3DX5X Vol 1 UREs
- 1.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
- A.
Spectrum Operations.
- B.
Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
D. Radio Frequency Transmission.Explanation
The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This specialty is responsible for the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They work with various communication systems and ensure the smooth transmission of radio frequency signals.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
- A.
Spectrum Operations.
- B.
Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
C. Cable and Antenna Systems.Explanation
The 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations is Cable and Antenna Systems. This AFS is specifically focused on the management and upkeep of the physical infrastructure required for network connectivity, including the installation and maintenance of cables and antennas. Spectrum Operations, Ground Radar Systems, and Radio Frequency Transmission do not directly involve network wiring installation and maintenance.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?
- A.
Core task.
- B.
Duty competency.
- C.
Core competency.
- D.
Duty position task.
Correct Answer
D. Duty position task.Explanation
According to AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program, the supervisor is responsible for assigning the duty position task as part of the enlisted training element. This means that the supervisor determines the specific tasks and responsibilities that are associated with a particular duty position, ensuring that individuals are trained and competent in carrying out their assigned duties.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals in the career field, ensuring that they have the resources and information necessary to succeed in their careers. The AFCFM is knowledgeable about the specific needs and challenges of the career field and can provide valuable insight and assistance to individuals seeking guidance or advice. They play a crucial role in shaping the career paths and development of individuals in the career field.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM)
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This means that the AFCFM has the power to exempt individuals from certain training requirements based on their specific circumstances or qualifications. The AFCFM's decision is binding and overrides any previous decisions made by the unit training manager (UTM), base functional manager (BFM), or major command functional manager (MFM).Rate this question:
-
- 6.
Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
C. Major command functional manager (MFM).Explanation
The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM in discussions and decisions related to utilization and training within the career field. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the MAJCOM's perspective is considered and represented during these workshops.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
C. Major command functional manager (MFM).Explanation
The Major command functional manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC). The MFM is responsible for overseeing the career development and training within their specific major command, so they have the knowledge and resources to identify suitable SMEs for these purposes. The Unit training manager (UTM) is responsible for managing and coordinating training within a specific unit, while the Base functional manager (BFM) oversees training at the base level. The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is responsible for managing career development and training at the career field level.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
B. Base functional manager (BFM).Explanation
The title normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is Base functional manager (BFM).Rate this question:
-
- 9.
Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?
- A.
Modify local training.
- B.
Allocate manpower.
- C.
Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).
- D.
Assist the unit training manager in course development.
Correct Answer
C. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).Explanation
Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and tasks within a particular field. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC) that provides specialized training and knowledge for individuals in that occupation. Therefore, developing a CDC is another use for occupational surveys, as it helps to enhance the career development and training opportunities for individuals in a specific job role.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
Conduct climate training surveys.
- B.
Develop Career Development Courses.
- C.
Review the occupational analysis report.
- D.
Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
Correct Answer
D. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).Explanation
The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive plan for education and training within a specific career field. The CFETP will outline the necessary training courses, certifications, and career development opportunities for individuals in that field. By establishing a CFETP, organizations can ensure that their workforce is properly trained and equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to succeed in their careers.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
- A.
Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).
- B.
Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the SME.
- C.
MFM in conjunction with the subject matter expert (SME).
- D.
AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM.
Correct Answer
D. AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM.Explanation
The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).Rate this question:
-
- 12.
What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
- A.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
- B.
Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).
- C.
On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.
- D.
Occupational Analysis Program.
Correct Answer
C. On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.Explanation
The On-the-Job Training (OJT) program provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while actually performing their job duties, under the guidance and supervision of experienced professionals. It is a hands-on approach to training that helps individuals gain practical experience and become proficient in their specific field.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- A.
Quality Assessments.
- B.
Quality Assurance.
- C.
Quality System.
- D.
Trend Analysis.
Correct Answer
B. Quality Assurance.Explanation
Quality Assurance is not an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program because Quality Assurance is the overall process of ensuring that the desired level of quality is achieved in a product or service. It includes activities such as quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement. However, in a QA program, other elements such as quality assessments, quality system, and trend analysis are essential components that help to assess, maintain, and improve the quality of the product or service.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- A.
Technical Evaluation.
- B.
Personnel Evaluation.
- C.
Managerial Evaluation.
- D.
Standard Evaluation.
Correct Answer
D. Standard Evaluation.Explanation
The question asks for an evaluation type that is NOT included in a Quality Assurance (QA) program. The options provided include Technical Evaluation, Personnel Evaluation, Managerial Evaluation, and Standard Evaluation. Based on the context, it can be inferred that Technical Evaluation, Personnel Evaluation, and Managerial Evaluation are all assessment types that can be included in a QA program. Therefore, the correct answer is Standard Evaluation, as it is the only option that is not mentioned as an assessment type in a QA program.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?
