1.
What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence numbers in a segment?
(Choose two.)
Correct Answer(s)
A. To identify missing segments at the destination
B. To reassemble the segments at the remote location
Explanation
TCP uses sequence numbers in a segment to identify missing segments at the destination, allowing the receiver to request retransmission of any missing segments. Additionally, TCP uses sequence numbers to reassemble the segments at the remote location in the correct order, ensuring that the data is received as intended.
2.
Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer(s)
A. UDP provides connectionless, fast transport of data at Layer 4.
C. UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.
D. UDP works well when an application does not need to guarantee delivery of data.
Explanation
UDP is a protocol that operates at Layer 4 of the OSI model. It provides a connectionless and fast transport of data, meaning that it does not establish a formal connection before transmitting data and does not guarantee delivery of data. UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection, as it does not have built-in error checking mechanisms. Therefore, it works well for applications that do not require reliable delivery of data, such as streaming media or real-time communication.
3.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a data packet to host B. What will be
the addressing information of the data packet when it reaches host B?
A: B: C: D:
Correct Answer
A. Image A
Explanation
The addressing information of the data packet when it reaches host B will be as shown in Image A.
4.
Which layer of the OSI model defines logical addressing?
Correct Answer
E. Network
Explanation
The network layer of the OSI model is responsible for logical addressing. This means that it assigns unique addresses to devices on a network, allowing them to communicate with each other. Logical addresses, such as IP addresses, are used to identify the source and destination of data packets. The network layer also determines the best path for data transmission and handles routing protocols. Therefore, the network layer is the correct answer for this question.
5.
Which device connects a local LAN to a geographically separate network?
Correct Answer
C. Router
Explanation
A router is a device that connects a local LAN (Local Area Network) to a geographically separate network. It is responsible for directing network traffic between different networks, such as connecting a home network to the internet. Routers use routing tables to determine the best path for data packets to travel from one network to another. Unlike switches and hubs, which are used to connect devices within a local network, routers are specifically designed to connect different networks together. A bridge is used to connect two local networks, while a switch is used to connect multiple devices within a local network.
6.
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 receives packets addressed as follows:
Source IP address: 192.168.1.88Destination IP address:
172.16.0.3Source MAC address: 00-11-12-7a-41-10Destination MAC
address: 00-11-5c-cc-a9-c0Source Port: 1464Destination Port: 23
Assuming that Router1 has not been configured with NAT, what will
happen to the packets?
Correct Answer
D. The packets will be sent to Router1 and dropped because private addresses are not transmitted across the Internet.
Explanation
The packets will be sent to Router1 and dropped because private addresses are not transmitted across the Internet. Private IP addresses, such as 192.168.1.88, are used for internal networks and are not routable on the internet. Therefore, when Router1 receives packets with a private source IP address, it will drop them as it cannot forward them to the destination IP address on the internet.
7.
Refer to the exhibit. If host 1 was to send an HTTP request to the web
server that connects to Router2, what type of Layer 2 frame would be
sent between Router1 and the ISP?
Correct Answer
B. A frame with a header and trailer, but no MAC addresses
Explanation
When host 1 sends an HTTP request to the web server that connects to Router2, the Layer 2 frame that would be sent between Router1 and the ISP would not contain MAC addresses. This is because at Layer 2, the frames are encapsulated with MAC addresses for communication within a local network. However, when the frame is sent to the ISP, it is stripped of the MAC addresses and encapsulated with Layer 3 IP addresses for communication over the internet. Therefore, the frame would have a header and trailer, but no MAC addresses.
8.
A company needs to connect an office router to a service provider to
access a WAN. What device is needed to connect the router to the ISP if
the service provider supplies a T1 line for the connection?
Correct Answer
A. A CSU/DSU
Explanation
A CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit) is needed to connect the office router to the ISP if the service provider supplies a T1 line for the connection. A CSU/DSU is a device that provides the necessary interface between the router and the T1 line. It converts the digital data from the router into a format that can be transmitted over the T1 line and vice versa. It also performs functions such as line conditioning and synchronization, ensuring a reliable and efficient connection between the router and the ISP.
9.
Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the
exhibit to an unconfigured router. To verify the configuration, the
technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI
session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see
in the router output from the show running-config command?
