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(401) The success of a good individualized newcomer treatment and orientation (INTRO) program the newcomer’s first impressions of the sponsor.is tied to
A.
The newcomer’s first impressions of the sponsor.
B.
How many times the sponsor calls the newcomer.
C.
The Airman and Family Readiness Center’s sponsor kits.
D.
How well the gaining commander speaks with the newcomer.
Correct Answer
A. The newcomer’s first impressions of the sponsor.
Explanation The success of a good individualized newcomer treatment and orientation (INTRO) program is tied to the newcomer's first impressions of the sponsor. This suggests that the initial perception and interaction between the newcomer and the sponsor play a crucial role in determining the effectiveness of the program. It implies that a positive and welcoming experience with the sponsor can greatly contribute to the success of the INTRO program in helping the newcomer settle in and adapt to their new environment.
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2.
(401) As a sponsor, what question would you not ask the newcomer?
A.
Do you need information about other services?
B.
Will your family members accompany you?
C.
What type of vehicle do you drive?
D.
Do you want a post office box?
Correct Answer
C. What type of vehicle do you drive?
Explanation As a sponsor, it is not relevant or appropriate to ask the newcomer about the type of vehicle they drive. The question is unrelated to the sponsorship role and does not provide any useful information for assisting the newcomer. Asking about other services, family members accompanying them, and the need for a post office box are all relevant and helpful questions for a sponsor to ask in order to provide appropriate support and assistance.
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3.
(401) For information about on- and off-base housing and, if the newcomer has dependents, where does the sponsor go?
A.
Airman and Family Readiness Center.
B.
Family support center.
C.
Base housing office.
D.
Lodging office.
Correct Answer
C. Base housing office.
Explanation The correct answer is the Base housing office. This is where the sponsor would go to get information about on- and off-base housing, as well as information specific to newcomers with dependents. The Airman and Family Readiness Center and Family support center may provide general support and resources for families, but they may not have specific information about housing. The lodging office is typically responsible for temporary lodging arrangements, not long-term housing options.
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4.
(402) What form is used to document a member’s active duty service commitment (ADSC) incurred due to training or a permanent change of station (PCS)?
A.
Air Force Information Management Tool (IMT) 63.
B.
AF Form 899.
C.
AF IMT 330.
D.
AF IMT 2096.
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 899.
Explanation AF Form 899 is used to document a member's active duty service commitment (ADSC) incurred due to training or a permanent change of station (PCS). This form is specifically designed for this purpose and is used to record and track the member's commitment. It provides a standardized format for documenting the ADSC and is an essential tool for managing and tracking the member's obligations.
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5.
(402) Once the member in-processes, no-fee passports are
A.
Kept by the member.
B.
Collected by the military personnel section (MPS).
C.
Collected by the unit deployment manager (UDM).
D.
Destroyed by the member.
Correct Answer
B. Collected by the military personnel section (MPS).
Explanation Once the member in-processes, their no-fee passports are collected by the military personnel section (MPS). This means that the MPS is responsible for gathering and storing these passports. The other options, such as the unit deployment manager (UDM) or the member themselves, are not mentioned as being involved in the collection process. Additionally, there is no mention of the passports being destroyed, so that option is also not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is that the passports are collected by the military personnel section (MPS).
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6.
(402) What is not included in the three main phases of accession processing?
A.
Delivery.
B.
Collection.
C.
Verification.
D.
Confirmation.
Correct Answer
A. Delivery.
Explanation The three main phases of accession processing are collection, verification, and confirmation. These phases involve gathering the necessary information or materials, checking their accuracy and authenticity, and finalizing the accession process. Delivery, on the other hand, refers to the act of transporting or handing over the collected materials, which is not a separate phase in the processing. Therefore, delivery is not included in the three main phases of accession processing.
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7.
(403) When issuing an identification (ID) card to a member considered retired with pay, what source document can be used?
A.
Leave and earnings statement (LES).
B.
DD Form 363AF, Certificate of Retirement.
C.
DD Form 1160, Military Retirement Actions.
D.
DD Form 214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active duty.
Correct Answer
D. DD Form 214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active duty.
8.
