CDC Volume 1 UREs 2AX5X
- 1.
The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature it?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is 2%.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What is the percentage of accidents attributed to unsafe acts and physical hazards?
- A.
98
- B.
50
- C.
70
- D.
90
Correct Answer
A. 98Explanation
The correct answer is 98. This means that 98% of accidents are attributed to unsafe acts and physical hazards. This suggests that the majority of accidents occur due to human error or unsafe conditions in the environment. It highlights the importance of promoting safety practices and addressing physical hazards to prevent accidents and ensure a safe working environment.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?
- A.
Manuals, TOs, and handbooks
- B.
Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks
- C.
TOs, manuals, and CDCs
- D.
TOs, handbooks and CDCs
Correct Answer
A. Manuals, TOs, and handbooksExplanation
Maintenance procedures require the use of Manuals, TOs (Technical Orders), and handbooks. These directives provide detailed instructions and guidelines for performing maintenance tasks on various equipment and systems. Manuals contain step-by-step procedures, while TOs provide specific technical information and guidelines. Handbooks may include additional information and reference materials to support maintenance procedures. By utilizing these directives, maintenance personnel can ensure that procedures are carried out accurately and safely.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression on new Airmen?
- A.
Initial
- B.
General
- C.
Supervisor's
- D.
Sustained job safety
Correct Answer
A. InitialExplanation
Initial safety training is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression on new Airmen. This phase of training is conducted at the beginning of an individual's career and focuses on providing them with the fundamental knowledge and skills necessary to ensure their safety and the safety of others. It covers a wide range of topics, including hazard identification, emergency procedures, and personal protective equipment. By emphasizing the importance of safety from the start, initial training sets the foundation for a strong safety culture within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs if concentrations are greater than?
- A.
-2.0 percent
- B.
-1.0 percent
- C.
0.1 percent
- D.
1.0 percent
Correct Answer
C. 0.1 percentExplanation
Chemicals must be identified as carcinogens in the Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs) if their concentrations are greater than 0.1 percent. This means that if a chemical is present in a product or substance at a concentration higher than 0.1 percent, it must be labeled and identified as a carcinogen. This information is important for individuals who handle or come into contact with these chemicals, as it alerts them to the potential health risks associated with exposure to carcinogens.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by?
- A.
The US Air Force
- B.
Each MAJCOM
- C.
DOD
- D.
EPA
Correct Answer
D. EPAExplanation
The correct answer is EPA. The EPA, or Environmental Protection Agency, is responsible for publishing the Hazardous Waste Management System rules. They are the federal agency in the United States that is tasked with protecting human health and the environment. The EPA sets regulations and guidelines for the management and disposal of hazardous waste to ensure that it is handled properly and does not pose a risk to public health or the environment.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed?
- A.
30 days
- B.
60 days
- C.
90 days
- D.
120 days
Correct Answer
C. 90 daysExplanation
Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed 90 days. This time limit is established to ensure that the hazardous materials are properly managed and disposed of in a timely manner to minimize the risk of accidents, spills, or other hazards. Exceeding this limit could lead to increased danger to the environment, human health, and safety. Therefore, it is crucial to adhere to the 90-day limit for temporary storage of hazardous materials.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What affects radiation hazards?
- A.
Strength of emission, time of day and input power
- B.
Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather
- C.
Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area
- D.
Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units
Correct Answer
B. Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weatherExplanation
The answer is "Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather." These factors affect radiation hazards because the strength of emission determines the intensity of the radiation, the time of exposure determines the duration of exposure to radiation, and the weather can affect the dispersion and movement of radioactive particles.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park in an isolated location ad then?
- A.
Spray with cold water
- B.
Cool with forced air from a blower
- C.
Cool with -high-pressure compressed air
- D.
Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air
Correct Answer
D. Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient airExplanation
The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This means that the vehicle should be parked in a location where there is no immediate danger or risk of fire, and the brakes should be left to cool naturally without any external intervention. This is the safest method as it allows the heat to dissipate gradually without the risk of causing further damage or injury.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side?
- A.
15 degrees
- B.
45 degrees
- C.
65 degrees
- D.
95 degrees
Correct Answer
B. 45 degreesExplanation
The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side because the engine exhaust and turbulence cause the sound waves to propagate in a cone shape known as the "jet noise cone". This cone widens as it moves away from the engine, reaching its maximum width at approximately 45 degrees from the rear and sides of the engine. At this angle, the sound waves are spread out and have less directionality, resulting in higher noise intensity.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?
- A.
Dizziness
- B.
Emotional irritability
- C.
A feeling of emptiness
- D.
Impaired mental concentration
Correct Answer
C. A feeling of emptinessExplanation
A feeling of emptiness is not a sign of noise fatigue because it is not commonly associated with the condition. Noise fatigue typically manifests as symptoms such as dizziness, emotional irritability, and impaired mental concentration. However, a feeling of emptiness is not directly related to noise fatigue and may be indicative of other factors or conditions.Rate this question:
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- 12.
When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices?
- A.
Crew Chief
- B.
Flight engineer
- C.
Weapons personnel
- D.
Only senior personnel on special orders
Correct Answer
C. Weapons personnelExplanation
Weapons personnel are responsible for removing the safety devices associated with explosive devices when launching an aircraft containing live ammunition. This is because they have the necessary training and expertise to handle and disarm these explosives safely. The crew chief and flight engineer may have other responsibilities related to the aircraft, but the specific task of removing safety devices falls under the jurisdiction of weapons personnel. Only senior personnel on special orders may have authority over weapons personnel in certain exceptional cases.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Before moving an explosive-loaded aircraft into a hanger you must?
- A.
Install shorting plugs and clips
- B.
Install mechanical safetying devices
- C.
Remove all ammunition and explosives
- D.
Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF
Correct Answer
C. Remove all ammunition and explosivesExplanation
Before moving an explosive-loaded aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove all ammunition and explosives. This is crucial to ensure the safety of personnel and the aircraft itself. By removing these hazardous materials, the risk of accidental detonation or ignition is minimized, reducing the potential for damage or injury. It is a standard procedure followed to prevent any mishaps during the movement and storage of explosive-loaded aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 14.
All composite material-related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT?
- A.
55
- B.
457
- C.
623
- D.
1297
Correct Answer
A. 55Explanation
The correct answer is 55 because AF IMT 55 is the specific form used for documenting composite material-related safety training. This form ensures that all relevant information regarding the training is recorded and can be easily referenced and tracked. By documenting the training on AF IMT 55, it helps to ensure compliance with safety regulations and provides a record of the training for future reference and auditing purposes.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to?
- A.
Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly
- B.
Follow MAJCOM guidelines
- C.
Identify all possible sources of FOD
- D.
Educated all personnel
Correct Answer
C. Identify all possible sources of FODExplanation
In order to develop an effective FOD prevention program, it is crucial to first identify all possible sources of FOD. This step enables the organization to have a comprehensive understanding of where FOD may originate from, such as loose objects, debris, or equipment, and allows them to take appropriate measures to prevent its occurrence. By identifying all possible sources, the organization can then implement targeted strategies and procedures to minimize the risk of FOD, ensuring a safer and more efficient working environment.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Who is responsible for FOD prevention?
- A.
Logistics and operations group commanders
- B.
Immediate supervisor
- C.
Wing commander
- D.
Everyone
Correct Answer
D. EveryoneExplanation
FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention is a collective responsibility that involves everyone in an organization. It is not limited to a specific group or individual. Each person, regardless of their position or role, should actively contribute to FOD prevention efforts. This includes logistics and operations group commanders, immediate supervisors, and even the wing commander. By emphasizing that everyone is responsible, it promotes a culture of awareness and accountability to prevent FOD incidents and maintain a safe working environment.Rate this question:
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- 17.