- A.
Trend analysis.
- B.
Quality System.
- C.
Quality Assessments.
- D.
Managerial Assessments.
Correct Answer
A. Trend analysis.Explanation
Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns and trends in data over time, allowing organizations to make informed decisions and improvements to their quality assurance processes. Quality System, Quality Assessments, and Managerial Assessments may be related to quality assurance but do not specifically involve the collection, compilation, analysis, and recording of data like trend analysis does.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?
- A.
Management Inspection (MI).
- B.
Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).
- C.
Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI).
- D.
Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP).
Correct Answer
B. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).Explanation
The correct answer is Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI). This inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. The UEI evaluates the overall effectiveness of a unit by assessing its ability to meet mission requirements, comply with regulations, and maintain readiness. It is a comprehensive inspection that provides a holistic view of a unit's performance and effectiveness. The other options, Management Inspection (MI), Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI), and Commander's Inspection Program (CCIP), do not specifically integrate compliance, readiness, and new inspection elements like the UEI does.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
- A.
Remedy.
- B.
Training Business Area.
- C.
Telephone Management System.
- D.
Integrated Maintenance Data System.
Correct Answer
A. Remedy.Explanation
Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement. Remedy is a popular IT service management tool that helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses. It provides features such as asset discovery, procurement management, change management, and retirement planning, allowing organizations to effectively manage and optimize their IT assets throughout their lifecycle.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
- A.
Title 10.
- B.
Title 18.
- C.
Title 32.
- D.
Title 50.
Correct Answer
A. Title 10.Explanation
Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
- A.
Title 3.
- B.
Title 8.
- C.
Title 10.
- D.
Title 18.
Correct Answer
C. Title 10.Explanation
The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 is the primary legal authority for the organization and conduct of the United States military, and it includes provisions for military justice. The UCMJ is a set of laws that govern the behavior and discipline of members of the military, and it outlines the legal rights and responsibilities of service members.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?
- A.
National Military Cyberspace Strategy.
- B.
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
- C.
National Military Strategy for Cyberspace.
- D.
National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
Correct Answer
B. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.Explanation
The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is the correct answer because it is a document that outlines the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace. This document provides guidance and direction for government agencies, private sector organizations, and individuals to enhance the security and resilience of cyberspace. It focuses on various aspects such as protecting information infrastructure, promoting cybersecurity awareness, and fostering international cooperation. The other options, National Military Cyberspace Strategy, National Military Strategy for Cyberspace, and National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace, are not the correct answers as they specifically focus on military aspects rather than providing a comprehensive strategy for securing cyberspace.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?
- A.
National Security Policy.
- B.
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
- C.
Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.
- D.
National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.
Correct Answer
B. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.Explanation
The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is a policy that prioritizes the prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure. It is a strategic plan that aims to protect the country's cyberspace and ensure the security of its critical infrastructure from cyber threats. This policy recognizes the importance of safeguarding critical infrastructure and takes proactive measures to prevent cyber attacks, making it the correct answer.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces’ comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?
- A.
National Security Policy.
- B.
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
- C.
Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.
- D.
National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operation
Correct Answer
D. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace OperationExplanation
The National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations outlines the comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. This policy specifically focuses on the military's role in cyberspace and provides guidance on how to achieve and maintain superiority in this domain. It addresses the unique challenges and threats in cyberspace and provides a framework for the military to effectively operate and defend its networks and systems.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
- A.
Title 10.
- B.
Title 30.
- C.
Title 50.
- D.
Title 52.
Correct Answer
A. Title 10.Explanation
When Air National Guard personnel train for cyber operations in Title 32 status, they must be in Title 10 status to execute those missions. Title 10 status refers to the federal active duty status, which allows them to carry out the cyber operations effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as
- A.
Misuse of position.
- B.
Covered relationships.
- C.
Non-public information.
- D.
Personal conflict of interest.
Correct Answer
B. Covered relationships.Explanation
The correct answer is "covered relationships." This term refers to an employee or employer relationship that may create a conflict of interest or bias. It implies a situation where there is a personal connection or close association between individuals involved in a professional setting, which can lead to favoritism or impartiality. This unethical situation can compromise the fairness and integrity of decision-making processes within the organization.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?
- A.
Misuse of position.
- B.
Covered relationship.
- C.
Personal conflict of interest.
- D.
None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.
Correct Answer
B. Covered relationship.Explanation
A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a personal relationship with someone that could potentially influence their professional judgment or decision-making. In this case, members of a household or close relatives fall under this category as their personal relationship can create bias or conflicts of interest, leading to unethical behavior or decisions.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?
- A.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
- B.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
- C.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
- D.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC) functions. These components work together to provide cybersecurity and control capabilities for the Air Force in cyberspace.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC)?
