Cyberspace Support Journeyman - CDC Z3dx5x Volume 1

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 104

Questions: 81 | Attempts: 104 | Updated: Feb 29, 2024

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Cyberspace Support Journeyman - CDC Z3dx5x Volume 1 - Quiz

Support to the Cyberspace Mission Z3DX5X 01 1512, Edit Code 02 AFSC 3DX5X

Questions and Answers

1.

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-site, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
- A.
  
  Spectrum Operations
- B.
  
  Ground Radar Systems
- C.
  
  Cable and Antenna Systems
- D.
  
  Radio Frequency Transmission
Correct Answer
D. Radio Frequency Transmission

Explanation
Section 001, Pg 1-4

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2.

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
- A.
  
  Spectrum Operations
- B.
  
  Ground Radar Systems
- C.
  
  Cable and Antenna Systems
- D.
  
  Radio Frequency Transmission
Correct Answer
C. Cable and Antenna Systems

Explanation
Section 001, Pg 1-4

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3.

Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAM) AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program?
- A.
  
  Core task
- B.
  
  Duty Competency
- C.
  
  Core Competency
- D.
  
  Duty position task
Correct Answer
D. Duty position task

Explanation
Section 002, Pg 1-4

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4.

Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- A.
  
  Unit Training Manager (UTM)
- B.
  
  Base Functional Manager (BFM)
- C.
  
  Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
- D.
  
  Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

Explanation
Section 003, Pg 1-10

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5.

Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
- A.
  
  Unit Training Manager (UTM)
- B.
  
  Base Functional Manager (BFM)
- C.
  
  Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
- D.
  
  Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

Explanation
Section 003, Pg 1-10

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6.

Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?
- A.
  
  Unit Training Manager (UTM)
- B.
  
  Base Functional Manager (BFM)
- C.
  
  Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
- D.
  
  Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
C. Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

Explanation
Section 003, Pg 1-10

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7.

Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
- A.
  
  Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
- B.
  
  Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
- C.
  
  Unit Training Manager (UTM)
- D.
  
  Base Functional Manager (BFM)
Correct Answer
A. Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

Explanation
Section 003, Pg 1-10

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8.

What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
- A.
  
  Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
- B.
  
  Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
- C.
  
  Unit Training Manager (UTM)
- D.
  
  Base Functional Manager (BFM)
Correct Answer
D. Base Functional Manager (BFM)

Explanation
Section 003, Pg 1-10

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9.

Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?
- A.
  
  Modify local training
- B.
  
  Allocate manpower
- C.
  
  Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)
- D.
  
  Assist the unit training manager in course development
Correct Answer
C. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)

Explanation
Section 004, Pg 1-11

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10.

What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
  
  Conduct climate training surveys
- B.
  
  Develop Career Development Courses
- C.
  
  Review the occupational analysis report
- D.
  
  Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
Correct Answer
A. Conduct climate training surveys

Explanation
Section 004, Pg 1-11

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11.

Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
- A.
  
  Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM)
- B.
  
  Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the SME
- C.
  
  MFM in conjunction with the Subject Matter Expert (SME)
- D.
  
  AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM
Correct Answer
D. AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM

Explanation
Section 004, Pg 1-11

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12.

What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
- A.
  
  Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
- B.
  
  Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS)
- C.
  
  On-the-Job Training (OJT) Program
- D.
  
  Occupational Analysis Program
Correct Answer
C. On-the-Job Training (OJT) Program

Explanation
Section 005, Pg 1-12

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13.

Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- A.
  
  Quality Assessments
- B.
  
  Quality Assurance
- C.
  
  Quality System
- D.
  
  Trend Analysis
Correct Answer
B. Quality Assurance

Explanation
Section 006, Pg 1-13

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14.

Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- A.
  
  Technical Evaluation
- B.
  
  Personnel Evaluation
- C.
  
  Managerial Evaluation
- D.
  
  Standard Evaluation
Correct Answer
D. Standard Evaluation

Explanation
Section 006, Pg 1-13

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15.

What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?
- A.
  
  Management Inspection (MI)
- B.
  
  Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)
- C.
  
  Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI)
- D.
  
  Commander's Inspection Program (CCIP)
Correct Answer
B. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)

Explanation
Section 007, Pg 1-15

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16.

Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?
- A.
  
  Trend Analysis
- B.
  
  Quality System
- C.
  
  Quality Assessments
- D.
  