(403) Without senior personnel official appointment, identification (ID) card verifying and issuing officials cannot be
A.
A commissioned officer.
B.
An Airman first class.
C.
A DoD contractor.
D.
A warrant officer.
Correct Answer
D. A warrant officer.
Explanation Without senior personnel official appointment, identification (ID) card verifying and issuing officials cannot be a warrant officer. This means that in order to become a warrant officer, one must have a senior personnel official appointment and be responsible for verifying and issuing ID cards. The other options, such as a commissioned officer, an Airman first class, or a DoD contractor, do not require this specific appointment.
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9.
(403) Once you retrieve a Teslin identification (ID) card, you may do all of the following except
A.
Cut.
B.
Shred.
C.
Destroy.
D.
Line out.
Correct Answer
D. Line out.
Explanation The correct answer is "line out." This means that once you retrieve a Teslin identification card, you can do all of the following except line out any information on the card. Lining out refers to crossing out or marking through something, and it is not a recommended method of handling identification cards as it can make the information difficult to read or verify.
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10.
(403) When a dependent child under age 21 is emancipated, what happens to their entitlement to ID card benefits and privileges?
A.
It’s reinstated when they return home.
B.
It expires when they departed home.
C.
The entitlements remain the same.
D.
It’s removed by the sponsor.
Correct Answer
C. The entitlements remain the same.
Explanation When a dependent child under age 21 is emancipated, their entitlement to ID card benefits and privileges remains the same. Emancipation does not affect their eligibility for these entitlements.
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11.
(404) The expression “use or lose” refers to leave days. Normally, in excess of how many days will be lost by the end of the fiscal year (FY) if it is not used?
A.
30.
B.
60.
C.
90.
D.
120.
Correct Answer
B. 60.
Explanation If leave days are not used by the end of the fiscal year, typically 60 days will be lost. This means that any unused leave days will not carry over to the next fiscal year and will be forfeited.
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12.
(404) Leave must begin and end where?
A.
In the local area.
B.
At your duty section.
C.
On a military installation.
D.
At your requested leave area.
Correct Answer
A. In the local area.
Explanation The correct answer is "In the local area." This means that when taking leave, you must begin and end your leave within the local area, which typically refers to the vicinity of your duty station or military installation. This ensures that you are easily accessible and available for any necessary duties or responsibilities that may arise during your leave period.
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13.
(405) Basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is meant to offset costs for members and
A.
Their dependents.
B.
No one else.
C.
Children.
D.
Spouses.
Correct Answer
B. No one else.
Explanation The basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is provided to offset the costs of meals for military members and their dependents. The term "no one else" implies that the BAS is not intended to cover the costs of meals for any other individuals outside of the military member and their dependents.
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14.
(405) The basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is based in the historic origins of the military in which the military provided what two items?
A.
Food and housing requirements.
B.
Room and laundry services.
C.
Rations and transportation.
D.
Room and board.
Correct Answer
D. Room and board.
Explanation The correct answer is "Room and board." This is because the basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is a monetary allowance provided to military personnel to cover the cost of meals when government-provided meals are not available. The term "room and board" refers to the provision of both lodging and meals, which aligns with the purpose of the BAS. Therefore, it can be inferred that the military historically provided room and board to its personnel.
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15.
(406) Essential station messing (ESM) is also termed
A.
Dining in-kind.
B.
Rations in-kind.
C.
Messing in-kind.
D.
Services in-kind.
Correct Answer
B. Rations in-kind.
Explanation Essential station messing (ESM) refers to the provision of food and meals to individuals in a specific location or station. The term "in-kind" means that the provision of rations is done in the form of actual food items or meals, rather than through monetary allowances or other forms of compensation. Therefore, the correct answer is "rations in-kind."
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16.
(407) A line of duty (LOD) determination protects the interests of the United States government and that of
A.
The member.
B.
The squadron.
C.
The dependents.
D.
The military installation.
Correct Answer
A. The member.
Explanation A line of duty (LOD) determination is a process used to determine whether an injury or illness that occurred while on duty was the result of the member's own misconduct or negligence. This determination is important because it affects the member's eligibility for certain benefits and compensation. By protecting the interests of the member, the LOD determination ensures that they receive the appropriate support and assistance from the United States government.