- A.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
- B.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
- C.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC).Rate this question:
-
- 28.
What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?
- A.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
- B.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
- C.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.Explanation
The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). This system is responsible for controlling and securing access to the network, ensuring that only authorized users can enter and protecting against cyber threats. It serves as a crucial component of the Air Force's cyber defense capabilities, allowing them to monitor and control network traffic, detect and respond to attacks, and maintain the integrity and confidentiality of their information.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?
- A.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
- B.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
- C.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
- D.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System. -
- 30.
What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?
- A.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
- B.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
- C.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System. This system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. It is designed to provide effective command and control capabilities in cyberspace, allowing the Air Force to maintain control over its cyber assets and ensure the security and availability of its networks.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?
- A.
Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.
- B.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
- C.
Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System.
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.
Correct Answer
A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.Explanation
The correct answer is Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System. This system is designed to identify vulnerabilities in cyberspace and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk posed by these vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. It helps in identifying potential weaknesses in the network and allows for proactive measures to be taken to mitigate the risk of cyber attacks.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?
- A.
Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force.
- B.
Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.
- C.
Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force.
- D.
Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force.
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.Explanation
Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.
- A.
Active and reactive.
- B.
Evasive and decisive.
- C.
Subversive and divisive.
- D.
Offensive and defensive.
Correct Answer
A. Active and reactive.Explanation
Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing to detect and respond to an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to identify and neutralize threats, such as deploying intrusion detection systems or conducting vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense, on the other hand, involves responding to an ongoing attack or intrusion, such as isolating compromised systems, patching vulnerabilities, or conducting incident response activities. These two defenses work together to actively counter and react to cyber threats.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?
- A.
Counterintelligence (CI).
- B.
Operation Security (OPSEC).
- C.
Military deception (MILDEC).
- D.
Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).
Correct Answer
C. Military deception (MILDEC).Explanation
MILDEC, or Military Deception, is designed to mislead the enemy by deliberately presenting false information or creating a false perception. It involves actions, devices, or displays intended to deceive adversaries, causing them to make incorrect decisions or take actions that are not in their best interest. Since MISO and PA share a common audience, their activities are focused on informing and influencing that audience, rather than misleading them. Counterintelligence (CI) aims to identify and counteract enemy intelligence operations, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) aims to gather information about the enemy. These activities do not involve deliberate deception.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?
- A.
Strategic Considerations.
- B.
Military Strategic Framework.
- C.
Implementation and Assessment.
- D.
Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.
Correct Answer
D. Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.Explanation
The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides the strategic direction and priorities for the Department of Defense in various areas, including cyberspace security. It outlines the goals, objectives, and strategies that need to be followed in order to secure cyberspace effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?
- A.
Defense Industrial Base (DIB).
- B.
Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).
- C.
National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).
- D.
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
Correct Answer
D. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).Explanation
The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is an agency within the Department of Defense (DoD) that provides information technology and communications support to the military. They are responsible for managing and securing the DoD's information systems and networks, including the GIG, which is a globally interconnected set of information capabilities, processes, and personnel. DISA's role in identifying, prioritizing, and remediating critical GIG infrastructure ensures the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of information for military operations.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?
- A.
644th Combat Communication Squadron.
- B.
85th Engineering Installation Squadron.
- C.
83th Network Operations Squadron.
- D.
4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.
Correct Answer
B. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.Explanation
The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron installs, reconstitutes, and tests critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
Area Processing Center (APC).
- C.
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- D.
Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).
Correct Answer
A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).Explanation
The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity. This suggests that the ESU is focused on providing efficient and effective services to support the warfighters in their operations. By reducing training requirements and increasing capacity, the ESU aims to enhance the readiness and capabilities of the Air Force.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
Area Processing Center (APC).
- C.
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- D.
Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).
Correct Answer
B. Area Processing Center (APC).Explanation
An Area Processing Center (APC) is a regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage. This means that it serves as a centralized hub for these services, allowing multiple users or organizations within a specific area to access and utilize them. The other options, such as Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Network Operations Security Center (NOSC), do not specifically refer to regional computing and data centers that provide these services.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?
- A.
Manpower.
- B.
Efficiency.
- C.
Reduce costs.
- D.
Department of Defense 8570 mandate.
Correct Answer
B. Efficiency.Explanation
The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing the control centers and creating a single service desk, organizations can streamline their operations, reduce redundancies, and improve communication and coordination. This consolidation allows for better resource allocation and more effective management of network services, ultimately leading to increased efficiency in providing support and resolving issues.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?
- A.
2009.
- B.
2010.
- C.
2011.
- D.
2012.
Correct Answer
B. 2010.Explanation
In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support to all locations within a single ticketing system.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
- A.
