Paediatrics Practice Questions Mock Test 1

1.

1)What are your findings?2)What is your most likely diagnosis?

2.

A 5 year old presented with following lesion on skin.What is the likely finding shown in picture.

A.

Erythema toxicum neonatorum
B.

Erythema multiforme
C.

Icthyosis
D.

Erythema nodusum
E.

Steven johnson syndrome

Correct Answer
B. Erythema multiforme

Explanation
erythema multiforme represents eruption of the skin with or without mucosal involvement. The papules evolve into pathognomonic target or iris lesions that appear within a 72-hour period and begin on the extremities (see the following image). Lesions remain in a fixed location for at least 7 days and then begin to heal.Associated with herpes , ebstein bar virus , steven johnson syndrome

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3.

A mother of 4 year child is worried about recurrent tonsillitis.He had 3 episodes in last 12 months.You told the mother that tonsilectomy is option for children who are severly affected.Mother wants to know whats the meaning of severly affected,what will you say?

A.

> 7 episodes in one year
B.

> 10 episodes in one year
C.

> 3 episodes in each of two years
D.

> 5 episodes in each of three years
E.

> 3 episodes in one year

Correct Answer
A. > 7 episodes in one year

Explanation
A systematic review of studies comparing tonsillectomy with watchful waiting for children with mild to moderate recurrent throat infections concluded that tonsillectomy provided a modest reduction in number of throat infections and health care utilization in the first postsurgical year, but little to no long-term difference in these outcomes or quality of life . Tonsillectomy is an option for children who are severely affected (ie, ≥7 episodes in one year, ≥5 episodes in each of two years, or ≥3 episodes in each of three years), although watchful waiting is a reasonable alternative. The decision should be made on a case-by-case basis after weighing the risks and benefits in the individual child, and the values and preferences of the family and child.

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4.

A baby girl is born at term cephalic presentation ,vaginal delivery with APGAR 9 at 1 min and 10 at 5 min.Mother wants to know about screening on developmental dysplasia of hip.Which of following is best regarding screening on developmental dysplasia of hip according to American Academy of Pediatrics.

A.

Screening should be done in breech presentation which refers to breech position above 37 week gestation, whether or not the infant was delivered by cesarean section
B.

Screening should be done in breech presentation which refers to breech position during the third trimester, whether or not the infant was delivered by cesarean section
C.

Screening should be done in breech presentation which refers to breech position during the third trimester, for infant who was delivered by cesarean section
D.

Screening should be done in breech presentation which refers to breech position during the third trimester if the infant was delivered by vaginal delivery
E.

Screening shouldnot be done if infant is with breech presentation

Correct Answer
B. Screening should be done in breech presentation which refers to breech position during the third trimester, whether or not the infant was delivered by cesarean section

Explanation
The American Academy of Pediatrics has released updated guidelines for evaluation and referral of infants with developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). Changes from the previous guidelines include the option for infants with a reduced femoral head that is dislocatable or subluxatable (ie, a positive Barlow test) to be followed with serial physical examinations by the primary care clinician rather than an orthopedic surgeon. The update also included breech presentation as a risk factor for male as well as female infants and clarified that breech presentation refers to breech position during the third trimester, whether or not the infant was delivered by cesarean section

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5.

A baby girl is born with following foot .What is your diagnosis?

A.

Metatarsus adductus
B.

Positional calcaneovalgus foot
C.

Clubfoot
D.

Positional clubfoot
E.

Normal foot

Correct Answer
A. Metatarsus adductus

Explanation
Metatarsus adductus is the most common congenital foot deformity. It is characterized by medial deviation (adduction) of the forefoot while the hindfoot remains in a normal position, thus forming a "C" shape, or concavity of the medial aspect of the foot.

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6.

A mother of an infant is worried about infant wih following skin lesion .Infant is thriving well with no other concerns.Eye examination by opthalmologist is normal.Which of following is best statement regarding this infant's condition which you will tell to the mother.

A.

It is reasonable to perform neuro-imaging in infancy only if specific ocular and neurologic abnormalities
B.

It is inherited disorder
C.

Seizures occur in 30 % of patients
D.

Infants usually show developmental delay but later in life have good cognitive functions
E.

As there is risk of meningeal involvement and seizures MRI should be done in infants with this condition

Correct Answer
A. It is reasonable to perform neuro-imaging in infancy only if specific ocular and neurologic abnormalities

Explanation
Approximately 90 percent of infants with facial port wine stains do not have an intracranial lesion and would be expected to develop normally. However, Sturge weber syndrome cannot be ruled out by a normal brain MRI in the first few months of life. Given these data, and the need to sedate infants for MRI, it is reasonable to perform imaging in infancy only if specific ocular and neurologic abnormalities (glaucoma, seizures, or hemiparesis) are present.Children with SWS typically develop normally for several months after birth, then manifest developmental delay. However, the course of cognitive change in children with SWS is highly variable, including both increases and decreases in intelligence quotient (IQ) over time

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7.

A baby boy is born with following finding.What is your most likely diagnosis ?

A.

Encephalocele
B.

Meningocele
C.

Myelomeningocele
D.

Anencephaly
E.

Subgleal haemorrhage

Correct Answer
A. EncepHalocele

Explanation
Encephalocele is the most likely diagnosis for a baby boy born with the given findings. Encephalocele refers to a rare congenital disorder where a portion of the brain protrudes through an opening in the skull. This condition is often visible as a sac-like protrusion on the baby's head. It occurs due to a failure in the neural tube closure during fetal development. Meningocele and myelomeningocele are also related conditions involving the protrusion of the meninges and spinal cord, respectively. However, encephalocele specifically involves the brain tissue. Anencephaly is a severe neural tube defect where a large portion of the brain and skull are missing. Subgleal hemorrhage refers to bleeding beneath the scalp and is unrelated to the given findings.

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