Pumping Test: Trivia Quiz! MCQ

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Pumping Test: Trivia Quiz! MCQ - Quiz

In many communities, groundwater is extracted through electric water pumps, which use diesel to fuel their systems. For one to operate pumping equipment, they require knowledge of handling and maintenance. Take the test below and see if you have what it takes to handle the job. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A fire apparatus with a primary purpose of transporting 1,000 or more gallons of water is considered to be a/an. 

    • A.

      attack pumper

    • B.

      aerial device

    • C.

      midi pumper

    • D.

      Tanker/tender

    Correct Answer
    D. Tanker/tender
    Explanation
    A fire apparatus with a primary purpose of transporting 1,000 or more gallons of water is considered to be a tanker/tender. This type of vehicle is specifically designed to carry large amounts of water to a fire scene, where it can be used to extinguish the fire. Tanker/tenders are commonly used in areas where there is limited access to a water supply, such as rural or remote locations. They play a crucial role in firefighting operations by providing a supplemental water source to other fire apparatus on the scene.

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  • 2. 

    Keeping apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness is known as: 

    • A.

      Repair

    • B.

      maintenance

    • C.

      Reliability

    • D.

      Trouble shooting

    Correct Answer
    B. maintenance
    Explanation
    Maintenance refers to the act of keeping an apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness. It involves regular inspections, repairs, and replacements to ensure that the equipment functions properly and efficiently. Maintenance is essential to prevent breakdowns, extend the lifespan of the apparatus, and minimize downtime. It includes tasks such as cleaning, lubricating, calibrating, and adjusting the equipment. By performing regular maintenance, potential issues can be identified and addressed before they escalate into major problems, ensuring the apparatus remains reliable and operational.

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  • 3. 

    Checking for voltage, electrolyte level, and corrosion are all steps in inspecting:

    • A.

      Electronic components

    • B.

      The voltage regulator

    • C.

      Electrical motors

    • D.

      The battery

    Correct Answer
    D. The battery
    Explanation
    The given question asks about the steps involved in inspecting a certain component. The correct answer is "the battery." Checking for voltage is important to ensure that the battery has enough power. Inspecting the electrolyte level is necessary to verify if the battery has enough fluid to function properly. Lastly, checking for corrosion is important as it can affect the battery's performance. Therefore, all these steps are essential in inspecting the battery.

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  • 4. 

    The manufacturer's manual will ___________ the Society of Automotive Engineers (S.A.E.) number for engine oil. 

    • A.

      Not suggest

    • B.

      recommend

    • C.

      require

    • D.

      not mandate

    Correct Answer
    B. recommend
    Explanation
    The manufacturer's manual will recommend the Society of Automotive Engineers (S.A.E.) number for engine oil. This means that the manual will provide a suggestion or advice regarding the appropriate S.A.E. number to use for the engine oil. It does not mandate or require a specific S.A.E. number, but rather provides a recommendation for optimal performance.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following conditions could be found while doing routine maintenance on a battery?

    • A.

      Loose tie-downs

    • B.

      Corrosion around the battery connections

    • C.

      Coolant levels need filling

    • D.

      Both A and B are correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. Both A and B are correct.
    Explanation
    During routine maintenance on a battery, it is possible to find loose tie-downs and corrosion around the battery connections. Loose tie-downs can occur due to vibrations and movement of the vehicle, which can affect the battery's stability. Corrosion around the battery connections is a common issue caused by the chemical reaction between the battery acid and the metal terminals, leading to poor electrical conductivity. Therefore, both A and B are correct conditions that can be found during routine battery maintenance.

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  • 6. 

    The vacuum test requires a reading at the end of 5 minutes during which no more than ____________________ inches of vacuum should be lost.

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      22

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    C. 10
    Explanation
    The vacuum test requires a reading at the end of 5 minutes during which no more than 10 inches of vacuum should be lost. This means that the vacuum should remain relatively stable during the 5-minute period, with minimal loss of vacuum pressure. A higher loss of vacuum pressure would indicate a leak or issue with the system being tested.

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  • 7. 

    Before an apparatus response from the station, the driver/operator should:

    • A.

