CDC Z3DX7X 3DX7X Vol 2
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises,determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continuallyevaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
- A.
Deliberate planning.
- B.
Crisis action planning.
- C.
Mobilization planning.
- D.
Force rotational planning.
Correct Answer
A. Deliberate planning.Explanation
Deliberate planning is the correct answer because it involves developing predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and continually evaluating selected courses of action. This process is systematic and thorough, allowing for careful consideration and planning to ensure effective and efficient deployment of forces. Crisis action planning focuses on immediate response to unforeseen events, mobilization planning is specific to the mobilization of forces, and force rotational planning is related to the rotation of forces in and out of a deployment area.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference sourcefor general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces intime of war?
- A.
Volume 1.
- B.
Volume 2.
- C.
Volume 3.
- D.
Volume 4.
Correct Answer
A. Volume 1.Explanation
Volume 1 of the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war. This volume is likely to contain information on the overall strategic planning and policies that guide the mobilization of forces, as well as the support systems and resources that are necessary to sustain combat operations during a war.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
- A.
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center
- B.
Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).
- C.
Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM).
- D.
Joint Staff
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) CenterExplanation
The correct answer is the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center. This center is responsible for initiating the requirements or deployment sourcing process. They coordinate and manage the deployment of Air Force personnel and resources for expeditionary operations.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force orcapability in place of another service’s core mission?
- A.
Standard unit type code (UTC).
- B.
Joint force/capability.
- C.
In-lieu-of (ILO).
- D.
Ad hoc.
Correct Answer
B. Joint force/capability.Explanation
The correct answer is Joint force/capability. This type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking involves a service providing a force or capability to fulfill another service's core mission. This means that one service is temporarily taking on the responsibilities and tasks that would typically be carried out by another service. This can occur in situations where a particular service may not have the necessary resources or capabilities to fulfill their mission, so another service steps in to provide support.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and TrainingSystem (SORTS)?
- A.
Training
- B.
Personnel
- C.
Facility condition.
- D.
Equipment condition.
Correct Answer
C. Facility condition.Explanation
The correct answer is Facility condition. SORTS is a system used to measure and report the status of resources and training in various areas. Training, personnel, and equipment condition are all areas that are measured and reported by SORTS. However, facility condition is not included in the areas measured and reported by SORTS.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and SpaceExpeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
- A.
Training
- B.
Personnel
- C.
Home station mission
- D.
Equipment condition.
Correct Answer
C. Home station missionExplanation
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) measures readiness categories in order to assess the preparedness of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force. The categories typically include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, the home station mission is not considered a readiness category measured by ART. This means that while ART evaluates the readiness of personnel, training, and equipment, it does not specifically assess the readiness of the home station mission.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)reporting is AFI
- A.
10–201.
- B.
10–244.
- C.
10–401.
- D.
10–403.
Correct Answer
B. 10–244.Explanation
The correct answer is 10-244. This is because AFI 10-244 is the governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting. This AFI provides the specific instructions and procedures for reporting using the ART system, ensuring consistency and accuracy in reporting for the Air and Space Expeditionary Force.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated OperationalCapability (DOC) statements?
- A.
AFI 10–201.
- B.
AFI 10–244.
- C.
AFI 10–401.
- D.
AFI 10–403.
Correct Answer
A. AFI 10–201.Explanation
AFI 10–201 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements. The other options, AFI 10–244, AFI 10–401, and AFI 10–403, do not specifically address DOC statements.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit typecodes (UTC)?
- A.
Pilot Units.
- B.
Joint Planners.
- C.
Logistics Readiness Squadron.
- D.
Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET.
Correct Answer
A. Pilot Units.Explanation
Pilot Units develop logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit typecodes (UTC). This means that the responsibility lies with the pilot units to plan and coordinate the necessary logistics support to ensure that the unit typecodes have the resources and supplies needed for 30 days of sustained operations. The other options, Joint Planners, Logistics Readiness Squadron, and Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET, are not the correct answer as they do not specifically mention the role of Pilot Units in this context.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
- A.