When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest possible person authorized to clear a red X is the?
- A.
Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent
- B.
Wing vice commander
- C.
Group commander
- D.
Wing commander
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendentExplanation
The correct answer is the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. This person is responsible for overseeing maintenance operations and has the authority to clear a red X, which indicates that a tool or equipment is missing. The wing vice commander, group commander, and wing commander may have higher positions of authority, but they may not be directly involved in maintenance operations or have the specific knowledge to locate a lost tool. Therefore, they are not the lowest possible person authorized to clear a red X.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?
- A.
The FOD prevention office
- B.
The operations commander
- C.
The flight safety officer
- D.
QA
Correct Answer
D. QAExplanation
QA, or Quality Assurance, is responsible for investigating dropped objects in most units. Quality Assurance departments typically have protocols and procedures in place to ensure the safety and quality of operations. Investigating dropped objects falls under their purview as part of their responsibility to identify and address any potential hazards or issues that may compromise safety. They will likely conduct thorough investigations, gather evidence, and implement corrective measures to prevent future incidents.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the?
- A.
Red markings
- B.
Black markings
- C.
Green markings
- D.
Orange markings
Correct Answer
C. Green markingsExplanation
When the gauge needle is within the green markings, it indicates that the pressure in the fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range. This means that the pressure is neither too high nor too low, ensuring that the fire extinguisher can effectively dispense the extinguishing agent when needed. The green markings serve as a visual indicator for users to easily determine if the fire extinguisher is ready for use.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a?
- A.
15-foot radius
- B.
20-foot radius
- C.
25-foot radius
- D.
50-foot radius
Correct Answer
B. 20-foot radiusExplanation
The correct answer is 20-foot radius. This means that individuals who are not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should stay at least 20 feet away from the area. This distance is necessary to ensure their safety as nitrogen can be hazardous if mishandled or if there is a leak. By maintaining this radius, the risk of any potential accidents or injuries can be minimized.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?
- A.
Operations
- B.
The aircrew
- C.
Supervision
- D.
The ground crew
Correct Answer
B. The aircrewExplanation
The aircrew is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check. This means that it is the responsibility of the flight crew to conduct the necessary checks and inspections before takeoff. This includes ensuring that all systems are functioning properly, the aircraft is properly loaded, and all necessary documentation is in order. By conducting this preflight check, the aircrew ensures the safety and readiness of the aircraft before it takes off.Rate this question:
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- 22.
When servicing as fireguard, you position yourself even with the?
- A.
Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle inboard of the engine being started
- B.
Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle outboard of the engine being started
- C.
Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle inboard of the engine being started
- D.
Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started
Correct Answer
D. Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being startedExplanation
When servicing as fireguard, you position yourself at the nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started. This positioning allows the fireguard to have a clear view of the engine being started and be in a position to quickly respond to any potential fire or safety hazards. Being at the nose of the aircraft also ensures that the fireguard is not in the way of any moving parts or exhaust from the engine.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals?
- A.
AFI 23-106
- B.
AFI 11-218
- C.
TO 00-25-172
- D.
TO 00-25-212
Correct Answer
B. AFI 11-218Explanation
AFI 11-218 is the correct answer because it is a reference that covers internationally accepted hand signals. This document provides guidance on the use of hand signals in various situations, such as aviation operations. It outlines the standard hand signals that are recognized and used internationally, ensuring clear and effective communication between individuals in different countries or organizations.Rate this question:
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- 24.
During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?
- A.
Supervisor or vehicle operator
- B.
Supervisor or brake operator
- C.
Supervisor or wing walkers
- D.