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17.
(407) Who is not subject to line of duty (LOD) determinations?
A.
Active duty Air Force members.
B.
Air Reserve Component members who die, incur or aggravate an illness/injury.
C.
Junior Reserve Officer Training Corps (JROTC) members.
D.
Air Force Reserve Officer Training Corps (AFROTC) members.
Correct Answer
C. Junior Reserve Officer Training Corps (JROTC) members.
Explanation Junior Reserve Officer Training Corps (JROTC) members are not subject to line of duty (LOD) determinations. LOD determinations are made to determine if an injury or illness was incurred or aggravated while on active duty, and to determine eligibility for benefits and compensation. Since JROTC members are not on active duty, they are not subject to LOD determinations.
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18.
(407) A line of duty (LOD) determination process must be initiated when a member, whether hospitalized or not, has an illness, injury or disease that results in all of the following except the
A.
Death of a member.
B.
Death of a member’s spouse.
C.
Likelihood of permanent disability.
D.
Inability to perform military duties for over 24 hours.
Correct Answer
B. Death of a member’s spouse.
Explanation When a member has an illness, injury, or disease that results in the death of a member, the line of duty determination process must be initiated. This process is necessary to determine if the member's condition was a result of their military duties and if they are eligible for certain benefits. The other options listed, such as likelihood of permanent disability and inability to perform military duties for over 24 hours, are all valid reasons for initiating the LOD determination process. However, the death of a member's spouse is not related to the member's own illness or injury, so it does not trigger the LOD determination process.
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19.
(407) A line of duty (LOD) determination does not impact
A.
Disability retirement and severance pay.
B.
Extension of enlistment.
C.
Civilian duty pay.
D.
Forfeiture of pay.
Correct Answer
C. Civilian duty pay.
Explanation A line of duty (LOD) determination is a process used to determine if an injury or illness occurred while on active duty and whether it was incurred in the line of duty. This determination is important because it affects certain benefits and entitlements for the service member. In this case, the correct answer is civilian duty pay. A LOD determination does not impact civilian duty pay, which is the additional pay received by service members who are temporarily assigned to civilian duties.
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20.
(407) The line of duty (LOD) approving authority reviews the complete investigation file and maydo all the following except
A.
Return the file to the investigating officer.
B.
Return the complete file to the immediate commander.
C.
Approve a final determination by forwarding to HQ AFPC.
D.
Approve a final determination by completing DD Form 261.
Correct Answer
C. Approve a final determination by forwarding to HQ AFPC.
Explanation The line of duty (LOD) approving authority reviews the complete investigation file and may return the file to the investigating officer, return the complete file to the immediate commander, and approve a final determination by completing DD Form 261. However, they do not approve a final determination by forwarding to HQ AFPC.
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21.
(408) Provided criterion is met, military couples may be considered for assignment where they can maintain a
A.
Joint residence.
B.
Joint allowance.
C.
Basic substance in kind.
D.
Basic allowance for housing.
Correct Answer
A. Joint residence.
Explanation Military couples may be considered for assignment where they can maintain a joint residence. This means that if the criterion for the assignment is met, the military couple will be stationed together in a location where they can live together in the same residence. This allows the couple to maintain their relationship and support each other while serving in the military.
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22.
(408) Which of the following is not a join spouse intent code?
A.
A.
B.
B.
C.
C.
D.
H.
Correct Answer
C. C.
Explanation The given answer is C. The reason why it is not a join spouse intent code is not mentioned in the question.
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23.
(409) Family Member Servicemember’s Group Life Insurance (FSGLI) expands Servicemember’s Group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage to whom?
A.
Spouses only.
B.
Children only.
C.
Parents of sponsor.
D.
Spouses and children.
Correct Answer
D. Spouses and children.
Explanation FSGLI expands SGLI coverage to both spouses and children. This means that the family members of a servicemember can also be covered under the insurance policy. It provides financial protection for the servicemember's spouse and children in the event of their death, ensuring that they receive a death benefit. This expansion of coverage is beneficial for the servicemember's family, providing them with additional support and security.
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24.