Subordinate unified command and geographical command.
- B.
Unified command and subordinate unified command.
- C.
Functional command and geographical command.
- D.
Unified command and functional command.
Correct Answer
B. Unified command and subordinate unified command.Explanation
Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: unified command and subordinate unified command. The unified command level is responsible for overall coordination and direction of military operations, while the subordinate unified command level focuses on specific operational tasks within a designated area. This division ensures effective command and control in complex military operations involving multiple units and agencies.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a
- A.
Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC).
- B.
Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC).
- C.
Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF).
- D.
Joint Force Commander (JFC).
Correct Answer
D. Joint Force Commander (JFC).Explanation
The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). This means that the COMAFFOR is responsible for leading and coordinating air and space operations within a joint force, working closely with other military branches and agencies. The JFC is the overall commander of a joint force, responsible for integrating and synchronizing all military capabilities to achieve the mission objectives. Therefore, the JFC is the correct answer as it represents the highest level of command in a joint force operation.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?
- A.
Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).
- B.
Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF).
- C.
Unit type codes (UTC).
- D.
Stratum levels (SL).
Correct Answer
A. Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).Explanation
The correct answer is Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF). The Air Force uses the AEF methodology to present forces to combatant commanders. This methodology involves organizing and deploying Air Force assets, including personnel and equipment, in a structured and rotational manner. The AEF ensures that the Air Force can provide the necessary capabilities and support to combatant commanders when and where they are needed.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
- A.
Coding.
- B.
Positioning.
- C.
Tempo bands.
- D.
Unit type code.
Correct Answer
D. Unit type code.Explanation
Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes provide standardized identification and classification of military units, allowing for efficient organization and coordination of forces. These codes help in determining the capabilities, composition, and required resources for different units, enabling effective planning and deployment strategies.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?
- A.
Service Transition.
- B.
Service Strategy.
- C.
Service Contact.
- D.
Service Design.
Correct Answer
C. Service Contact.Explanation
The correct answer is Service Contact. This is because Service Contact is not one of the stages in the ITIL Service Life Cycle. The ITIL Service Life Cycle consists of five stages: Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. Service Contact is not a recognized stage in this framework.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?
- A.
Continual Service Improvement.
- B.
Service Transition.
- C.
Service Strategy.
- D.
Service Design.
Correct Answer
A. Continual Service Improvement.Explanation
Continual Service Improvement is the correct answer because it is the stage in the ITIL framework that focuses on maintaining and improving service quality. This stage involves analyzing service performance, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to enhance the overall service delivery. It aims to ensure that the IT services provided align with business goals and meet customer expectations. Continual Service Improvement is an ongoing process that helps organizations adapt and evolve their IT services to meet changing needs and technologies.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to
- A.
Safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment.
- B.
Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.
- C.
Improve the effectiveness of the mission.
- D.
Improve the efficiency of the mission.
Correct Answer
B. Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.Explanation
The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools that enable users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to maximize the use and benefits of information within an organization, allowing users to leverage it for various purposes such as decision-making, problem-solving, and innovation. By exploiting information, organizations can gain insights, identify opportunities, and make informed decisions, ultimately leading to improved performance and competitiveness.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?
- A.
Article 32.
- B.
Article 40.
- C.
Article 92.
- D.
Article 100.
Correct Answer
C. Article 92.Explanation
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. Article 92 specifically addresses the failure to obey orders or regulations, and in this case, the failure to comply with the provisions outlined in AFMAN 33-153 would fall under this category. This violation can result in disciplinary action and punishment for the military personnel involved.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?
- A.
Two.
- B.
Four.
- C.
Six.
- D.
Eight.
Correct Answer
C. Six.Explanation
There are six rules for effective communication via email. The question is asking about the number of rules, and the correct answer is six.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Mar 29, 2017Quiz Created by
Shadowreality5
- 1W0510 Quizzes
- 2A552 Quizzes
- 2A651 Quizzes
- 2A652 Quizzes
- 2A654 Quizzes
- 2A656 Quizzes
- 2A671 Quizzes
- 2A672 Quizzes
- 2A6X1 Quizzes
- 2A753 Quizzes
- 2AX5X Quizzes
- 2AX7X Quizzes
- 2S051 Quizzes
- 2s071 Quizzes
- 2T251 Quizzes
- 3d052 Quizzes
- 3d054 Quizzes
- 3D151 Quizzes
- 3D152 Quizzes
- 3D153 Quizzes
- 3d1x3 Quizzes
- 3DX7X Quizzes
- 3e451 Quizzes
- 3e6x1 Quizzes
- 3P071 Quizzes
- 4a051 Quizzes
- 5j0x1 Quizzes
- Z3D153 Quizzes
- Z3dx7x Quizzes
- Z3p051 Quizzes
Back to top