Force protection.
- B.
Airfield operations.
- C.
Force accountability.
- D.
Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).
Correct Answer
D. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).Explanation
The open the airbase force module has various initial capabilities that are essential for its functioning. These capabilities include force protection, airfield operations, and force accountability. However, explosive ordinance disposal (EOD) is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module. EOD refers to the process of safely handling and disposing of explosive materials, which is a specialized field and not directly related to the initial operations of an airbase force module.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
- A.
Force protection and logistics.
- B.
Intelligence and force protection.
- C.
Secure communications and intelligence
- D.
Secure communications and force accountability
Correct Answer
C. Secure communications and intelligenceExplanation
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are secure communications and intelligence. Secure communications are necessary to ensure that information is transmitted securely and cannot be intercepted by unauthorized parties. Intelligence is crucial for commanders to make informed decisions and effectively control their forces. By having access to reliable and timely intelligence, commanders can assess the situation, identify threats, and plan appropriate actions. Therefore, secure communications and intelligence are essential for establishing control in the Command and Control module.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and controlforce module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assignedmission?
- A.
Robust the airbase.
- B.
Operate the airbase.
- C.
Establish the airbase.
- D.
Generate the mission.
Correct Answer
C. Establish the airbase.Explanation
The force module that facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission is "Establish the airbase." This force module is responsible for setting up and organizing the airbase infrastructure, including facilities, equipment, and personnel, to support air operations. It ensures that the airfield is ready and capable of generating air support as required for the mission.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force modulearrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
- A.
2 days, 7 days.
- B.
2 days, 14 days.
- C.
7 days, 14 days.
- D.
14 days, 30 days.
Correct Answer
B. 2 days, 14 days.Explanation
The airbase force module is expected to arrive within 2 days after the airbase is opened. The delivery of the module is estimated to be complete within 14 days.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 daysafter the deployed location is established?
- A.
Generate the mission.
- B.
Establish the airbase.
- C.
Operate the airbase.
- D.
Robust the airbase.
Correct Answer
D. Robust the airbase.Explanation
The force module that contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established is "Robust the airbase." This suggests that the process of robusting the airbase involves bringing in additional support forces to strengthen and fortify the base after it has already been established. This indicates that the support forces mentioned in this force module are not immediately available upon the initial establishment of the airbase, but rather require some time to arrive.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
- A.
Scott AFB, IL.
- B.
Travis AFB, CA.
- C.
Peterson AFB, CO.
- D.
Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.
Correct Answer
D. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.Explanation
The correct answer is Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ. This base is the headquarters for the Contingency Response Wing. It is located in New Jersey and serves as a joint base, meaning it is used by multiple branches of the military. The Contingency Response Wing is responsible for providing rapid response capabilities in support of global operations, and having its headquarters at Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst allows for efficient coordination and deployment of resources.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
- A.
O–4.
- B.
O–5.
- C.
O–6.
- D.
O–7.
Correct Answer
C. O–6.Explanation
The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander is O-6. This indicates that the commander holds the rank of Colonel in the United States military. The O-6 pay grade is typically associated with senior officers who have significant leadership responsibilities and extensive experience in their field.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) isestablished within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?
- A.
Command and control.
- B.
Operate the airbase.
- C.
Robust the airbase.
- D.
Open the airbase.
Correct Answer
A. Command and control.Explanation
The correct answer is Command and control. In a theater deployable communications (TDC) scenario, the force module that can be established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a café environment is the command and control module. This module provides the necessary communication infrastructure and systems for coordinating and controlling military operations in the field. It enables efficient decision-making, information sharing, and coordination among different units and personnel involved in the mission.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can belocated from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
- A.
2 kilometers (km).
- B.
4 km
- C.
8 km
- D.
16 km
Correct Answer
D. 16 kmExplanation
The maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D) is 16 km.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
- A.
