Mini-end Of Module 5
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- 1.
All of the following are not true aboute dabigatrane except:
- A.
It undergo cytoplasmic p450 metabolism
- B.
It is irriversible competitive inhibitor of thrombin
- C.
It require frequant laboratory monitoring of clotting parameter
- D.
It has few drug -food interaction
- E.
It isnot potent and has many drug -drug interaction
Correct Answer
D. It has few drug -food interactionExplanation
Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor that does not undergo cytoplasmic P450 metabolism. It is an irreversible competitive inhibitor of thrombin, meaning it binds to thrombin and inhibits its activity. Unlike traditional anticoagulants like warfarin, dabigatran does not require frequent laboratory monitoring of clotting parameters. It has few drug-food interactions, which means it can be taken with most foods without affecting its effectiveness. However, it is a potent drug and has many drug-drug interactions, meaning it can interact with other medications and potentially cause adverse effects.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A 50 year old female had come to the hospital 6 monthes ago suffering from severe pain in his right side investigations showed that she has proteinurea and she had been diagnosed as chronic renal failure she undergo dialysis and now she suffer from decreased in heamatocrite value that indicate that she has a severe anemia .. so the drug of choice for treatment of this case is:
- A.
Metformine
- B.
Erythropoitein
- C.
Methotrexate
- D.
Cyanochobolamine oral tablet
Correct Answer
B. ErythropoiteinExplanation
The correct answer for the treatment of severe anemia in a patient with chronic renal failure is erythropoietin. Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow. In patients with chronic renal failure, the kidneys are unable to produce enough erythropoietin, leading to anemia. By administering erythropoietin, the patient's red blood cell production can be increased, helping to alleviate the anemia.Rate this question:
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- 3.
All of the following are true about crenation except
- A.
RBCs lose thier content of water and shrinkage occure
- B.
It occure when RBCsbis present in hypotonic solution
- C.
Their surface is not uniform with spiny protrusions
- D.
This process called echinocytosis
Correct Answer
B. It occure when RBCsbis present in hypotonic solutionExplanation
Crenation refers to the process in which red blood cells lose water and shrink. This occurs when the RBCs are present in a hypertonic solution, not a hypotonic solution. In a hypotonic solution, RBCs would swell and potentially burst due to the influx of water. Therefore, the statement that crenation occurs when RBCs are present in a hypotonic solution is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 4.
All of the following are of the content of eosinophils except :
- A.
Mojor basic proteins
- B.
Peroxidase enzyme
- C.
Histamin granules
- D.
Lysosomal hydrolytic enzymes
Correct Answer
D. Lysosomal hydrolytic enzymesExplanation
Eosinophils are a type of white blood cells that play a role in the immune response against parasitic infections and allergic reactions. They contain several components that aid in their functions, such as major basic proteins, peroxidase enzyme, and histamine granules. However, they do not contain lysosomal hydrolytic enzymes. These enzymes are typically found in other types of white blood cells, such as neutrophils and macrophages, and are responsible for breaking down cellular debris and pathogens.Rate this question:
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- 5.
-lymphocytosis occure in all of the following except
- A.
Lymphatic leukemia
- B.
Syphilis
- C.
Tuberculosis
- D.
Small box infection
Correct Answer
D. Small box infectionExplanation
Lymphocytosis is the condition characterized by an abnormally high number of lymphocytes in the blood. Lymphatic leukemia, syphilis, and tuberculosis are all known to cause lymphocytosis. However, smallpox infection does not typically result in lymphocytosis. Therefore, the correct answer is smallpox infection.Rate this question:
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- 6.
According to the cortex of the thymic lobule which is false:
- A.
T-lymphocytes present with all thier sizes
- B.
Epithelial reticular cells are of the content
- C.
They donnot has reticular connective tissue
- D.
Contain mocrophages larger in number than that of the medulla
- E.
Non of them is false
Correct Answer
E. Non of them is false -
- 7.
All of the following are ag presenting cell excepet
- A.
Follicular dendritic cell of the stromal lymph nodes
- B.
Langerhans dendritic cell of the skin
- C.
Macrophages
- D.
Epithelial reticular cell of the thymus
Correct Answer
A. Follicular dendritic cell of the stromal lympH nodesExplanation
The correct answer is follicular dendritic cell of the stromal lymph nodes. This is because all other options listed (langerhans dendritic cell of the skin, macrophages, and epithelial reticular cell of the thymus) are examples of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) that play a role in the immune response. Follicular dendritic cells, however, are not considered true APCs as they do not directly present antigens to T cells. Instead, they capture and display antigens to B cells, aiding in the generation of antibody responses.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Concerning the structure of the marginal zone of the spleen, the true statement is
- A.