      Tell passengers to buckle their seat belts, then proceed.

    • B.

      Assume everyone is buckled in and proceed.

    • C.

      check all fluid levels.

    • D.

      assure that everyone is seated and belted.

    Correct Answer
    D. assure that everyone is seated and belted.
    Explanation
    Before an apparatus response from the station, the driver/operator should assure that everyone is seated and belted. This is important for the safety of the passengers as well as the driver/operator. Ensuring that everyone is seated and belted reduces the risk of injury in case of sudden stops or accidents during the response. It is the responsibility of the driver/operator to make sure that all passengers are properly secured before proceeding with the response.

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  • 8. 

    The distance a vehicle travels from the time the driver begins to apply the brakes until it comes to a complete stop is known as:

    • A.

      braking distance.

    • B.

      Total reaction distance

    • C.

      visual lead distance.

    • D.

      brake performance distance.

    Correct Answer
    A. braking distance.
    Explanation
    The distance a vehicle travels from the time the driver begins to apply the brakes until it comes to a complete stop is known as braking distance. This term refers to the distance covered by the vehicle while the brakes are being applied and the vehicle is decelerating. It is an important factor in determining the overall stopping distance of a vehicle and is influenced by various factors such as speed, road conditions, and the condition of the brakes.

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  • 9. 

    Apparatus are most likely to be involved in an accident at/on:

    • A.

      off/on ramps.

    • B.

      intersections.

    • C.

      Freeways.

    • D.

      bridges.

    Correct Answer
    B. intersections.
    Explanation
    Apparatus, such as vehicles or equipment, are most likely to be involved in an accident at intersections. Intersections are areas where multiple roads meet, and they often have high traffic volumes and complex traffic patterns. This increases the chances of collisions between vehicles, especially if drivers fail to follow traffic rules or are not attentive. Accidents at intersections can result in serious injuries or damage due to the higher speeds involved. Therefore, intersections are considered high-risk areas for accidents involving apparatus.

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  • 10. 

     A driver/operator of an emergency vehicle who does not obey state, local, or departmental driving regulations is: 

    • A.

      protected under the Good Samaritan law.

    • B.

      subject to criminal prosecution only.

    • C.

      exempt from any prosecution.

    • D.

      subject to criminal and civil prosecution.

    Correct Answer
    D. subject to criminal and civil prosecution.
    Explanation
    A driver/operator of an emergency vehicle who does not obey state, local, or departmental driving regulations is subject to criminal and civil prosecution. This means that they can face legal consequences for their actions, including both criminal charges and civil lawsuits. The Good Samaritan law does not provide protection in this scenario, as it typically applies to individuals who provide emergency assistance in good faith, rather than those who disregard driving regulations.

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  • 11. 

    Unless specifically exempt, when driving fire apparatus, the fire apparatus driver/operators are generally subject to any/all: 

    • A.

      NFPA 1901 guidelines

    • B.

      Statutes, rules, regulations. and ordinances.

    • C.

      National Emergency Vehicle Response Commission Guidelines

    • D.

      Department of Motor Vehicle registration rules.

    Correct Answer
    B. Statutes, rules, regulations. and ordinances.
    Explanation
    When driving fire apparatus, the fire apparatus driver/operators are generally subject to statutes, rules, regulations, and ordinances. This means that they must adhere to the laws and regulations set forth by the government and local authorities regarding the operation of fire apparatus. This ensures safety and compliance with the legal requirements while driving the vehicle.

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  • 12. 

    You have responded to an emergency on a limited-access highway. Your apparatus is not being used. Which of the following should be done? 

    • A.

      Position the apparatus across the intersection to block traffic.

    • B.

      Use the apparatus as a barrier between the traffic flow, and the responders on scene.

    • C.

      . Position the apparatus off the highway in an area away from the incident.

    • D.

      Position the apparatus as close to the incident as possible so responders will have access to the apparatus.

    Correct Answer
    B. Use the apparatus as a barrier between the traffic flow, and the responders on scene.
    Explanation
    Positioning the apparatus as a barrier between the traffic flow and the responders on scene is the correct answer because it helps to ensure the safety of the responders. By using the apparatus as a barrier, it creates a physical separation between the traffic and the incident, reducing the risk of accidents or injuries to the responders. This allows them to focus on their emergency response without the added danger of being close to the traffic flow.