Strategy.
- B.
Combat plans.
- C.
Combat support.
- D.
Combat operations.
Correct Answer
C. Combat support.Explanation
Combat support is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center. The other options, strategy, combat plans, and combat operations, are all divisions that are typically found within an Air and Space Operations Center. Combat support refers to the various activities and resources that are provided to combat forces in order to enable them to accomplish their mission effectively. While combat support is crucial to the overall operations, it is not considered a separate division within the Air and Space Operations Center structure.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
- A.
MQ–9 Reaper.
- B.
RQ–11B Raven.
- C.
MQ–1B Predator.
- D.
RQ–4B Global Hawk.
Correct Answer
B. RQ–11B Raven.Explanation
The RQ-11B Raven is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS) because it is a lightweight and portable drone that is typically used for short-range surveillance and reconnaissance missions. It is designed to be easily deployable and operated by a small team, making it suitable for small-scale operations. The other options listed, such as the MQ-9 Reaper, MQ-1B Predator, and RQ-4B Global Hawk, are larger and more advanced UASs that are used for longer-range and more complex missions.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
- A.
3D0X3, Cyber Surety.
- B.
3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems.
- C.
3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems.
- D.
3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems.
Correct Answer
A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety.Explanation
The correct answer is 3D0X3, Cyber Surety. This is because the other options listed (3D1X2, 3D1X3, and 3D1X7) are all related to different aspects of engineering installation units, such as cyber transport systems, RF transmission systems, and cable and antenna systems. However, 3D0X3, Cyber Surety, is not directly related to engineering installation units, but rather focuses on ensuring the security and integrity of computer systems and networks.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hourrapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support intelecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
- A.
38 Engineering Squadron (ES).
- B.
38 Contracting Squadron (CONS).
- C.
38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS).
- D.
85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).
Correct Answer
D. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).Explanation
The correct answer is 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS). This unit is the only one that has a flight assigned to support a 72-hour rapid response force during a crisis. They provide specialized engineering support in the fields of telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum analysis.Rate this question:
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- 23.
All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network(AFN) in
- A.
1942.
- B.
1952.
- C.
1988.
- D.
1998.
Correct Answer
D. 1998.Explanation
The correct answer is 1998 because it was in this year that all armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN). This merger allowed for a unified broadcasting system for the armed forces, providing consistent and reliable news, entertainment, and information to military personnel around the world.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as theapplication of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet projectobjectives?
- A.
MPTO 00–33A–1001.
- B.
MPTO 00–33A–1002.
- C.
MPTO 00–33A–2001.
- D.
MPTO 00–33A–2002.
Correct Answer
A. MPTO 00–33A–1001. -
- 25.
The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
- A.
Funding, execute, close, and control.
- B.
Plan, execute, monitor, and control.
- C.
Plan, execute, close, and control.
- D.
Plan, control, close, and support.
Correct Answer
C. Plan, execute, close, and control.Explanation
The correct answer is "plan, execute, close, and control." This sequence represents the typical phases of project management. First, a project is planned, which involves defining objectives, creating a timeline, and allocating resources. Then, the project is executed, meaning that tasks are carried out according to the plan. After completion, the project is closed, which involves finalizing deliverables and conducting a review. Throughout the entire process, control is maintained to ensure that the project stays on track and meets its objectives.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
- A.
Funding.
- B.
Technical solution.
- C.
Requirements management plan.
- D.
Answers, guidance, and education.
Correct Answer
D. Answers, guidance, and education.Explanation
In the Initiate Phase, the project manager provides answers, guidance, and education. This means that they offer information and expertise to help stakeholders understand the project and its objectives. They also provide guidance on best practices and methodologies to ensure the project's success. Additionally, the project manager educates stakeholders about the project's processes, roles, and responsibilities, enabling them to make informed decisions and contribute effectively to the project's initiation.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capabilitycalled?
- A.
Processes.
- B.
Priorities.