Correct Answer
E. Enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A
Explanation
The technician should expect to see the lines "enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0", "enable password 7 14141E0A1F17", "line console 0", and "password 7 020507550A" in the router output from the show running-config command. These lines indicate that the router has been configured with an enable secret password, an enable password, a console line, and a password for the console line. The passwords are encrypted using different encryption methods, such as MD5 and type 7 encryption.
10.
Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will
the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?
Correct Answer
E. BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB
Explanation
When host A sends an IP packet to host B, the destination address in the frame when it leaves host A will be BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB.
11.
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the output
of the ping command? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer(s)
C. One packet timed out.
E. Four packets of data were successfully received.
Explanation
From the output of the ping command, two facts can be determined. Firstly, one packet timed out, which means that the destination did not respond to that particular packet. Secondly, four packets of data were successfully received, indicating that the majority of the packets sent were received without any issues.
12.
Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration.
Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the
MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive
the ARP request sent by host A?
Correct Answer
E. Only hosts B, C, and router R1
Explanation
Host A needs to communicate with host D, but it does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. In order to obtain the MAC address, host A will send an ARP request. This request will be broadcasted to all hosts within the same network segment, which includes hosts B and C. Additionally, the request will also be sent to the router R1, as it is the default gateway for host A. Therefore, the ARP request will be received by hosts B, C, and router R1.
13.
Refer to the exhibit. Which password will the administrator need to use
on this device to enter privileged EXEC mode?
Correct Answer
D. Cisco
Explanation
The administrator will need to use the password "cisco" to enter privileged EXEC mode on this device.
14.
Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 has only the following commands added to a
default Cisco 2960 configuration:
enable secret cisco
line vty 0 4
password Kn0ckkn-cK
login
interface vlan 1
ip address 10.0.1.8 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
Assume that routing between networks is functioning properly and
that Switch2 has been properly configured for remote access. What would
the result be if the telnet 10.0.2.2 command is issued from
Switch1 privileged mode?
Correct Answer
D. The packet would be dropped.
Explanation
The exhibit shows that Switch1 has been configured with an IP address of 10.0.1.8/24 on VLAN 1. However, there is no default gateway configured on Switch1. Therefore, when the telnet 10.0.2.2 command is issued from Switch1, the packet would be sent to the destination IP address 10.0.2.2, but since there is no default gateway, Switch1 does not know how to reach that destination network. As a result, the packet would be dropped.
15.
What caused the following error message to appear?
01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on
Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state 01:11:12:
%PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused
by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.01:11:13:
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed
state to down 01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8,
changed state to down
Correct Answer
E. Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.
Explanation
An unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8 because port security was enabled on the switch port.
16.
When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections,
what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?
Correct Answer
C. Create a public and private key pair
Explanation
The purpose of the "crypto key generate rsa" command is to create a public and private key pair. This key pair is necessary for establishing a secure SSH (Secure Shell) connection between the switch and the client. The public key is used to encrypt data sent from the client to the switch, while the private key is used to decrypt the data on the switch. This ensures that the communication between the switch and the client is secure and protected from unauthorized access.
17.
Which three statements are true about full-duplex operation on an
Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer(s)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each node.
E. The host network card and the switch port must both be in full-duplex mode.
Explanation
In full-duplex mode on an Ethernet network, there are no collisions because data can be transmitted and received simultaneously. A dedicated switch port is required for each node to enable full-duplex communication. Additionally, both the host network card and the switch port must be in full-duplex mode to ensure proper communication.
18.
Correct Answer
B. 2
19.
Reference Only.. Choose Answer A
Correct Answer
A. A
20.
Refer to the exhibit. The devices have been configured with static IP
addresses as shown. All hosts can communicate with each other but none
of the hosts can communicate with the server. What is the cause of this
problem?
Correct Answer
A. The IP address that is assigned to the server is in an incorrect subnet.
Explanation
The devices in the network have been configured with static IP addresses, but the server's IP address is in an incorrect subnet. This means that the server's IP address does not match the subnet mask used by the other devices in the network. As a result, the server cannot communicate with the other hosts because they are in different subnets.
21.
A network host has the IP address 10.250.206.55/20. How many more
network devices can be added to this same subnetwork?