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  • 13. 

    The weight carried on most fire apparatus can contribute to____________due to excessive weight transfer.

    • A.

      skidding

    • B.

      apparatus rollover

    • C.

      delay in the driver's brake reaction time

    • D.

      Both A and B are correct

    Correct Answer
    D. Both A and B are correct
    Explanation
    The weight carried on most fire apparatus can contribute to skidding and apparatus rollover due to excessive weight transfer.

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  • 14. 

    If an apparatus begins to skid, the driver/operator should:

    • A.

      . gradually apply the brakes, bringing the apparatus to a halt.

    • B.

      turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction of the skid.

    • C.

      turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction opposite to the direction of the skid.

    • D.

      quickly release pressure from the accelerator,

    Correct Answer
    B. turn the apparatus steering wheel so the front wheels face the direction of the skid.
    Explanation
    When an apparatus begins to skid, the correct action for the driver/operator is to turn the apparatus steering wheel so that the front wheels face the direction of the skid. This is because turning the wheels in the direction of the skid helps to regain control and stabilize the apparatus. By doing so, the driver/operator can minimize the risk of the skid worsening and potentially causing an accident. Gradually applying the brakes and releasing pressure from the accelerator are also important actions to take in order to regain control, but the steering wheel adjustment is the primary action to address the skid.

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  • 15. 

    The purpose of using a spotter is to assist:

    • A.

      In stopping cross-traffic as the vehicle is pulled forward.

    • B.

      the driver by observing the area in the blind spot and warn the driver/operator of any obstacles around the apparatus.

    • C.

      the driver in lining up with a hydrant.

    • D.

      in determining best route to an incident.

    Correct Answer
    B. the driver by observing the area in the blind spot and warn the driver/operator of any obstacles around the apparatus.
    Explanation
    A spotter is used to assist the driver by observing the area in the blind spot and warning the driver/operator of any obstacles around the apparatus. This helps to prevent accidents and ensure the safety of the vehicle and its surroundings. The spotter's role is to provide an extra set of eyes for the driver, helping them navigate and maneuver the vehicle safely. By alerting the driver to any potential hazards or obstructions, the spotter plays a crucial role in preventing accidents and ensuring the smooth operation of the vehicle.

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  • 16. 

    The purpose of the alley dock skill is to simulate: 

    • A.

      backing a vehicle into a restricted area

    • B.

      maneuvering around parked and stopped vehicles and tight corners.

    • C.

      steering a vehicle in a straight line.

    • D.

      turning a vehicle around in a confined space.

    Correct Answer
    A. backing a vehicle into a restricted area
    Explanation
    The alley dock skill is designed to simulate the process of backing a vehicle into a restricted area. This skill helps drivers practice maneuvering their vehicles in tight spaces, such as when parking in narrow alleys or loading docks. By mastering this skill, drivers can improve their ability to navigate challenging situations where precision and control are necessary.

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  • 17. 

    Due to the size of an apparatus, as well as the clearance needed when backing, the driver/operator should:

    • A.

      back up very slowly, assuring that everyone hears the back-up alarm.

    • B.

      assign a firefighter to clear the way and warn the driver/operator of any obstacle obscured by blind spots.

    • C.

      place traffic cones around the area where the backing up will occur.

    • D.

      turn on all emergency lights, check all mirrors, then proceed to back up in a slow, safe manner.

    Correct Answer
    B. assign a firefighter to clear the way and warn the driver/operator of any obstacle obscured by blind spots.
  • 18. 

    While conducting a pump capacity test, if the net pump pressure is correct but the nozzle flow (GPM) is too high, the: 

    • A.

      Discharge gate must be opened further.

    • B.

      discharge gate must be closed further.

    • C.

      throttle setting must be reduced.

    • D.

      Both B and C are correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. Both B and C are correct.
    Explanation
    If the net pump pressure is correct but the nozzle flow (GPM) is too high, it means that there is too much water flowing out of the nozzle. In order to reduce the flow, the discharge gate must be closed further and the throttle setting must be reduced. Both actions will restrict the amount of water being discharged and bring the flow rate to the desired level. Therefore, both options B and C are correct.