- C.
Requirements.
- D.
Technical solutions.
Correct Answer
C. Requirements.Explanation
The source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability are called requirements. Requirements outline the specific functionalities, features, and qualities that the cyberspace infrastructure should possess in order to meet the desired objectives and fulfill the needs of the organization or system. These documents serve as a guideline for designing and implementing the necessary capabilities in the cyberspace infrastructure.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
- A.
Cost management plan.
- B.
Allied support plan.
- C.
Technical plan.
- D.
Material plan.
Correct Answer
A. Cost management plan.Explanation
The correct answer is the cost management plan. The project plan is a comprehensive document that outlines the objectives, scope, deliverables, and resources required for a project. It includes various plans such as the cost management plan, which details how costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled throughout the project. The allied support plan, technical plan, and material plan may also be part of the project plan, but the cost management plan is specifically mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as
- A.
The status.
- B.
A milestone.
- C.
A deliverable.
- D.
The final result.
Correct Answer
C. A deliverable.Explanation
A deliverable refers to the desired outcome, product, or service of a project. It is the tangible or intangible result that is expected to be produced or achieved at the end of a project. This can include documents, reports, software, prototypes, or any other tangible or intangible item that is considered a valuable output of the project. The other options, such as status, milestone, and final result, do not accurately represent the specific outcome or output of a project, making them incorrect choices.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the projectnot meeting requirement specifications?
- A.
Status request.
- B.
Defect repairs.
- C.
Preventive action.
- D.
Corrective action.
Correct Answer
B. Defect repairs.Explanation
Defect repairs is the correct answer because it refers to a type of change request used to fix a portion of the project that does not meet the requirement specifications. When a defect is identified in the project, a change request is made to address and correct the issue. This ensures that the project meets the desired specifications and quality standards. Preventive action, on the other hand, focuses on identifying and addressing potential issues before they occur, while corrective action is taken to rectify problems that have already occurred. Status request is not related to correcting requirement specifications.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of acommunications system?
- A.
AFTO Form 745.
- B.
AFTO Form 747.
- C.
AFTO Form 749.
- D.
AF Form 1747.
Correct Answer
B. AFTO Form 747.Explanation
AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is used to document the completion of a project and validate the successful installation of a communications system. This form is typically used in the military and is an official document that certifies the completion and functionality of the system. It serves as the final record and marks the end of the project, ensuring that all necessary steps have been taken and the system is ready for use.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements aretermed
- A.
Major.
- B.
Minor.
- C.
Major and minor.
- D.
Major and critical.
Correct Answer
A. Major.Explanation
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed major. This means that if there are any significant issues or deviations from the specified requirements, they would be considered major exceptions. These exceptions can have a significant impact on the system's functionality, performance, or reliability. Minor exceptions, on the other hand, refer to less significant issues that may not have a major impact on the system's overall operation. The answer "major" is the most appropriate choice as it accurately reflects the impact of exceptions on meeting operational requirements.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly,regardless of the phase?
- A.
Follow-up.
- B.
Controlling.
- C.
Organization.
- D.
Documenting.
Correct Answer
A. Follow-up.Explanation
Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. Follow-up involves regularly checking the status of tasks, monitoring progress, and addressing any issues or delays promptly. It helps to keep the project on track, identify potential risks, and make necessary adjustments to meet project goals and deadlines. Without effective follow-up, it becomes difficult to maintain control over the project and ensure that it is progressing as planned.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Changes are requested during a project using an
- A.
AF Form 1146.
- B.
AF Form 1747.
- C.
AFTO Form 46.
- D.
AFTO Form 47.
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 1146.Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 1146 because it is the form specifically used for requesting changes during a project. AF Form 1747 is used for requesting maintenance actions, AFTO Form 46 is used for recording aircraft maintenance actions, and AFTO Form 47 is used for documenting maintenance discrepancies. Therefore, AF Form 1146 is the most appropriate form for requesting changes during a project.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Who implements a technical solution for a base?