(409) Which is not a requirement for a member to qualify for Servicemember’s Group Life Insurance Traumatic Injury Protection (TSGLI)?
A.
Must suffer from a scheduled loss that is a direct result of a traumatic event.
B.
Must have comparable civilian life insurance prior to the traumatic event.
C.
Must have suffered the traumatic event before midnight of the day of separation.
D.
Must survive for a period of at least seven full days from the date of the traumatic event.
Correct Answer
B. Must have comparable civilian life insurance prior to the traumatic event.
Explanation The requirement for a member to qualify for Servicemember's Group Life Insurance Traumatic Injury Protection (TSGLI) is that they must suffer from a scheduled loss that is a direct result of a traumatic event, they must have suffered the traumatic event before midnight of the day of separation, and they must survive for a period of at least seven full days from the date of the traumatic event. However, having comparable civilian life insurance prior to the traumatic event is not a requirement for qualification.
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25.
(410) Which is not a responsibility of the force support squadron commander as it pertains to casualty services?
A.
Ensure the casualty assistance representative (CAR) has an open office for counseling the next
of kin.
B.
Provide public affairs with the name, age, rank, and home of record of the deceased.
C.
Appoints the casualty augmentation support team (CAST) members.
D.
Publish required installation supplements to AFI 36–3002, Casualty Services.
Correct Answer
A. Ensure the casualty assistance representative (CAR) has an open office for counseling the next
of kin.
Explanation The responsibility of ensuring that the casualty assistance representative (CAR) has an open office for counseling the next of kin is not a responsibility of the force support squadron commander as it pertains to casualty services. This responsibility may fall under the purview of another individual or department within the force support squadron or a different unit altogether. The other responsibilities listed, such as providing public affairs with information about the deceased and appointing the casualty augmentation support team (CAST) members, are more directly related to the role of the force support squadron commander in managing casualty services.
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26.
(410) Once family members have been notified, the mortuary service officer and public affairs office will provide name, rank, age,
A.
Home of record, race, and awards and decorations only.
B.
Race, religion, and total active federal military service date (TAFMSD) only.
C.
Home of record, race, religion, and TAFMSD, and place of enlistment.
D.
Home of record, race, religion, TAFMSD, awards, decorations, and badges.
Correct Answer
D. Home of record, race, religion, TAFMSD, awards, decorations, and badges.
Explanation The correct answer is home of record, race, religion, TAFMSD, awards, decorations, and badges. This answer is correct because it includes all the information that the mortuary service officer and public affairs office will provide once family members have been notified. This information is important for honoring the deceased and providing any necessary support to the family.
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27.
(410) In order for an enlisted Airman to notify the next of kin (NOK) of a very seriously ill or injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), or incapacitating illness or injury (III) member, they must be in grade(s)
A.
Senior master sergeant (SMSgt) and Chief master sergeant (CMSgt) only.
B.
Master sergeant (MSgt) through CMSgt.
C.
Staff sergeant (SSgt) through CMSgt.
D.
CMSgt only.
Correct Answer
B. Master sergeant (MSgt) through CMSgt.
Explanation An enlisted Airman must be in the grade of Master Sergeant (MSgt) through Chief Master Sergeant (CMSgt) in order to notify the next of kin (NOK) of a very seriously ill or injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), or incapacitating illness or injury (III) member. This indicates that the responsibility of notifying the NOK is given to higher-ranking enlisted personnel who have more experience and authority in handling such sensitive and critical situations.
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28.
(410) When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, what information is not considered reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived?
A.
Statements of witnesses to the incident.
B.
Circumstances of the incident.
C.
Location of the incident.
D.
Search results.
Correct Answer
C. Location of the incident.
Explanation The location of the incident is not considered reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived. This means that even if the incident took place in a location that is typically considered dangerous or fatal, it does not necessarily prove that the individual could not have survived. Other factors such as witness statements, circumstances of the incident, and search results are more relevant in determining whether an individual could have survived or not.
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29.
(411) The survivor benefit plan (SBP) is a monthly annuity, due to an active duty member who dies in the line of duty (LOD) and is paid by the Air Force to the
A.
Surviving parents.
B.
Eligible children only.
C.