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  • 19. 

    During a pump capacity test, a pumper should deliver its rated capacity at"250 psi pump pressure for 10 minutes. 

    • A.

      100%

    • B.

      50%

    • C.

      70%

    • D.

      40%

    Correct Answer
    B. 50%
    Explanation
    During a pump capacity test, a pumper should deliver its rated capacity at 250 psi pump pressure for 10 minutes. The correct answer is 50% because delivering the rated capacity at 250 psi pump pressure for 10 minutes indicates that the pumper is operating at half of its maximum capacity.

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  • 20. 

    In the fire service, each pump impeller in a housing is commonly called a: 

    • A.

      Casing

    • B.

      Body

    • C.

      Centrifugal

    • D.

      Rotary-gear pump

    Correct Answer
    D. Rotary-gear pump
    Explanation
    The term "rotary-gear pump" refers to a type of pump commonly used in the fire service. This type of pump consists of rotating gears that create suction and pressure to move water or other fluids. It is often used in fire trucks to supply water to hoses and other firefighting equipment. The other options, casing, body, and centrifugal, do not specifically refer to a pump impeller in a housing in the fire service context.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following types of fire pumps must be primed using an external priming device? 

    • A.

      Rotary vane

    • B.

      Piston

    • C.

      Centrifugal

    • D.

      Rotary Gear Pump

    Correct Answer
    C. Centrifugal
    Explanation
    Centrifugal fire pumps must be primed using an external priming device. Unlike other types of fire pumps, centrifugal pumps rely on the creation of a vacuum in the pump casing to draw in water. This vacuum can only be created if the pump is initially primed with water. Therefore, an external priming device is necessary to ensure that the pump is properly primed before it can effectively operate and supply water for firefighting purposes.

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  • 22. 

    When pumping from the draft, which of the following conditions affect(s) a pump's ability? 

    • A.

      Water temperature

    • B.

      Barometric Pressure

    • C.

      Air Temperature

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The water temperature, barometric pressure, and air temperature all affect a pump's ability when pumping from the draft. The temperature of the water can impact the pump's performance and efficiency. Barometric pressure affects the suction capability of the pump, as it determines the pressure difference between the pump and the water source. Air temperature can also affect the pump's ability, as extreme temperatures can cause the pump to overheat or freeze. Therefore, all of these conditions have an impact on a pump's ability when pumping from the draft.

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  • 23. 

    Switch from pressure to volume operation when:

    • A.

      operating from a hydrant.

    • B.

      it is expected that more than half of the rated capacity of the pump will be required.

    • C.

      a higher than normal pressure n'ill be required.

    • D.

      Both A and B are correct.

    Correct Answer
    B. it is expected that more than half of the rated capacity of the pump will be required.
    Explanation
    When it is expected that more than half of the rated capacity of the pump will be required, it is necessary to switch from pressure to volume operation. This is because in situations where a larger volume of water is needed, it is more efficient to operate the pump at a lower pressure to deliver a higher flow rate. By switching to volume operation, the pump can deliver a greater amount of water to meet the demand.

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  • 24. 

    When performing a capacity test, the desired net pump pressure should be __________ PSI.

    • A.

      100

    • B.

      150

    • C.

      200

    • D.

      250

    Correct Answer
    B. 150
    Explanation
    During a capacity test, the desired net pump pressure should be 150 PSI. This pressure is considered optimal for testing the capacity and performance of the pump. It ensures that the pump is operating efficiently and effectively, without being overloaded or underutilized. A net pump pressure of 150 PSI strikes a balance between providing enough pressure to test the pump's capacity and avoiding potential damage or strain on the equipment.

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  • 25. 

    The _________ is the major component of the centrifugal Pump because it provides velocity to the water.

    • A.

      Housing

    • B.

      Volute

    • C.

      Vane

    • D.

      Impeller

    Correct Answer
    D. Impeller
    Explanation
    The impeller is the major component of the centrifugal pump because it is responsible for providing velocity to the water. It is a rotating component with curved blades that accelerates the fluid, creating a centrifugal force that pushes the water towards the pump outlet. The impeller's design and speed determine the pump's performance and flow rate.