- A.
Project monitor.
- B.
Project manager.
- C.
Communication squadron.
- D.
Implementing organization.
Correct Answer
D. Implementing organization.Explanation
The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. They are the ones who take charge of executing the necessary steps to put the solution into action. This involves coordinating and overseeing the implementation process, ensuring that all the required resources and personnel are in place, and managing any potential challenges or issues that may arise during the implementation phase. The project monitor, project manager, and communication squadron may play important roles in the project, but it is ultimately the implementing organization that carries out the actual implementation of the technical solution.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling programmanagement duties?
- A.
Project monitor.
- B.
Project manager.
- C.
Program action officer.
- D.
Program action monitor.
Correct Answer
C. Program action officer.Explanation
A program action officer is the title given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. They are responsible for executing the actions required to achieve program goals and objectives. This role involves coordinating and monitoring program activities, ensuring that tasks are completed on time and within budget. The program action officer acts as a liaison between different stakeholders, communicates program progress, and helps in decision-making processes.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service lifecycle are service strategy,
- A.
Service design, service transition, service plan, and continual service improvement.
- B.
Service plan, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
- C.
Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
- D.
Service design, service disposition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
Correct Answer
C. Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.Explanation
The correct answer is service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement. This is because these stages represent the key phases in the ITIL service lifecycle. Service design involves designing new or changed services, service transition involves transitioning services into the live environment, service operation involves managing and delivering the services, and continual service improvement involves continuously improving the services based on feedback and analysis.Rate this question:
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- 38.
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine theunderlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processesrequired throughout the Service Life Cycle?
- A.
Service improvement.
- B.
Service transition.
- C.
Service strategy.
- D.
Service design.
Correct Answer
C. Service strategy.Explanation
In the Service Strategy stage of ITIL, the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle are determined. This stage focuses on understanding and defining the organization's overall business strategy and how it aligns with IT services. It involves analyzing market conditions, customer needs, and competition to develop a strategic plan for delivering IT services effectively. Therefore, Service Strategy is the appropriate stage for determining the underlying principles used for developing the required policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes.Rate this question:
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- 39.
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create theframework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the liveenvironment?
- A.
Service design.
- B.
Service strategy.
- C.
Service transition.
- D.
Service operation.
Correct Answer
C. Service transition.Explanation
In the ITIL framework, service transition is the stage where the framework is created to ensure the effective and efficient implementation of the designed service in the live environment. This stage focuses on planning, building, and testing the service before it is deployed into operation. It involves activities such as change management, release management, and knowledge transfer to ensure a smooth transition from development to live operation.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier 2. This suggests that there are different tiers of support provided by the Cyberspace Systems Integrator, and Tier 2 is specifically responsible for providing engineering support to the Major Commands (MAJCOMs). The other options, Tier 1, Tier 3, and Tier 4, are not mentioned as being responsible for engineering support for MAJCOMs, indicating that Tier 2 is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?
- A.
AFI 33–115.
- B.
AFI 33–150.
- C.
TO 00–33D–3001.
- D.
TO 00–33D–3004.
Correct Answer
B. AFI 33–150. -
- 42.
Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supportsenhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in lessthan 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?
- A.
Work orders.
- B.
Trouble tickets.
- C.
Infrastructure requirements.
- D.
Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CSIR).
Correct Answer
A. Work orders.Explanation
The functional area of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) that supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order is work orders. Work orders are typically used for specific tasks or projects that require maintenance or improvements to the existing infrastructure. They provide a systematic way to track and prioritize the work that needs to be done, ensuring that it is completed efficiently and within the specified timeframe.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implementusing base level support and resources?
- A.
Organic.
- B.
Contract.
- C.
Inorganic.
- D.
Self-Help.
Correct Answer
D. Self-Help.Explanation
The local communications squadron implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support and resources. Self-Help refers to the practice of relying on internal resources and personnel to accomplish tasks or provide support, without relying on external contractors or funding. This means that the squadron is able to utilize its own resources and expertise to fund and implement communication projects within the base, without the need for external assistance.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for eachmajor program?