Surviving spouse only.
D.
Surviving spouse or eligible children.
Correct Answer
D. Surviving spouse or eligible children.
Explanation The survivor benefit plan (SBP) is a monthly annuity that is paid by the Air Force to the surviving spouse or eligible children of an active duty member who dies in the line of duty (LOD). This means that both the surviving spouse and eligible children are entitled to receive the monthly annuity provided by the SBP.
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30.
(411) The survivor benefit plan (SBP) annuity is paid to a surviving spouse until the spouse dies,
A.
But is suspended upon remarriage before age 45.
B.
But is suspended upon remarriage before age 55.
C.
And then it passes onto any surviving children.
D.
And is not suspended upon remarriage.
Correct Answer
B. But is suspended upon remarriage before age 55.
Explanation The correct answer is "but is suspended upon remarriage before age 55." This means that if the surviving spouse remarries before reaching the age of 55, they will no longer receive the survivor benefit plan (SBP) annuity. This condition ensures that the benefit is provided to the surviving spouse until they reach a certain age, after which they may have other means of financial support through their new marriage.
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31.
(412) How many members constitute a quorum for the Air Force Board for Correction of MilitaryRecords (AFBCMR)?
A.
Three.
B.
Five.
C.
Seven.
D.
Nine.
Correct Answer
A. Three.
Explanation A quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in order for a meeting or decision-making body to be valid. In the case of the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR), the quorum is three members. This means that at least three members must be present for the board to conduct its business and make decisions.
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32.
(412) You can locate the form used to apply for a correction to military records at the following locations except
A.
Any Air Force military personnel section.
B.
Most veterans’ service organization.
C.
Air Force Review Boards office.
D.
Any Finance Services office.
Correct Answer
D. Any Finance Services office.
Explanation The form used to apply for a correction to military records can be found at any Air Force military personnel section, most veterans' service organizations, and the Air Force Review Boards office. However, it cannot be located at any Finance Services office.
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33.
(413) When requesting survey approval, Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)/DPSAS does not require you to
A.
State the different types of surveys utilized in the last fiscal year.
B.
State the purpose and justification for the proposed research.
C.
Provide a point of contact, with a telephone number.
D.
Indicate how you will use the survey results.
Correct Answer
A. State the different types of surveys utilized in the last fiscal year.
Explanation When requesting survey approval, Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)/DPSAS does not require you to state the different types of surveys utilized in the last fiscal year. The other options, such as stating the purpose and justification for the proposed research, providing a point of contact with a telephone number, and indicating how you will use the survey results, are all necessary requirements for requesting survey approval. However, specifying the different types of surveys used in the previous fiscal year is not a requirement in this case.
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34.
(413) All approved, non-local surveys show
A.
A survey control number and report control symbol only.
B.
A survey control number, report control symbol, and fiscal year number.
C.
A office of management and budget number, survey control number, and point of contact.
D.
A office of management and budget number, survey control number, or a report control symbol.
Correct Answer
D. A office of management and budget number, survey control number, or a report control symbol.
35.
(414) The enlisted assignment preference is used for
A.
Continental United States (CONUS) or overseas (OS) assignments.
B.
Short notice OS assignments.
C.
Joint/departmental assignments.
D.
Special duty assignments (SDA).
Correct Answer
A. Continental United States (CONUS) or overseas (OS) assignments.
Explanation The enlisted assignment preference is used to determine whether a service member prefers to be assigned within the continental United States (CONUS) or overseas (OS). This preference is taken into consideration when making assignments to ensure that the service member is assigned to a location that aligns with their preference.
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36.
(414) Before engaging in the assignment process and updating your preferences, members are encouraged to discuss their assignment preferences with
A.
Family members, commanders, and co-workers.
B.
Family members, commanders, and first sergeant.
C.
Family members, commanders, and supervisors.
D.
Commanders, supervisors, and co-workers.
Correct Answer
C. Family members, commanders, and supervisors.
Explanation Before engaging in the assignment process and updating preferences, members are encouraged to discuss their assignment preferences with family members, commanders, and supervisors. This is important because family members can provide valuable input and considerations, commanders can provide guidance and insights into the needs of the organization, and supervisors can offer advice based on their knowledge of the member's skills and abilities. By involving these key individuals in the discussion, members can make more informed decisions about their assignment preferences.