Correct Answer
E. 4093
Explanation
The given IP address 10.250.206.55/20 indicates that it belongs to a subnet with a subnet mask of 20 bits. In a subnet with a 20-bit mask, the first 20 bits are used for the network address, leaving 12 bits for host addresses. With 12 bits, there are 2^12 (4096) possible host addresses. However, some of these addresses are reserved for network and broadcast addresses. In this case, the network address is 10.250.192.0 and the broadcast address is 10.250.207.255, leaving 4094 usable host addresses. Therefore, 4093 more network devices can be added to this same subnetwork.
22.
Which type of Network Address Translation allows a host on a public
network consistent access to a specified private inside host?
Correct Answer
B. Static NAT
Explanation
Static NAT allows a host on a public network to have consistent access to a specified private inside host. With static NAT, a one-to-one mapping is created between the public IP address and the private IP address, ensuring that the inside host always has the same public IP address when communicating with the outside network. This allows for consistent and predictable access to the inside host from the public network.
23.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses are "inside global" addresses?
(Choose two.)
Correct Answer(s)
C. 198.133.219.35
E. 198.133.219.44
Explanation
The "inside global" addresses are the public IP addresses that are used on the outside network. In this case, the addresses 198.133.219.35 and 198.133.219.44 are the only ones that belong to the public IP address range, which makes them the "inside global" addresses. The other addresses (192.168.7.3, 64.100.1.5, and 192.168.7.2) are private IP addresses and therefore not considered "inside global" addresses.
24.
Which addresses are valid host IP addresses given the subnet mask
255.255.255.248? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer(s)
C. 223.168.210.100
D. 220.100.100.154
E. 196.123.142.190
Explanation
The subnet mask 255.255.255.248 indicates that the network portion of the IP address is the first 29 bits, leaving the last 3 bits for host addresses. In binary, this subnet mask is represented as 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. This means that the valid host IP addresses must have the last 3 bits set to any value other than all zeros (network address) or all ones (broadcast address). Among the given options, 223.168.210.100, 220.100.100.154, and 196.123.142.190 have the last 3 bits set to non-zero values, making them valid host IP addresses.
25.
The router receives a packet with the destination address of
172.16.30.79. To which subnetwork does this packet belong?
Correct Answer
D. 172.16.28.0/22
Explanation
The given packet with the destination address of 172.16.30.79 belongs to the subnetwork 172.16.28.0/22. This is because the destination IP address falls within the range of the subnet 172.16.28.0 to 172.16.31.255, which is defined by the /22 subnet mask. The other subnetwork options do not encompass the given IP address.
26.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the broadcast address for the subnetwork
on which host A resides?
Correct Answer
E. 10.159.255.255
Explanation
The broadcast address is the highest address in a subnetwork and is used to send a message to all devices on that subnetwork. In this case, the broadcast address for the subnetwork on which host A resides would be 10.159.255.255. This is because the given IP addresses are all in the range of 10.x.x.x, and the highest value for the third octet is 159. Therefore, the broadcast address would have the same first three octets (10.159) and the highest value for the fourth octet (255).
27.
Reference only. Choose Answer B
Correct Answer
B. B
28.
What can a network administrator modify on a router to specify the
location from which the Cisco IOS loads? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer(s)
B. The startup configuration file
D. The configuration register value
Explanation
A network administrator can modify the startup configuration file on a router to specify the location from which the Cisco IOS loads. This file contains the configuration settings for the router and can be modified to specify the location of the IOS image file. The administrator can also modify the configuration register value, which is a 16-bit value that determines how the router boots up and where it looks for the IOS image file. By changing this value, the administrator can specify the location from which the IOS loads.
29.
Which two items are required for initial configuration of Cisco routers
if the IOS command-line interface is used? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer(s)
B. A rollover cable
D. Terminal emulation software
Explanation
A rollover cable is required for initial configuration of Cisco routers because it is used to connect the router's console port to a computer's serial port. This allows the user to access the router's command-line interface for configuration. Terminal emulation software is also required as it provides the user interface for accessing and configuring the router through the console connection.
30.
Refer to the exhibit. The router named "myhome" has received a frame
from the host 192.168.254.7. The contents of this frame are being sent
to host 172.16.14.243. What is the Layer 2 destination address of the
frame as it leaves the myhome router?
Correct Answer
A. 0008.a3b6.ce05
Explanation
The Layer 2 destination address of the frame as it leaves the "myhome" router is 0008.a3b6.ce05.
31.