- A.
TO 00–33A–1001.
- B.
TO 00–33D–3003.
- C.
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
- D.
Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS).
Correct Answer
B. TO 00–33D–3003.Explanation
The correct answer is TO 00–33D–3003. This is because TO 00–33D–3003 is a technical order that provides a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program. It is a reliable source of information for finding this specific list. The other options mentioned, TO 00–33A–1001, Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS), and Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS), do not specifically provide a list of lead commands or SPOs for each major program.Rate this question:
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- 45.
As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technicalsolutions?
- A.
Base Communications Systems Officer.
- B.
Affected Work Center.
- C.
Base Civil Engineer.
- D.
Project Managers.
Correct Answer
C. Base Civil Engineer.Explanation
To review and validate technical solutions, various roles and expertise are required. The Base Communications Systems Officer is responsible for overseeing the communication systems, the Affected Work Center ensures that the technical solutions align with the needs of the specific work center, and the Project Managers oversee the overall project. However, the presence of a Base Civil Engineer is not necessary for reviewing and validating technical solutions, as their role primarily focuses on construction and infrastructure-related tasks.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?
- A.
Requires services from outside agencies.
- B.
Mobility (deployment) equipment.
- C.
Requires additional manpower.
- D.
Requires additional funding.
Correct Answer
D. Requires additional funding.Explanation
The requirement for additional funding is not considered a special cause because it is a common and expected need in many projects or initiatives. It is often necessary to allocate extra resources or budget to meet the requirements of a project. On the other hand, the other options mentioned - requiring services from outside agencies, mobility equipment, and additional manpower - can be considered special causes as they involve specific and unique needs that may not be present in every project.Rate this question:
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- 47.
In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept ofoperations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but onlysummarize the mobility and logistic requirements?
- A.
Concept Plan.
- B.
Functional Plan.
- C.
Supporting Plan.
- D.
Operational Plan.
Correct Answer
A. Concept Plan.Explanation
A concept plan is a type of plan where writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing an assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements. This means that while the plan outlines the overall strategy and approach to achieve the mission, it does not provide detailed information on the specific resources and logistics needed to execute the plan.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared insupport of the contingency plans?
- A.
Concept Plan.
- B.
Functional Plan.
- C.
Supporting Plan.
- D.
Operational Plan.
Correct Answer
C. Supporting Plan.Explanation
When tasked by the supported combatant commander, a supporting plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans. This plan provides additional details and resources needed to execute the contingency plans effectively. It outlines specific actions, responsibilities, and timelines for supporting the main operational plan. The supporting plan ensures that all necessary support functions, such as logistics, communications, and intelligence, are coordinated and integrated into the overall mission.Rate this question:
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- 49.
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on basefunctional area support is placed in the
- A.
Programming Plan (PPLAN).
- B.
Program Action Directive (PAD).
- C.
Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.
- D.
Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD).
Correct Answer
C. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragrapH.Explanation
The correct answer is Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. This is because when the instructions are not detailed enough to require a separate annex, the information on base functional area support is included in the major paragraph of the Operations Plan (OPLAN). This ensures that all relevant information is included in the OPLAN and provides a comprehensive overview of the support required for the base functional areas.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining thecommunications systems under contract during peacetime?
- A.
Special Measures.
- B.
Administration.
- C.
Assumptions.
- D.
Logistics.
Correct Answer
D. Logistics.Explanation
The area of the Annex K that is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime is Logistics. This section likely covers the logistical aspects of maintaining and operating the communication systems, such as supply chain management, equipment maintenance, and personnel support. It would provide guidelines and procedures for ensuring the continuity and effectiveness of communication systems during wartime.Rate this question:
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Quiz Review Timeline +
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 21, 2017Quiz Created by
Fjeffkirk
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