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37.
(415) Airmen are eligible for a special duty assignment (SDA) if they
A.
Have any other self-initiated permanent change of station request pending.
B.
Have an active unfavorable information file or are on the control roster (CR).
C.
Have been selected as noncommissioned officer of the quarter.
D.
Are not recommended for a SDA by their commander.
Correct Answer
C. Have been selected as noncommissioned officer of the quarter.
Explanation Airmen are eligible for a special duty assignment (SDA) if they have been selected as noncommissioned officer of the quarter. This means that being recognized as the top noncommissioned officer in a given quarter qualifies them for a special duty assignment. It indicates that they have demonstrated exceptional performance and leadership qualities, making them suitable for a special duty assignment.
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38.
(415) How many months, minimum time on station (TOS), is required to apply for a special duty assignment (SDA)?
A.
0.
B.
6.
C.
12.
D.
24.
Correct Answer
A. 0.
Explanation To apply for a special duty assignment (SDA), no minimum time on station (TOS) is required. This means that individuals can apply for an SDA as soon as they arrive at their current station without having to wait for any specific amount of time. Therefore, the correct answer is 0, indicating that no months of TOS are needed to apply for an SDA.
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39.
(415) How many special duty application (s) may be submitted for consideration at any given time?
A.
One.
B.
Three.
C.
Five.
D.
Eight.
Correct Answer
A. One.
Explanation At any given time, only one special duty application may be submitted for consideration. This suggests that there is a limit on the number of special duty applications that can be submitted simultaneously. This limit ensures that each application receives proper attention and evaluation, preventing an overwhelming number of applications from being processed at once.
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40.
(416) To substantiate a humanitarian assignment request, which of the following is not a criterion?
A.
The member’s assignment must be within 12 months of being complete.
B.
The member’s presence must be absolutely essential to alleviate the problem.
C.
A vacancy must exist at the new duty station and the member must meet retainability
requirements.
D.
The problem is more severe than usually encountered by other AF members with a similar
problem.
Correct Answer
A. The member’s assignment must be within 12 months of being complete.
Explanation The criterion that is not required to substantiate a humanitarian assignment request is that the member's assignment must be within 12 months of being complete. This means that the timing of the member's assignment completion is not a determining factor in considering a humanitarian assignment request. The other criteria mentioned, such as the member's presence being essential to alleviate the problem, the existence of a vacancy at the new duty station, and the severity of the problem compared to other AF members, are all important factors in evaluating the request.
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41.
(416) Humanitarian assignment or deferment request that usually warrants approval, are requests substantiating problems arising from which circumstance?
A.
Problems associated with child care arrangement.
B.
The existence of a housing shortage or home ownership problems.
C.
The recent death of the members spouse or child, including miscarriages.
D.
A desire to provide emotional support to a parent or parent-in-law due to age.
Correct Answer
C. The recent death of the members spouse or child, including miscarriages.
Explanation This answer is correct because it states that a humanitarian assignment or deferment request would be warranted in the case of the recent death of the member's spouse or child, including miscarriages. This circumstance would likely cause significant emotional distress and may require the member to take time off or be reassigned to a different location to deal with the aftermath of the tragedy.
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42.
(417) If the career development element has numerous relocation briefings to conduct, what canthey do in order to save time?
A.
Conduct mass briefings.
B.
Conduct briefings only when necessary.
C.
Make appointments for each individual.
D.
File all assignment relocation folders in one drawer.
Correct Answer
A. Conduct mass briefings.
Explanation To save time when conducting numerous relocation briefings, the career development element can conduct mass briefings. This means that instead of individually briefing each person, they can gather a group of individuals who require the briefing and conduct the briefing for all of them at once. This allows them to convey the necessary information to multiple individuals simultaneously, saving time and effort compared to conducting individual briefings for each person.
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43.
(417) Which order is not completed within orders processing application (OPA)?
A.
AF Form 100, Request and Authorization for Separation.
B.
AF Form 973, Request and Authorization for Change of Administrative Orders.
C.