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the network
from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer(s)
B. The Negril router is connected to the S0/1 interface of the MontegoBay router.
E. Layer 2 is operational on three ports of the MontegoBay router.
Explanation
Based on the exhibited output, we can determine that the Negril router is connected to the S0/1 interface of the MontegoBay router. This can be inferred from the information provided in the exhibit. Additionally, we can also determine that Layer 2 is operational on three ports of the MontegoBay router. This suggests that the data link layer is functioning properly on those three ports of the router.
32.
Which set of commands is used to name a router and save the
configuration?
Correct Answer
B. Router(config)# hostname South
South(config)# exit
South# copy running-config startup-config
Explanation
The set of commands "Router(config)# hostname South" is used to name the router as "South". The command "South(config)# exit" is used to exit the configuration mode. Finally, the command "South# copy running-config startup-config" is used to save the configuration by copying the running configuration to the startup configuration.
33.
Which command is used to create an encrypted password that restricts
access to the privileged EXEC mode of a Cisco router?
Correct Answer
D. RouterA(config)# enable secret cisco
Explanation
The correct answer is "RouterA(config)# enable secret cisco". This command is used to create an encrypted password that restricts access to the privileged EXEC mode of a Cisco router. The "enable secret" command encrypts the password using a strong encryption algorithm, providing an added layer of security compared to the other options listed.
34.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator working at HostA has
problems accessing the FTP server. Layer 3 connectivity testing was
successful from HostA to the S0/0/1 interface of RouterB. Which set of
commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB to
check its status?
Correct Answer
B. RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
Explanation
The correct set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB to check its status. The "enable secret class" command sets the privileged EXEC mode password to "class". The "line vty 0" command specifies the virtual terminal lines and the number 0 indicates the first line. The "password cisco" command sets the password for the virtual terminal line to "cisco". The "login" command enables login authentication on the virtual terminal line.
35.
What is the purpose of using SSH to connect to a router?
Correct Answer
B. It allows a secure remote connection to the router command line interface.
Explanation
Using SSH to connect to a router allows for a secure remote connection to the router's command line interface. This means that administrators can access and configure the router's settings and commands remotely while ensuring that the connection is encrypted and secure. This is important for maintaining the confidentiality and integrity of the network, as it prevents unauthorized access and protects sensitive information from being intercepted or tampered with during the connection process.
36.
Which two statements describe the command ip route 192.168.7.24
255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer(s)
A. A packet that is destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.
E. This command is used to define a static route.
Explanation
The command "ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9" is used to define a static route. It specifies that any packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 should be forwarded to the address 192.168.7.9.
37.
Which protocol is described as an enhanced distance vector routing
protocol?
Correct Answer
C. EIGRP
Explanation
EIGRP is described as an enhanced distance vector routing protocol. It is an advanced version of the distance vector protocol that includes additional features such as support for multiple network layer protocols, faster convergence, and more efficient use of bandwidth. EIGRP uses a combination of distance vector and link-state routing algorithms, making it more scalable and flexible than traditional distance vector protocols like RIP.
38.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator can successfully ping,
using IP addresses, between router Jax and router Atlanta. However, when
the command telnet Atlanta is entered from the Jax router, the
Telnet connection fails. Which two reasons could be the cause of the
failure? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer(s)
B. The Jax router does not have an entry for Atlanta in its host table.
E. Access to a DNS server is not available.
Explanation
The first reason for the Telnet connection failure could be that the Jax router does not have an entry for Atlanta in its host table. This means that the Jax router does not have the necessary information to route the Telnet connection to the Atlanta router. The second reason could be that access to a DNS server is not available. Without access to a DNS server, the Jax router cannot resolve the hostname "Atlanta" to its corresponding IP address, preventing the Telnet connection from being established.
39.
From what two locations can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot
process? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer(s)
B. TFTP server
E. Flash memory
Explanation
During the boot process, a router can load the Cisco IOS from two locations: TFTP server and Flash memory. TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) server is a network protocol used to transfer files over a network. The router can retrieve the Cisco IOS image from a TFTP server located on the network. Flash memory, on the other hand, is a non-volatile storage location on the router where the Cisco IOS image can be stored and loaded during the boot process.
40.
Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of ROM in
a router? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer(s)
C. Maintains instructions for POST diagnostics
E. Stores bootstrap program
Explanation
ROM in a router maintains instructions for POST diagnostics, which means it holds the necessary instructions for the Power-On Self-Test (POST) process that checks the router's hardware components during startup. Additionally, ROM stores the bootstrap program, which is responsible for initiating the router's operating system. These two functions are essential for the proper functioning and booting of the router.