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  • 26. 

    An Auxiliary Cooling Device:

    • A.

      Causes Pump Water to mix with radiator fluid

    • B.

      Can cause over pressurization of the radiator

    • C.

      Gets its water from the intake side of the pump

    • D.

      Cools engine water when the apparatus pump is engaged

    Correct Answer
    D. Cools engine water when the apparatus pump is engaged
    Explanation
    An auxiliary cooling device is a system that helps in cooling the engine water when the apparatus pump is engaged. It does this by causing pump water to mix with radiator fluid. However, it is important to note that this device can also cause over pressurization of the radiator. Additionally, it gets its water from the intake side of the pump.

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  • 27. 

    You should switch from pressure to volume mode when:

    • A.

      A large discharge outlet is being used

    • B.

      Less than half of the rated capacity of the pump will be required

    • C.

      A higher than normal pressure will be required

    • D.

      More than half of the rated capacity of the pump will be needed

    Correct Answer
    D. More than half of the rated capacity of the pump will be needed
    Explanation
    When more than half of the rated capacity of the pump will be needed, it is advisable to switch from pressure to volume mode. This is because volume mode allows the pump to deliver a higher flow rate, which is necessary to meet the increased demand. By switching to volume mode, the pump can operate more efficiently and effectively in delivering the required amount of fluid.

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  • 28. 

    The ____ enables the apparatus to be driven and discharge water on the fire at the same time.

    • A.

      Power take off

    • B.

      Inverter

    • C.

      Power transfer

    • D.

      Transverter

    Correct Answer
    A. Power take off
    Explanation
    The power take off enables the apparatus to be driven and discharge water on the fire at the same time. It is a device that transfers power from the engine of the apparatus to another mechanical device, such as a water pump, allowing it to operate while the vehicle is in motion. This ensures that the apparatus can quickly respond to a fire emergency and simultaneously provide the necessary water supply to extinguish the fire.

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  • 29. 

    The flow decreases pressure will ____________ provided pump speed in a centrifuge pump remains constant.

    • A.

      Increase

    • B.

      Decrease

    • C.

      Remain Constant

    • D.

      Have no effect

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase
    Explanation
    If the flow decreases in a centrifuge pump while the pump speed remains constant, it means that less fluid is being pumped through the system. This reduction in flow leads to less resistance against the pump, causing the pressure to increase. Therefore, the correct answer is "Increase."

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  • 30. 

    ____ Consists (s) of a small return (bypass) water line connected from the discharge side of the pump back to the intake side of the pump.

    • A.

      Batch Mixing

    • B.

      Around the pump proportioners

    • C.

      Bypass type balanced pressure proportioners

    • D.

      Variable flow variable rate direct injection systems

    Correct Answer
    B. Around the pump proportioners
    Explanation
    Around the pump proportioners consist of a small return (bypass) water line connected from the discharge side of the pump back to the intake side of the pump.

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  • 31. 

    A fire hydrant with a green bonnet and cap will flow ______________ GPM.

    • A.

      Less than 500

    • B.

      500-999

    • C.

      1000-1499

    • D.

      Greater than 1500

    Correct Answer
    C. 1000-1499
    Explanation
    A fire hydrant with a green bonnet and cap indicates that it has a flow rate between 1000 and 1499 gallons per minute (GPM). The color coding system is used to classify the flow capacity of fire hydrants, with green typically representing a moderate flow rate. Therefore, a fire hydrant with a green bonnet and cap will have a flow rate in the range of 1000-1499 GPM.

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  • 32. 

    Friction Loss is usually expressed in terms of:

    • A.

      Pounds per square inch per 50 feet of hose

    • B.

      Pounds per square inch per 100 feet of hose

    • C.

      Gallons per minute per 50 feet of hose

    • D.