  Managerial Assessments
Correct Answer
A. Trend Analysis

Explanation
Section 006, Pg 1-13

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17.

What automated information system manages the entire life-cycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
- A.
  
  Remedy
- B.
  
  Training Business Area
- C.
  
  Telephone Management System
- D.
  
  Integrated Maintenance Data System
Correct Answer
A. Remedy

Explanation
Section 008, Pg 1-17

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18.

What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force and Marine Corps?
- A.
  
  Title 10
- B.
  
  Title 18
- C.
  
  Title 32
- D.
  
  Title 50
Correct Answer
A. Title 10

Explanation
Section 009, Pg 2-1

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19.

The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
- A.
  
  Title 3
- B.
  
  Title 8
- C.
  
  Title 10
- D.
  
  Title 18
Correct Answer
C. Title 10

Explanation
Section 009, Pg 2-2

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20.

What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?
- A.
  
  National Military Cyberspace Strategy
- B.
  
  National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
- C.
  
  National Military Strategy for Cyberspace
- D.
  
  National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
Correct Answer
B. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

Explanation
Section 10, Pg 2-4

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21.

Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?
- A.
  
  National Security Policy
- B.
  
  National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
- C.
  
  Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative
- D.
  
  National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations
Correct Answer
B. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

Explanation
Section 010, Pg 2-4

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22.

What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?
- A.
  
  National Security Policy
- B.
  
  National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
- C.
  
  Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative
- D.
  
  National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations
Correct Answer
D. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations

Explanation
Section 010, Pg 2-4

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23.

When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
- A.
  
  Title 10
- B.
  
  Title 30
- C.
  
  Title 50
- D.
  
  Title 52
Correct Answer
A. Title 10

Explanation
Section 010, Pg 2-5

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24.

An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as
- A.
  
  Misuse of position.
- B.
  
  Covered relationships.
- C.
  
  Non-public information.
- D.
  
  Personal conflict of interest.
Correct Answer
A. Misuse of position.

Explanation
Section 10, Pg 2-6

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25.

Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?
- A.
  
  Misuse of Position
- B.
  
  Covered Relationship
- C.
  
  Personal Conflict of Interest
- D.
  
  None, this is not an example of an unethical situation
Correct Answer
B. Covered Relationship

Explanation
Section 10, Pg 2-6

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26.

What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?
- A.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
- B.
  
  Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- C.
  
  Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- D.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Explanation
Section 011, Pg 2-8

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27.

What cyberspace weapons system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?
- A.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
- B.
  
  Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- C.
  
  Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- D.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Explanation
Section 011, Pg 2-8

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28.

What cyberspace weapons system is the top-level boundary and entry point in the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?
- A.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
- B.
  
  Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- C.
  
  Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- D.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

Explanation
Section 011, Pg 2-8

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29.

Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?
- A.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
- B.
  
  Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- C.
  
  Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- D.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

Explanation
Section 011, Pg 2-8

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30.

What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?
- A.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
- B.
  
  Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- C.
  
  Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- D.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

Explanation
Section 011, Pg 2-9

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31.

What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?
- A.
  
  Cyberspace Vunerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System
- B.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- C.
  
  Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System
- D.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System
Correct Answer
A. Cyberspace Vunerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System

Explanation
Section 011, Pg 2-10

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32.

What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?
- A.
  
  Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force
- B.
  
  Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force
- C.
  
  Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force
- D.
  
  Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force

Explanation
Section 012, Pg 2-12

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33.

What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion?
- A.
  
  Active and Reactive
- B.
  
  Evasive and Decisive
- C.
  
  Subversive and Divisive
- D.
  
  Offensive and Defensive
Correct Answer
A. Active and Reactive

Explanation
Section 012, Pg 2-13

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34.

Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?
- A.
  
  Counterintelligence (CI)
- B.
  
  Operation Security (OPSEC)
- C.
  
  Military Deception (MILDEC)
- D.
  
  Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR)
Correct Answer
C. Military Deception (MILDEC)

Explanation
Section 012, Pg 2-14

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35.

What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?
- A.
  
  Strategic Considerations
- B.
  
  Military Strategic Framework
- C.
  
  Implementation and Assessment
- D.
  
  Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance
Correct Answer
D. Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance

Explanation
Section 013, Pg 2-16

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36.

Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?
- A.
  
  Defense Industrial Base (DIB)
- B.
  
  Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)
- C.
  