Contain B,T lymphocytes
- B.
Contain macrophages
- C.
Contain APCs
- D.
Doesn't contain plasma cells
Correct Answer
D. Doesn't contain plasma cellsExplanation
The marginal zone of the spleen does not contain plasma cells. Plasma cells are typically found in the red pulp of the spleen, where they produce antibodies. The marginal zone, on the other hand, is a specialized area that separates the white pulp from the red pulp and is primarily composed of B and T lymphocytes, macrophages, and antigen-presenting cells (APCs). These cells play important roles in immune responses, such as antigen presentation and activation of B and T cells. However, plasma cells are not typically found in the marginal zone.Rate this question:
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- 9.
All of the following are true about daap inguinal lymph nodes except :
- A.
They are few in number
- B.
They lie deep to the upper part of fascia lata lateral to femoral vein
- C.
They drain popliteal lymph nodes
- D.
They drain external illiac lymph nodes
Correct Answer
B. They lie deep to the upper part of fascia lata lateral to femoral veinExplanation
The given statement is incorrect because the daap inguinal lymph nodes actually lie superficial to the upper part of the fascia lata, not deep to it. They are located lateral to the femoral vein. The other statements are true, as the daap inguinal lymph nodes are few in number, drain popliteal lymph nodes, and drain external iliac lymph nodes.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Lymphatic arround cephalic vein drain into
- A.
Apical lymph nodes
- B.
Brachial lymph nodes
- C.
Subscapular lymph node
- D.
Centeral lymph nodes
Correct Answer
A. Apical lympH nodesExplanation
The lymphatic vessels around the cephalic vein drain into the apical lymph nodes.Rate this question:
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- 11.
All of the following is false about spleen except :
- A.
It lies parallel to the right ribs nomber 9,10,11 with long axis parallel to 10th rib
- B.
Its lower border is sharp and notched
- C.
Renal impression is found above the hilum
- D.
Lienorenal ligament is from lower border of spleen to the anterior surface of the kidney
Correct Answer
D. Lienorenal ligament is from lower border of spleen to the anterior surface of the kidneyExplanation
The correct answer is "lienorenal ligament is from lower border of spleen to the anterior surface of the kidney." This statement is false because the lienorenal ligament actually connects the spleen to the posterior surface of the kidney, not the anterior surface.Rate this question:
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- 12.
All of the following is true about erythropoitein hormone except
- A.
The stimulus causes its production is hypoxia
- B.
Most of it is secreted by the kidney
- C.
This hormone is mainly formed of glycoprotein
- D.
When level of o2 transported to the tissue raised above normal the rate of erythropoitein formation increasedÂ
- E.
Both c & d
Correct Answer
D. When level of o2 transported to the tissue raised above normal the rate of erythropoitein formation increasedÂExplanation
The correct answer is "when level of O2 transported to the tissue raised above normal the rate of erythropoietin formation increased". This statement is not true because the production of erythropoietin is stimulated by hypoxia, not by an increase in the level of O2 transported to the tissue.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A nuclear explosion occured , many people dead the most common cause for their death is
- A.
Aplastic anemia
- B.
Hypoplastic anemia
- C.
Heamolytic anemia
- D.
Blood loss anemia
Correct Answer
A. Aplastic anemiaExplanation
In a nuclear explosion, the release of high levels of radiation can cause severe damage to the bone marrow, where blood cells are produced. Aplastic anemia occurs when the bone marrow is unable to produce enough red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. This leads to a decrease in the number of these cells in the bloodstream, resulting in a weakened immune system, increased risk of infections, and abnormal bleeding. Therefore, aplastic anemia is the most likely cause of death in individuals exposed to a nuclear explosion due to the radiation-induced damage to the bone marrow.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Blood group O+ persons has the following AB
- A.
Anti- a
- B.
Anti-b
- C.
Anti-D
- D.
All excepet c
- E.
All of them
Correct Answer
E. All of themExplanation
The answer "all of them" implies that individuals with blood group O+ have all of the listed antibodies (anti-a, anti-b, anti-D), except for antibody c. This suggests that individuals with blood group O+ have antibodies against both the A and B antigens present on red blood cells, as well as the D antigen (the Rh factor). However, they do not have antibody c.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Clotting can be prevented in vitro in case of
- A.