Supervisor only
Correct Answer
D. Supervisor onlyExplanation
The correct answer is "Supervisor only". This means that only the supervisor has the authority to give the "all clear to move" order during an aircraft tow. This ensures that there is a single designated person responsible for ensuring the safety of the operation and coordinating the movement of the aircraft. The supervisor is responsible for assessing the situation, considering all factors, and making an informed decision before giving the order to move.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?
- A.
Departmental, intermediate, and field
- B.
Organizational, field, and intermediate
- C.
Organizational, intermediate, and depot
- D.
Departmental, organizational, and dept
Correct Answer
C. Organizational, intermediate, and depotExplanation
The correct answer is "Organizational, intermediate, and depot." This order represents the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in increasing capability. Organizational maintenance refers to basic repairs and routine maintenance performed at the unit level. Intermediate maintenance involves more complex repairs and maintenance tasks that are typically done at centralized facilities. Depot maintenance is the highest level of capability and involves major overhauls, repairs, and modifications performed at specialized depots. This order reflects the increasing level of expertise and resources required for each level of maintenance capability.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?
- A.
Unscheduled
- B.
Preventive
- C.
Corrective
- D.
Protective
Correct Answer
B. PreventiveExplanation
Preventive maintenance refers to the proactive and planned activities carried out to ensure that equipment is in optimal condition and ready for use when needed. It involves regular inspections, cleaning, lubrication, and replacement of parts to prevent breakdowns and minimize downtime. By identifying and addressing potential issues before they become major problems, preventive maintenance helps to extend the lifespan of equipment, improve reliability, and reduce the risk of unexpected failures. Therefore, preventive maintenance is the type of maintenance that ensures equipment is ready and available at the time of need.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Objectives of the MDD system include?
- A.
Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data
- B.
Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data
- C.
Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data
- D.
Collecting, storing and retrieving base-level data
Correct Answer
D. Collecting, storing and retrieving base-level dataExplanation
The objectives of the MDD system include collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data. This means that the system is designed to gather data, store it in a database, and make it accessible for future use. By collecting data, the system can gather information from various sources. Storing the data ensures that it is securely saved and organized in a structured manner. Lastly, retrieving the data allows users to access and use the stored information as needed. Overall, these objectives highlight the importance of efficiently managing and utilizing base-level data within the MDD system.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database?
- A.
Damage and spare items
- B.
Expires and outdated items
- C.
Recurring and repeat replacement items
- D.
Select serially controlled and time change items
Correct Answer
D. Select serially controlled and time change itemsExplanation
The configuration management subsystem ensures that select serially controlled and time change items are loaded properly into the maintenance information system database. This means that the subsystem is responsible for accurately tracking and managing items that are controlled by serial numbers or require regular time-based changes. It ensures that these items are properly recorded and updated in the database, allowing for effective maintenance and tracking of these specific items.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil?
- A.
781A
- B.
781F
- C.
781H
- D.
781J
Correct Answer
B. 781FExplanation
The AFTO 781F form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The AFTO 781 must be removed from the form binder?
- A.
Before the first flight of the day
- B.
Before each thruflight inspection
- C.
After the event number is entered into the maintenance debriefing
- D.
After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number
Correct Answer
C. After the event number is entered into the maintenance debriefingExplanation
The AFTO 781 form is a maintenance form used to record and track maintenance actions on an aircraft. It is important to remove the form from the form binder after the event number is entered into the maintenance debriefing. This ensures that the form is properly documented and accounted for, and prevents any confusion or duplication of maintenance actions. Removing the form after this step also allows for easy access and reference to the form during future inspections or maintenance actions.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO?
- A.
781G
- B.
781J
- C.
781M
- D.
781P
Correct Answer
B. 781JExplanation
The correct answer is 781J. The AFTO Form 781J is used to record engine over-temperature conditions. This form is specifically designed for recording engine-related information and abnormalities, including temperature exceedances. The other options, 781G, 781M, and 781P, are not specifically used for recording engine over-temperature conditions.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Who determines which items in the MDS specific -5 TO need historical reporting?