41.
Which two statements correctly identify the function of router memory
components? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer(s)
B. ROM contains diagnostic self test procedures executed on hardware modules.
D. Flash memory does not lose its contents when a router is powered off.
42.
Which router component holds the routing table, ARP cache, and running
configuration file?
Correct Answer
A. RAM
Explanation
RAM, or Random Access Memory, is the correct answer because it is a type of computer memory that is used to store data and instructions that are currently being used by the router. It holds the routing table, ARP cache, and running configuration file, which are all essential components for the router's operation. Flash memory is used to store the router's operating system, NVRAM is used to store the startup configuration file, and ROM is a type of memory that stores firmware and bootstrap code.
43.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator can ping the Denver
router, but gets a 'Password Required but None Set' message when trying
to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command or sequence of commands
must be applied to the Denver router to allow remote access?
Correct Answer
B. Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Explanation
The correct answer is to apply the commands "Router(config)# line vty 0 4", "Router(config-line)# login", and "Router(config-line)# password cisco". These commands configure the virtual terminal lines on the Denver router to allow remote access. The "line vty 0 4" command specifies the range of virtual terminal lines to be configured, "login" enables login authentication, and "password cisco" sets the password for remote access. This will resolve the issue of getting a 'Password Required but None Set' message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet.
44.
For Reference Only... Choose Answer C...
Correct Answer
C. C
45.
Which security method uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)?
Correct Answer
D. WPA2
Explanation
WPA2 is the security method that uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES). AES is a symmetric encryption algorithm that is widely used for securing sensitive data. It provides a high level of security and is considered to be one of the most secure encryption algorithms available. WPA2, which stands for Wi-Fi Protected Access 2, is a security protocol used to secure wireless networks. It incorporates AES encryption to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of data transmitted over the network.
46.
What is the purpose of WEP?
Correct Answer
A. It encrypts data.
Explanation
WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is a security protocol used to encrypt data in a wireless network. It provides a level of security by encrypting the data packets transmitted over the network, making it difficult for unauthorized users to intercept and decipher the information. This helps to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the data being transmitted. WEP uses a shared key authentication and RC4 encryption algorithm to provide this encryption. However, it is important to note that WEP has been found to have vulnerabilities and is no longer considered a secure encryption method.
47.
A company has an 802.11b wireless access point installed. Which type of
wireless NIC is a valid standards-based one but will not work in
this environment?
Correct Answer
A. 802.11a
Explanation
The 802.11a wireless NIC is a valid standards-based option, but it will not work in an environment with an 802.11b wireless access point. This is because 802.11a and 802.11b use different frequencies and modulation techniques. 802.11a operates in the 5 GHz frequency range, while 802.11b operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency range. Therefore, the 802.11a NIC will not be able to communicate with the 802.11b access point.
48.
For Reference Only... Choose D...
Correct Answer
D. D
49.
A company has a sales team that travels with laptops. On Fridays, the
sales members come into assigned cubicles and connect their laptop to
the wired network. The company is concerned that unauthorized users
could also connect to the network. What can be done to ensure that
unauthorized laptops are not connected to the wired network?
Correct Answer
C. Use switch port security.
Explanation
Switch port security is a feature that can be implemented to ensure that unauthorized laptops are not connected to the wired network. This feature allows the network administrator to specify which devices are allowed to connect to specific switch ports. By configuring switch port security, only authorized devices, such as the laptops of the sales team, will be able to connect to the network through the assigned cubicles. This helps to prevent unauthorized users from accessing the network and ensures the security of the company's data and resources.
50.
Refer to the exhibit. For security reasons, information about the HQ R1
router model and IP address should not be accessible from the Site 2 R2
router. What security measure should be implemented?
Correct Answer
D. Disable CDP on the R1 interface that connects to R2.
Explanation
To prevent the Site 2 R2 router from accessing information about the HQ R1 router model and IP address, the security measure that should be implemented is to disable CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) on the R1 interface that connects to R2. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol used for discovering and sharing information about neighboring devices, including their model and IP address. By disabling CDP on the specific interface, the R2 router will not receive any information about the R1 router, ensuring the desired security.