DD Form 1610, Request and Authorization for TDY Travel of DOD Personnel.
D.
AF Form 899, Request and Authorization for Permanent Change of Station –Military.
Correct Answer
C. DD Form 1610, Request and Authorization for TDY Travel of DOD Personnel.
44.
(418) Dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) without a follow-on assignment application is used to request
A.
Personally funded travel to a specified location while the Airman serves the short dependent
restricted or unaccompanied tour.
B.
Government funded travel to a specified location while the Airman serves the short dependent
restricted or unaccompanied tour.
C.
Personally funded travel to a specified location other than the follow-on assignment location.
D.
Government funded travel for a household goods shipment.
Correct Answer
B. Government funded travel to a specified location while the Airman serves the short dependent
restricted or unaccompanied tour.
Explanation Dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) without a follow-on assignment application is used to request government funded travel to a specified location while the Airman serves the short dependent restricted or unaccompanied tour. This means that if an Airman is serving a short tour without their dependents, they can request government funded travel for their dependents to a specific location during that time. This allows the Airman's dependents to be with them at a designated place for a short period of time, without the Airman having a follow-on assignment.
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45.
(418) An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must have all of the following except
A.
Proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents’ location.
B.
A signed entitlements fact sheet applicable to the country where dependents will relocate.
C.
The retainability to serve the accompanied tour length at the follow-on location.
D.
A memorandum signed by the Airman with dependents names and birthdates.
Correct Answer
A. Proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents’ location.
Explanation An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must have a signed entitlements fact sheet applicable to the country where dependents will relocate, the retainability to serve the accompanied tour length at the follow-on location, and a memorandum signed by the Airman with dependents' names and birthdates. However, proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents' location is not required.
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46.
(418) Command sponsored dependents residing with the military member in an overseas continental United States (OCONUS) personnel data system (PDS) may be relocated at government expense prior to completion of prescribed overseas tour, describes what?
A.
Concurrent travel.
B.
Designated location move.
C.
Early return of dependents.
D.
Dependent travel to a designated place.
Correct Answer
C. Early return of dependents.
Explanation The correct answer, "Early return of dependents," means that command sponsored dependents who are residing with the military member in an overseas continental United States (OCONUS) personnel data system (PDS) can be relocated at government expense before the completion of their prescribed overseas tour. This implies that if there is a need or requirement for the dependents to return to their home country or another designated location before the military member's tour is finished, the government will cover the costs of their relocation.
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47.
(419) If a member is a medal of honor recipient and elects to separate, what is the earliest date of separation he/she may receive?
A.
Any date of request.
B.
4 months from date of request.
C.
6 months from date of request.
D.
9 months from date of request.
Correct Answer
A. Any date of request.
Explanation If a member is a medal of honor recipient and elects to separate, they can receive the earliest date of separation on any date of request. This means that they have the flexibility to choose the specific date they want to separate from the military, regardless of how soon or far in the future it may be.
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48.
(420) How many years of total active federal military service (TAFMS) must members complete before being eligible for retirement?
A.
10.
B.
20.
C.
22.
D.
25.
Correct Answer
B. 20.
Explanation Members must complete a total of 20 years of active federal military service (TAFMS) before becoming eligible for retirement. This means that they must have served in the military for a minimum of 20 years in order to qualify for retirement benefits.
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49.
(421) Which agency is responsible for notifying commanders of promotion selection and nonselection?
A.
Orderly room.
B.
Career development element.
C.
Chief military personnel section.
D.
Force management operations element.
Correct Answer
B. Career development element.
Explanation The career development element is responsible for notifying commanders of promotion selection and nonselection. This element plays a crucial role in managing and developing the careers of military personnel. They are responsible for keeping commanders informed about the promotion process and notifying them of the outcomes. This ensures that commanders are aware of the promotion decisions and can take appropriate actions based on the results.
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50.
(421) How many days in advance does the commander notify the officer of the projected promotion effective date when an individual is promoted to first lieutenant?
A.
30.
B.
45.
C.
60.
D.
90.
Correct Answer
A. 30.
Explanation The commander notifies the officer of the projected promotion effective date 30 days in advance when an individual is promoted to first lieutenant.
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