      Gallons per minute per 100 feet of hose

    Correct Answer
    B. Pounds per square inch per 100 feet of hose
    Explanation
    Friction loss refers to the pressure drop that occurs as water flows through a hose. It is usually expressed in terms of pounds per square inch (PSI) per 100 feet of hose. This measurement allows firefighters and other professionals to calculate the amount of pressure loss over a specific length of hose. By knowing the friction loss, they can ensure that an adequate amount of pressure is maintained at the nozzle to effectively combat fires or perform other tasks.

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  • 33. 

    Approximately how much water will be delivered from a 1 1/4 inch smooth bore nozzle if the nozzle pressures are 50 PSI.

    • A.

      200 GPM

    • B.

      273 GPM

    • C.

      328 GPM

    • D.

      400 GPM

    Correct Answer
    C. 328 GPM
    Explanation
    The given question asks about the amount of water that will be delivered from a 1 1/4 inch smooth bore nozzle at a nozzle pressure of 50 PSI. The correct answer is 328 GPM. This means that approximately 328 gallons of water will be delivered per minute from the nozzle under these conditions.

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  • 34. 

    The flow from a 1-inch nozzle tip with a nozzle pressure of 50 PSI is approximately ____________ GPM.

    • A.

      190

    • B.

      210

    • C.

      220

    • D.

      230

    Correct Answer
    B. 210
    Explanation
    The flow rate from a nozzle can be determined using the formula Q = K * √P, where Q is the flow rate in GPM, K is a constant, and P is the nozzle pressure in PSI. Since the question states that the nozzle pressure is 50 PSI, we can substitute this value into the formula. Assuming the constant K is the same for all options, the only answer choice that results in a flow rate close to 210 GPM is the correct answer.

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  • 35. 

    What is the friction loss in 300 feet of 2 1/2 rubber lines hose flowing 350 GPM?

    • A.

      21 PSI

    • B.

      24 PSI

    • C.

      36 PSI

    • D.

      74 PSI

    Correct Answer
    D. 74 PSI
    Explanation
    The friction loss in a fire hose is determined by the length and diameter of the hose, as well as the flow rate. In this case, we are given that the hose is 300 feet long and has a diameter of 2 1/2 inches. The flow rate is 350 gallons per minute (GPM). Using the formula for friction loss in fire hoses, we can calculate the pressure loss. The friction loss is directly proportional to the length of the hose and the square of the flow rate, and inversely proportional to the diameter of the hose. Plugging in the given values, we find that the friction loss is 74 PSI.

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  • 36. 

    What is the friction loss in 300 feet of hose is 70 PSI what will the friction loss be in 450 feet of the same size hose flowing the same amount of water?

    • A.

      90

    • B.

      96

    • C.

      105

    • D.

      128

    Correct Answer
    C. 105
    Explanation
    The friction loss in a hose is directly proportional to the length of the hose. Therefore, if the length of the hose increases from 300 feet to 450 feet, the friction loss will also increase. Since the question states that the same amount of water is flowing through the hose, we can assume that the friction loss will increase proportionally. Therefore, the friction loss in 450 feet of hose will be greater than in 300 feet of hose. Among the given options, the only answer that is greater than 105 is 128.

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  • 37. 

    What is the friction loss in 400 feet of 3" hose with 2 1/2 couplings flowing 400 GPM?

    • A.

      130 PSI

    • B.

      51 PSI

    • C.

      13 PSI

    • D.

      512 PSI

    Correct Answer
    B. 51 PSI
    Explanation
    The friction loss in a hose is determined by the diameter of the hose, the length of the hose, and the flow rate. In this case, we are given that the hose is 3" in diameter and 400 feet long, with 2 1/2" couplings. The flow rate is given as 400 GPM. Using a friction loss calculator or formula, we can determine that the friction loss in this scenario is 51 PSI.

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  • 38. 

    The recommended nozzle pressure for 2 1/2 hand lines with solid bore tips is __________ PSI.

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      80

    • C.

      100

    • D.

      150

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    The recommended nozzle pressure for 2 1/2 hand lines with solid bore tips is 50 PSI. This low pressure is suitable for the solid bore tips to effectively disperse water and create a strong stream. Higher pressures may cause the stream to break up or become less effective in controlling fires. Therefore, a pressure of 50 PSI is recommended to ensure optimal performance of the hand lines with solid bore tips.