Deionizing ca+2 by reacting with sodium oxalate
- B.
Precipetating ca+2 with a substrate such as sodium oxalate
- C.
Precipetating ca+2 by substrate such as sodium citrate
- D.
Non of them
Correct Answer
B. Precipetating ca+2 with a substrate such as sodium oxalateExplanation
Precipitating Ca+2 with a substrate such as sodium oxalate can prevent clotting in vitro. This is because sodium oxalate reacts with Ca+2 ions, causing them to form a precipitate and become unavailable for clotting reactions. By removing Ca+2 ions from the blood, the clotting process is inhibited. Sodium citrate is not effective in preventing clotting as it does not precipitate Ca+2 ions. Deionizing Ca+2 by reacting with sodium oxalate is not a valid explanation as it does not specify how deionizing Ca+2 prevents clotting.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The following can be only present as in vivo anticoagulant except
- A.
Heparin
- B.
LMWH
- C.
Warfarine
- D.
Non of them
Correct Answer
A. HeparinExplanation
Heparin is the correct answer because it is the only option that can be present as an in vivo anticoagulant. Heparin is a naturally occurring anticoagulant that is commonly used in medical settings to prevent blood clotting. It works by inhibiting the activity of certain clotting factors in the blood. LMWH (low molecular weight heparin) is a derivative of heparin and also functions as an anticoagulant. Warfarin, on the other hand, is an oral anticoagulant that works by interfering with the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver. Therefore, heparin is the only option that is specifically used as an in vivo anticoagulant.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Maturation factors is/are
- A.
Vit B12
- B.
Vitamin C
- C.
Folic acid
- D.
Copper
- E.
A,b are correct
Correct Answer
E. A,b are correctExplanation
Maturation factors are substances that are necessary for the proper development and maturation of cells and tissues. In this case, vitamin B12, vitamin C, folic acid, and copper are all considered maturation factors. Therefore, the correct answer is that options a and b (vitamin B12 and vitamin C) are correct. These vitamins play essential roles in various physiological processes, including cell division, DNA synthesis, and collagen formation, which are crucial for proper maturation and development.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Normocytic normochromic anemia is charctarized by all of the following except
- A.
Occur in acute loss of blood and acute heamolytic anemia
- B.
Decrease RBCs content
- C.
Decreased haemoglobin
- D.
Normal hematocrite
Correct Answer
D. Normal hematocriteExplanation
Normocytic normochromic anemia is characterized by a normal hematocrit level. This means that the percentage of red blood cells in the blood is within the normal range. The other options listed, such as occurring in acute loss of blood and acute hemolytic anemia, decreased RBCs content, and decreased hemoglobin, are all characteristics of normocytic normochromic anemia. However, a normal hematocrit level is not a characteristic of this type of anemia.Rate this question:
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- 19.
All of the following are true about protein c except :
- A.
Found in the liver
- B.
Inhibit activity of both V , Vlll
- C.
Thrombine- thrombomoduline inhibit protein c
- D.
This protein cannot act without its cofactor protein S
Correct Answer
C. Thrombine- thrombomoduline inhibit protein cExplanation
Protein C is a protein that is found in the liver and is involved in inhibiting the activity of both factors V and VIII in the blood clotting cascade. It requires its cofactor protein S to function properly. However, thrombin-thrombomodulin does not inhibit protein C.Rate this question:
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- 20.
-all of the following are true about idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura except
- A.
It is autoimmune disease
- B.
Person has tendency to bleedfrom small capillaries more than large one
- C.
This disease cannot be treated because it is an autoimmune disease
- D.
Skin of this person has many small purplish blotches
Correct Answer
C. This disease cannot be treated because it is an autoimmune diseaseExplanation
The given answer states that "this disease cannot be treated because it is an autoimmune disease." This is incorrect because idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) can be treated, even though it is an autoimmune disease. Treatment options for ITP may include medications to increase platelet count, immunosuppressive therapy, or in severe cases, removal of the spleen. Therefore, the statement that ITP cannot be treated due to its autoimmune nature is not true.Rate this question:
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- 21.
All of the following are correct about heamoglobin synthesis except
- A.
Synthesis of coporphyrinogen is in the cytosole
- B.
Protoprphyrinogen III formed in mitochondoria
- C.