  National Reconnaissance Office (NRO)
- D.
  
  Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
Correct Answer
D. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

Explanation
Section 013, Pg 2-17

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37.

What unit installs, reconstitute and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?
- A.
  
  644th Combat Communication Squadron
- B.
  
  85th Engineering Installation Squadron
- C.
  
  83rd Network Operations Squadron
- D.
  
  4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing
Correct Answer
B. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron

Explanation
Section 014, Pg 2-24

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38.

Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?
- A.
  
  Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
- B.
  
  Area Processing Center (APC)
- C.
  
  Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)
- D.
  
  Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)
Correct Answer
A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

Explanation
Section 015, Pg 2-26

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39.

What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, web access and storage?
- A.
  
  Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
- B.
  
  Area Processing Center (APC)
- C.
  
  Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)
- D.
  
  Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)
Correct Answer
B. Area Processing Center (APC)

Explanation
Section 015, Pg 2-26

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40.

What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?
- A.
  
  Manpower
- B.
  
  Efficiency
- C.
  
  Reduce Cost
- D.
  
  Department of Defense 8570 mandate
Correct Answer
B. Efficiency

Explanation
The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By consolidating these centers, organizations can streamline their operations, reduce redundancies, and improve communication and collaboration. This leads to faster response times, better coordination of resources, and ultimately, more efficient service delivery.

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41.

What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?
- A.
  
  2009
- B.
  
  2010
- C.
  
  2011
- D.
  
  2012
Correct Answer
B. 2010

Explanation
Section 015, Pg 2-26

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42.

What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
- A.
  
  Subordinate unified command and geographical command
- B.
  
  Unified command and subordinate unified command
- C.
  
  Functional command and geographical command
- D.
  
  Unified command and functional command
Correct Answer
B. Unified command and subordinate unified command

Explanation
Section 016, Pg 2-30

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43.

The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a...
- A.
  
  Combined Force Air and Space Component Commander (CFAAC)
- B.
  
  Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander (JFACC)
- C.
  
  Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF)
- D.
  
  Joint Force Commander (JFC)
Correct Answer
D. Joint Force Commander (JFC)

Explanation
Section 017, Pg 2-30

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44.

What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?
- A.
  
  Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF)
- B.
  
  Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF)
- C.
  
  Unit Type Codes (UTC)
- D.
  
  Stratum Levels (SL)
Correct Answer
A. Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF)

Explanation
Section 017, Pg 2-30

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45.

What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
- A.
  
  Coding
- B.
  
  Positioning
- C.
  
  Tempo Bands
- D.
  
  Unit Type Code
Correct Answer
D. Unit Type Code

Explanation
Section 017, Pg 2-30

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46.

Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?
- A.
  
  Service Transition
- B.
  
  Service Strategy
- C.
  
  Service Contact
- D.
  
  Service Design
Correct Answer
C. Service Contact

Explanation
Section 018, Pg 3-1

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47.

What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?
- A.
  
  Continual Service Improvement
- B.
  
  Service Transition
- C.
  
  Service Strategy
- D.
  
  Service Design
Correct Answer
A. Continual Service Improvement

Explanation
Section 019, Pg 3-3

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48.

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to...
- A.
  
  Safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment.
- B.
  
  Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.
- C.
  
  Improve the effectiveness of the mission.
- D.
  
  Improve the efficiency of the mission.
Correct Answer
B. Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.

Explanation
Section 019, Pg 3-3

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49.

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?
- A.
  
  Article 32
- B.
  
  Article 40
- C.
  
  Article 92
- D.
  
  Article 100
Correct Answer
C. Article 92

Explanation
Section 019, Pg 3-4

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50.

How many rules are there for effective communications via e-mail?
- A.
  
  Two
- B.
  
  Four
- C.
  
  Six
- D.
  
  Eight
Correct Answer
C. Six

Explanation
Section 019, Pg 3-7

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Current Version
Feb 29, 2024

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Nov 01, 2016

Quiz Created by
Claro Runtal

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Cyberspace Support Journeyman - CDC Z3dx5x Volume 1

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-site, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAM) AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program?

Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

What automated information system manages the entire life-cycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force and Marine Corps?

The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

What cyberspace weapons system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

What cyberspace weapons system is the top-level boundary and entry point in the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion?

Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

What unit installs, reconstitute and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, web access and storage?

What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a...

What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to...

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

How many rules are there for effective communications via e-mail?