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  • 39. 

    The recommended nozzle pressure for solid bore master streams two inches or less is __________ PSI.

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      80

    • C.

      100

    • D.

      150

    Correct Answer
    B. 80
    Explanation
    The recommended nozzle pressure for solid bore master streams two inches or less is 80 PSI. This pressure is sufficient to provide an effective and controlled stream of water for firefighting purposes. Higher pressures may cause excessive water damage and lower pressures may result in an ineffective stream. Therefore, 80 PSI strikes a balance between these factors, making it the recommended pressure for solid bore master streams.

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  • 40. 

    The recommended pressure for fog nozzle (all types) is ___________ PSI.

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      80

    • C.

      100

    • D.

      150

    Correct Answer
    C. 100
    Explanation
    The recommended pressure for a fog nozzle, regardless of its type, is 100 PSI. This pressure ensures that the nozzle produces a fine mist or fog-like spray pattern, which is ideal for various applications such as firefighting, dust control, and cooling. Operating the nozzle at this pressure ensures optimal performance and efficient use of water or other fluids.

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  • 41. 

    When the flow through a hose line increases from 100 GPM to 400 GPM the friction loss increases ______  times.

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      16

    Correct Answer
    D. 16
    Explanation
    When the flow through a hose line increases from 100 GPM to 400 GPM, the friction loss increases by a factor of 16. This means that the friction loss is 16 times greater when the flow rate increases from 100 GPM to 400 GPM.

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  • 42. 

    What engine pump pressure is necessary to deliver 200 GPM through 200 feet of 2 1/2 hose to a fog nozzle at ground level?

    • A.

      108 PSI

    • B.

      116 PSI

    • C.

      122 PSI

    • D.

      135 PSI

    Correct Answer
    B. 116 PSI
    Explanation
    To deliver water at a flow rate of 200 gallons per minute (GPM) through 200 feet of 2 1/2 inch hose to a fog nozzle at ground level, a pump pressure of 116 PSI is necessary. This pressure is required to overcome the frictional losses in the hose and maintain the desired flow rate.

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  • 43. 

    Using the condensed Q Method as a rule of thumb the friction loss in 500 feet of 3 " fire hose flowing 300 gom is:

    • A.

      12 PSI

    • B.

      55 PSI

    • C.

      50 PSI

    • D.

      45 PSI

    Correct Answer
    D. 45 PSI
    Explanation
    The Q Method is a simplified method used to estimate friction loss in fire hoses. According to this method, the friction loss can be calculated by multiplying the total length of the hose (in hundreds of feet) by the square of the flow rate (in gallons per minute) and then dividing the result by 100. In this case, the total length of the hose is 500 feet and the flow rate is 300 gpm. Therefore, the friction loss would be (500/100) * (300^2/100) = 45 PSI.

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  • 44. 

    The friction loss in 300 feet of 3" fire hose with 2 1/2 couplings flowing 500 GPM is approximately:

    • A.

      60 PSI

    • B.

      50 PSI

    • C.

      150 PSI

    • D.

      20 PSI

    Correct Answer
    A. 60 PSI
    Explanation
    The friction loss in a fire hose is the pressure drop that occurs as water flows through the hose due to the resistance of the hose material. In this case, the length of the hose is 300 feet and it has 2 1/2 inch couplings. The flow rate is 500 gallons per minute (GPM). Based on these factors, the friction loss is approximately 60 PSI.

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  • 45. 

    To Calculate friction loss in a 2 1/2 fire hose when the flow is near 100 GPM which of the following formulas should be used?

    • A.

      FL = Q2 - Q

    • B.

      FL = 2Q^2

    • C.

      FL = 2Q^2L

    • D.

      FL - 2Q^2 / 1/2 Q

    Correct Answer
    C. FL = 2Q^2L
    Explanation
    The correct formula to calculate friction loss in a 2 1/2 fire hose when the flow is near 100 GPM is FL = 2Q^2L. This formula takes into account the flow rate (Q), squared, multiplied by the length of the hose (L) to determine the friction loss. The squared flow rate accounts for the increase in friction loss as the flow rate increases. The length of the hose also plays a role in determining the friction loss, as a longer hose will result in more friction. Therefore, the correct answer is FL = 2Q^2L.