Porphyrinogen is coulerless
- D.
Porphyrines contain 6 extra hydrogen atomes compaired to porphyrinogen
Correct Answer
D. PorpHyrines contain 6 extra hydrogen atomes compaired to porpHyrinogenExplanation
The correct answer is "porphyrines contain 6 extra hydrogen atoms compared to porphyrinogen." This statement is incorrect because porphyrins and porphyrinogens have the same number of hydrogen atoms. Porphyrinogens are the precursors of porphyrins and undergo a chemical reaction called oxidation to form porphyrins. During this process, the porphyrinogen loses six hydrogen atoms, resulting in the formation of porphyrins. Therefore, porphyrins have six fewer hydrogen atoms compared to porphyrinogens.Rate this question:
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- 22.
All of the following is considered true about alpha type of thalassaemias except
- A.
There is decrease or abscent B-chain of heamoglobin
- B.
It is a type of heridatery haemolytic disease
- C.
HbH disease is subtype of it
- D.
It occure due to mutation in regulatory gene
Correct Answer
A. There is decrease or abscent B-chain of heamoglobinExplanation
The given answer is incorrect because the correct statement about alpha type of thalassaemias is that there is a decrease or absent A-chain of hemoglobin, not B-chain. Thalassemias are a group of inherited hemolytic diseases characterized by abnormal production of hemoglobin chains. In alpha thalassemia, there is a reduced or absent production of alpha globin chains, leading to an imbalance in the production of hemoglobin chains. This can result in various subtypes of alpha thalassemia, including HbH disease. The condition is caused by mutations in the regulatory genes that control the production of alpha globin chains.Rate this question:
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- 23.
All are true about congenital methmoglobinemia except
- A.
It may be due to mutation in globin biosynthesis
- B.
It may be due to defficiecy of NADH CYT b5 reductase system
- C.
Treatment with reducing agent is effiecient in case of Met Hb Reductase defficiency
- D.
In case of Hb-M ..treatment with reducing agent is efficient
Correct Answer
D. In case of Hb-M ..treatment with reducing agent is efficient -
- 24.
All of the following is true about immunoglobulin except:
- A.
It is composed of 2 light and 2 heavy chain
- B.
There are 5 types of heavy chains with high molecular weight
- C.
Each 2 heavy chains are linked by disulphide bond
- D.
Each immunoglobuline has 2 binding site which are different
Correct Answer
D. Each immunoglobuline has 2 binding site which are differentExplanation
The given answer is correct because immunoglobulin, also known as an antibody, has two identical binding sites, not two different binding sites. Each immunoglobulin molecule has two identical antigen-binding sites, allowing it to bind to specific antigens with high specificity. This characteristic is crucial for its role in the immune response, as it allows antibodies to recognize and neutralize a wide range of foreign substances in the body.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What is correct about immunoglobulin E
- A.
Present on the surface of B lymphocytes
- B.
It is produced in 1ry immune response
- C.
When antigen bind to this immunoglobulin they cause vasoconstriction and urtecaria
- D.
IgE protect agaisnt parasidic infection
Correct Answer
D. IgE protect agaisnt parasidic infectionExplanation
IgE is correct in protecting against parasitic infections. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is a type of antibody that is involved in the immune response against parasites such as worms and protozoa. When these parasites enter the body, IgE binds to them, triggering an immune response that helps to eliminate the parasites. This immune response can include vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels) and urticaria (hives), which are symptoms commonly associated with allergic reactions. However, it is important to note that IgE is not solely responsible for these symptoms and that other immune cells and molecules also play a role in the response to parasites.Rate this question:
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- 26.
According to sickle cell disease which is false
- A.
Electrophoresis show HbA , HbS
- B.
Reticulocyte content 10-2-%
- C.
RBCs are easily fragile easily traped inBVs leading to thrombus
- D.
Sticky patches present on both oxy and deoxy heamoglobinS
Correct Answer
A. ElectropHoresis show HbA , HbSExplanation
The given statement that electrophoresis shows HbA and HbS is false. Electrophoresis is a laboratory technique used to separate different molecules based on their size and charge. In the case of sickle cell disease, electrophoresis would show the presence of HbS (sickle hemoglobin) but not HbA (normal adult hemoglobin). HbA is typically found in individuals without sickle cell disease, while HbS is the abnormal form of hemoglobin that causes the characteristic sickling of red blood cells.Rate this question:
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