- A.
Base supply coordinator
- B.
Critical item liaison
- C.
Equipment liaison
- D.
Item managers
Correct Answer
D. Item managersExplanation
Item managers are responsible for determining which items in the MDS specific -5 TO need historical reporting. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the importance and relevance of each item and decide whether historical reporting is necessary. They understand the specific requirements and considerations for each item and can make informed decisions based on those factors. Item managers play a crucial role in ensuring accurate and comprehensive reporting for the MDS specific -5 TO.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the?
- A.
MAJCOM level
- B.
Wing level
- C.
Base level
- D.
Unit level
Correct Answer
D. Unit levelExplanation
The IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) is a production-oriented, automated maintenance management system that provides managers with visibility and control of resources. It allows them to efficiently manage maintenance activities, track and allocate resources, and monitor the performance of units. Therefore, the correct answer is "Unit level" as the IMDS is designed to provide visibility and control at the individual unit level.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by?
- A.
Selecting the proper NCOs for expediter duty
- B.
Selecting the correct personnel for cross-training
- C.
Helping evaluate the training for new personnel
- D.
Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training
Correct Answer
D. Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for trainingExplanation
The training management subsystem helps with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training. This means that it assists in predicting and planning the number of personnel needed for training, as well as determining the appropriate timing and scheduling of training sessions. This ensures that the training needs of the organization are met efficiently and effectively, and that the right personnel are available for training at the right time.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Where can you find a list of training courses available for your AFSC?
- A.
CFETP, Part 1
- B.
AFJQS
- C.
Command JQS
- D.
CFETP, Part 2
Correct Answer
D. CFETP, Part 2Explanation
CFETP, Part 2 is the correct answer because the CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan) is a comprehensive document that outlines the training requirements for each Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). CFETP, Part 2 specifically provides a list of training courses available for a particular AFSC, making it the most appropriate source to find a list of training courses available for your AFSC.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time?
- A.
Access to Distance Learning courseware
- B.
Access to special certification roster criteria listings
- C.
Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide
- D.
Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses
Correct Answer
D. Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statusesExplanation
The correct answer is visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. The TBA (Training Business Area) is a platform that allows Air Force personnel to have access to information regarding their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that they can easily view and track their own progress and achievements in terms of their technical skills and training. This visibility is important for both individuals and the Air Force as a whole, as it helps in assessing the readiness and capabilities of personnel.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?
- A.
Training
- B.
Aircraft
- C.
Reference
- D.
Operational
Correct Answer
C. ReferenceExplanation
The reference library does not need to maintain publication currency because its purpose is to provide a collection of resources that can be used for research and reference purposes. Unlike the training, aircraft, and operational libraries, which require up-to-date information for their specific purposes, the reference library focuses on providing a comprehensive collection of materials that may not need frequent updates.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
A. 1 -
- 39.
Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses?
- A.
Trouble
- B.
Remedy
- C.
Section 2
- D.
Probable Cause
Correct Answer
B. RemedyExplanation
The Remedy column in the TS manual provides instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses. This column is specifically designed to guide users on how to address and resolve issues or problems that may arise. It offers step-by-step instructions and provides options for potential solutions, allowing users to choose the most appropriate response based on their specific situation.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?
- A.
B-1
- B.
B-2
- C.
B-4
- D.
B-5
Correct Answer
B. B-2Explanation
The B-2 maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of these is a scissor type maintenance stand?
- A.
B-1
- B.
B-2
- C.
B-4
- D.
C-1
Correct Answer
C. B-4Explanation
The correct answer is B-4. A scissor type maintenance stand is a type of equipment used in aircraft maintenance that can be raised or lowered using a scissor-like mechanism. This type of stand is commonly used for accessing the underbelly or lower parts of an aircraft during maintenance or inspections. Option B-4 is the only option that indicates a scissor type maintenance stand.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the Model 4000 engine trailer can support?