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  • 46. 

    When a pumper is supplying four lines of 2 1/2 house each equipped with a 250gpm fog nozzle at 100 psi and each 300 feet long, the pump discharge pressure required is most nearly:

    • A.

      244 PSI

    • B.

      138 PSI

    • C.

      158 PSI

    • D.

      190 PSI

    Correct Answer
    B. 138 PSI
    Explanation
    When calculating the pump discharge pressure, we need to consider the friction loss in the hose lines. The friction loss can be calculated using the formula: friction loss = (CQ²L) / D⁵, where C is the friction loss coefficient, Q is the flow rate, L is the length of the hose, and D is the diameter of the hose. Since all the hose lines are the same length and diameter, the friction loss will be the same for each line. Therefore, we can calculate the total friction loss by multiplying the friction loss for one line by the number of lines. Given that the flow rate is 250 gpm and the length is 300 feet, we can calculate the friction loss for one line and then multiply it by 4. After calculating the total friction loss, we can add it to the desired nozzle pressure (100 psi) to find the pump discharge pressure. The answer of 138 PSI is the closest option to the calculated pump discharge pressure.

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  • 47. 

    The total friction loss in 500 feet of 3" hose with 2 1/2 couplings with 300 gpm flowing is approximately 

    • A.

      4 PSI

    • B.

      36 PSI

    • C.

      63 PSI

    • D.

      105 PSI

    Correct Answer
    B. 36 PSI
    Explanation
    The friction loss in a fire hose is determined by the length of the hose, the diameter of the hose, and the flow rate of the water. In this case, we have a 500-foot long hose with 2 1/2 inch couplings and a flow rate of 300 gallons per minute (gpm). Using the friction loss formula, we can calculate the approximate friction loss. The friction loss for a 3" hose with 300 gpm flow rate is typically around 36 PSI. Therefore, the correct answer is 36 PSI.

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  • 48. 

    The recommended method of determining he exact friction loss of any appliance is to 

    • A.

      Check NFPA 1091

    • B.

      Run tests with each appliance used by the department

    • C.

      Review manufacturers specifications

    • D.

      Check nfpa 1901

    Correct Answer
    B. Run tests with each appliance used by the department
    Explanation
    The recommended method of determining the exact friction loss of any appliance is to run tests with each appliance used by the department. This is because different appliances may have different friction loss characteristics, and running tests with each specific appliance will provide the most accurate and reliable information. Checking NFPA 1091 and NFPA 1901 may provide general guidelines and standards, but they may not account for the specific characteristics of each appliance. Reviewing manufacturers' specifications can also be helpful, but actual tests with the appliances in use will provide the most precise information.

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  • 49. 

    Excessive engine temperatures during pumping operations can be controlled by using the:

    • A.

      Tank to fill valve

    • B.

      Auxiliary cooler

    • C.

      Radiator cooler

    • D.

      Immersion bypass

    Correct Answer
    B. Auxiliary cooler
    Explanation
    Excessive engine temperatures during pumping operations can be controlled by using the auxiliary cooler. The auxiliary cooler is an additional cooling system that helps to regulate the temperature of the engine. It works by dissipating heat from the engine coolant, preventing it from reaching dangerous levels. By utilizing the auxiliary cooler, the engine can maintain a safe operating temperature, ensuring optimal performance and preventing damage caused by overheating.

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  • 50. 

    A ___________ indicated flow in gallons per minute.

    • A.

      Compound gauge

    • B.

      Vacuum gauge

    • C.

      Flowmeter

    • D.

      Bourbon title

    Correct Answer
    C. Flowmeter
    Explanation
    A flowmeter is a device that is used to measure the rate of flow of a liquid or gas in gallons per minute. It is specifically designed for this purpose and is calibrated to provide accurate readings. Unlike a compound gauge or vacuum gauge, which measure pressure or vacuum, a flowmeter is specifically designed to measure flow. Therefore, a flowmeter is the correct answer for indicating flow in gallons per minute. The option "bourbon title" is unrelated and does not provide any indication of flow.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 18, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Gotgauze
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