- C.
Regularity of outline
- D.
Contrast with the background
Correct Answer
D. Contrast with the backgroundExplanation
Contrast with the background is among the most difficult target indicator for the enemy to avoid because it makes the target stand out and be easily distinguishable from its surroundings. When there is a high contrast between the target and the background, it becomes harder for the enemy to blend in or camouflage themselves effectively. This makes it easier for the enemy to spot and engage the target, increasing the chances of detection and potential harm to the enemy.Rate this question:
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- 41.
When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is
- A.
Spacing
- B.
Aiming point
- C.
Reference point
- D.
Range determination
Correct Answer
B. Aiming pointExplanation
The more effective means of delivering accurate fire is the aiming point. This is because when marking targets, having a specific point to aim at helps to focus the shooter's attention and improve their accuracy. By aiming at a specific point, the shooter can ensure that their shots are directed towards a specific target, increasing the chances of hitting it accurately. In contrast, spacing, reference point, and range determination are important factors in target acquisition and engagement, but they do not directly contribute to the accuracy of fire delivery.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of
- A.
Air
- B.
Light
- C.
Terrain
- D.
Atmospheric pressure
Correct Answer
B. LightExplanation
The performance of the AN/PVS-14 depends on the level of light. This means that the device's effectiveness and capabilities are influenced by the amount of light available in the environment. In low-light conditions, the AN/PVS-14 will likely perform better compared to situations with bright or excessive light. The device is designed to enhance visibility and provide clear images in low-light scenarios, making light a crucial factor in determining its performance.Rate this question:
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- 43.
On the AN/PVS- 14 monocular night vision device (MNVD), what component enables the operator to see the azimuth readings in the monocular?
- A.
Compass
- B.
Tethering cord
- C.
De-mist shield
- D.
Sacrificial window
Correct Answer
A. CompassExplanation
The correct answer is compass. The compass component on the AN/PVS-14 monocular night vision device enables the operator to see the azimuth readings in the monocular. The compass provides the operator with the direction or bearing, allowing them to navigate and orient themselves in low-light or dark environments. This feature is crucial for military personnel or individuals who rely on night vision devices for navigation and situational awareness.Rate this question:
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- 44.
How should pre-combat inspections be tailored?
- A.
Location
- B.
Weather conditions
- C.
Number of personnel assigned
- D.
Specific unit and mission requirements
Correct Answer
D. Specific unit and mission requirementsExplanation
Pre-combat inspections should be tailored based on specific unit and mission requirements. This means that the inspections should be customized to meet the unique needs and objectives of the particular unit and mission at hand. Factors such as location, weather conditions, and number of personnel assigned may also be taken into consideration, but the primary focus should be on the specific unit and mission requirements to ensure that the inspections are effective and relevant.Rate this question:
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- 45.
When should security forces (SF) perform checks of their individual issued items?
- A.
Daily
- B.
Weekly
- C.
Bi-monthly
- D.
Monthly
Correct Answer
A. DailyExplanation
Security forces should perform checks of their individual issued items daily to ensure that all equipment is present, in working order, and ready for use. Daily checks help identify any missing or malfunctioning items, allowing for timely replacements or repairs. Regular inspections also promote accountability and readiness within the security forces, ensuring that they are prepared to respond effectively to any security threats or emergencies.Rate this question:
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- 46.
In tactical deployment situations, what movement technique do you use when speed is required and you cannot use the rushing technique?
- A.
Roll
- B.
High Crawl
- C.
Low Crawl
- D.
Spider Crawl
Correct Answer
B. High CrawlExplanation
In tactical deployment situations, when speed is required but the rushing technique cannot be used, the high crawl movement technique is employed. The high crawl involves moving forward by keeping the body off the ground, supporting the weight on the hands and knees, and moving one limb at a time. This technique allows for a faster movement while still maintaining a low profile and minimizing the risk of being detected or targeted by the enemy. The high crawl is a commonly used movement technique in military and tactical situations.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Selection of team movement techniques is based on
- A.
The ability of the team leader to control the team
- B.
Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed
- C.
Patrol objectives
- D.
The enemy threat
Correct Answer
B. Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speedExplanation
The selection of team movement techniques is based on the likelihood of enemy contact and the need for speed. This means that the team leader needs to assess the probability of encountering the enemy and determine the urgency or requirement for quick movement. By considering these factors, the team can choose the appropriate movement technique that allows them to maintain control, minimize the risk of enemy engagement, and achieve their patrol objectives efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which fire team movement is the primary formation used by a fire team?
- A.
File
- B.
Wedge
- C.
Bounding
- D.
Traveling
Correct Answer
B. WedgeExplanation
The primary formation used by a fire team is the wedge formation. In this formation, the team members are arranged in a V shape, with the team leader at the front and the other members fanning out to the sides and rear. The wedge formation allows for good visibility and firepower in multiple directions, while also providing flexibility and maneuverability for the team. It is commonly used in offensive and defensive operations, as well as during movement in open terrain.Rate this question:
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- 49.
When is the bounding overwatch movement technique used?
- A.
When speed is essential
- B.
When enemy contact is expected
- C.
When enemy contact is not likely
- D.
During dense vegetation or limited visibility
Correct Answer
B. When enemy contact is expectedExplanation
The bounding overwatch movement technique is used when enemy contact is expected. This technique involves one element of a unit providing covering fire while the other element moves forward in order to maintain constant pressure on the enemy. By using this technique, the unit can effectively engage the enemy while minimizing their own vulnerability.Rate this question:
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- 50.
During bounding overwatch the bounding team should not move more than how many meters forward of the overwatching team?
- A.
50
- B.
100
- C.
150
- D.
200
Correct Answer
C. 150Explanation
During bounding overwatch, the bounding team should not move more than 150 meters forward of the overwatching team. This is to ensure that the bounding team stays within a reasonable distance for support and protection from the overwatching team. Moving too far ahead may leave the bounding team vulnerable to enemy attacks and reduce the effectiveness of the overwatching team in providing cover and assistance.Rate this question:
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Jan 22, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Oct 30, 2016Quiz Created by
Jon.proiet6
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