- A.
7,000
- B.
8.000
- C.
9,000
- D.
10,000
Correct Answer
B. 8.000Explanation
The maximum load that the Model 4000 engine trailer can support is 8,000 pounds.Rate this question:
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- 43.
On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is?
- A.
10 mph
- B.
15 mph
- C.
20 mph
- D.
25 mph
Correct Answer
C. 20 mpHExplanation
The maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer on straightaways is 20 mph. This means that the trailer should not exceed this speed when being towed on a straight road. Going faster than this speed could potentially be dangerous and increase the risk of accidents or damage to the trailer. It is important to adhere to the specified maximum towing speed to ensure safety and proper functioning of the trailer.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?
- A.
Tail
- B.
Axle
- C.
Nose
- D.
Fixed-height
Correct Answer
B. AxleExplanation
The correct answer is "Axle." When changing a tire on an aircraft, an axle jack is typically used. An axle jack is designed to lift the aircraft by its landing gear axle, allowing for easy removal and replacement of the tire. This type of jack provides stability and support to safely lift the aircraft during the tire-changing process.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO form 134 is properly documented?
- A.
AGE personnel
- B.
Aircrew personnel
- C.
Shift supervisor
- D.
Everyone
Correct Answer
D. EveryoneExplanation
The AFTO Form 134 is a maintenance document used in the United States Air Force to record and track aircraft engine runs. It is a critical form that ensures proper documentation of engine performance and maintenance activities. Given its importance, it is the responsibility of everyone involved in the maintenance process, including AGE personnel (Aerospace Ground Equipment), aircrew personnel, and shift supervisors, to ensure that the AFTO form 134 is properly documented. This ensures accuracy, accountability, and compliance with maintenance protocols.Rate this question:
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- 46.
GOX high-pressure cylinders are painted?
- A.
White with a green band near the bottom
- B.
Green with a white band near the bottom
- C.
White with a green band near the top
- D.
Green with a white band near the top
Correct Answer
D. Green with a white band near the topExplanation
The correct answer is green with a white band near the top. This color scheme is used to indicate that the cylinder contains oxygen. The green color signifies that the cylinder contains a medical or breathing gas, while the white band near the top indicates that the oxygen is present in the cylinder. This color coding system helps to easily identify the contents of the cylinder and ensure proper handling and usage.Rate this question:
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- 47.
When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by?
- A.
AGE personnel only
- B.
The highest ranking person on the shift
- C.
Qualified operator only
- D.
Any person
Correct Answer
C. Qualified operator onlyExplanation
The gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer should only be operated by a qualified operator. This is important because handling gaseous nitrogen can be dangerous and requires specific knowledge and training. Allowing any person to operate the trailer could lead to accidents or mishandling of the equipment, which could have serious consequences. Therefore, it is necessary to ensure that only individuals who have the necessary qualifications and expertise operate the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What is the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC?
- A.
39
- B.
49
- C.
59
- D.
69
Correct Answer
B. 49Explanation
The correct answer is 49. This means that the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC is 49.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What is the maximum pressure that SGNSC can deliver high-pressure nitrogen?
- A.
3,000 PSI
- B.
3,500 PSI
- C.
4,400 PSI
- D.
5,200 PSI
Correct Answer
C. 4,400 PSIExplanation
The correct answer is 4,400 PSI. This means that the SGNSC (presumably a type of equipment or system) is capable of delivering high-pressure nitrogen at a maximum pressure of 4,400 PSI.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to?
- A.
200 PSI
- B.
350 PSI
- C.
3,200 PSI
- D.
3,500 PSI
Correct Answer
C. 3,200 PSIExplanation
The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to 3,200 PSI. This means that the compressor can operate within this range without any issues. Operating below or above this range may result in inefficiency or damage to the compressor.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 18, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jun 06, 2015Quiz Created by
Teenaduhon
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