NCLEX Pharmacology Quiz 29 Anti-inflammatory And Antineoplastic Drugs
All questions are shown, but the results will only be given after you’ve finished the quiz. You are given 1 minute per question, a total of 15 minutes in this quiz.
- 1.
Nurse Corrine may expect to administer azathioprine (Imuran) to a transplant client in which of the following conditions?
- A.
Prevention of chronic rejection
- B.
Prevention of acute rejection
- C.
Management of chronic rejection
- D.
Treatment of acute rejection
Correct Answer
B. Prevention of acute rejectionExplanation
Azathioprine inhibits humoral and cellular immunity during the early stages of lymphoid differentiation and is useful in preventing the onset of acute rejection.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored when a client is receiving azathioprine?
- A.
CBC
- B.
BUN
- C.
Electrolytes
- D.
Sedimentation rate
Correct Answer
A. CBCExplanation
CBC will identify leukopenia. a common side effect.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
In a transplant client. the action of cyclosporine is to:
- A.
Defend the body against foreign antigens.
- B.
Inhibit T cells in response to antigens.
- C.
Inhibit B cell immunoglobulin.
- D.
Intensify the production of T lymphocytes
Correct Answer
B. Inhibit T cells in response to antigens.Explanation
The primary action of cyclosporine is to inhibit T-cell generation in response to transplant antigens.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Client teaching for mycophenolate mofetil must include instructions to:
- A.
Take with food.
- B.
Avoid use of corticosteroid.
- C.
Monitor for adverse effects.
- D.
Practice effective contraception.
Correct Answer
D. Practice effective contraception.Explanation
Effective contraception is essential because of the potential for teratogenic effects. It is recommended that the drug be taken on empty stomach. The drug is often given with corticosteroid. All medication should be monitored for side effects.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
Which of the following client comments demonstrates that teaching has been successful regarding cyclosporine therapy?
- A.
“I need to mix the medicine in Styrofoam.”
- B.
“I should take the medication on an empty stomach.”
- C.
“I need to be consistent about when i take it and also monitor how much fat is in my food.”
- D.
“If I vomit I should take another dose.”
Correct Answer
C. “I need to be consistent about when i take it and also monitor how much fat is in my food.”Explanation
Cyclosporines need to be taken consistently in relation to meals. and fat content should not vary to maintain serum levels.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
Antirheumatics are used to:
- A.
Directly affect the inflammatory response
- B.
Encourage excretion of autoantibodies
- C.
Retard progression of joint deterioration
- D.
Mediate the action of NSAIDs
Correct Answer
C. Retard progression of joint deteriorationExplanation
These drugs cannot stop the disease itself but are believed to retard or prevent the process of joint deterioration. For choice A. the inflammatory process is affected indirectly. Autoantibodies are not excreted. Disease modifying antirheumatic drugs are used in combination with NSAIDs but do not mediate their effect.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Gold compounds are contraindicated in clients with:
- A.
Liver dysfunction
- B.
Cardiac disease
- C.
Preexisting dermatitis
- D.
Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer
A. Liver dysfunctionExplanation
An adverse reaction to gold compounds is liver toxicity; therefore. use care in clients with preexisting liver dysfunction.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
Which of the following agents can be used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Sj?gren’s syndrome. and SLE?
- A.
Auranofin (Ridaura)
- B.
Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
- C.
Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)
- D.
Chloroquine (Aralen)
Correct Answer
D. Chloroquine (Aralen)Explanation
Chloroquine has had documented success in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Sj?gren’s syndrome. and SLE. Auranofin and sulfasalazine are used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. but none are used in the treatment of all three syndromes.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
Frequent eye examinations are recommended in clients receiving:
- A.
Chloroquine
- B.
Colchicine
- C.
Penicillamine
- D.
Gold compounds
Correct Answer
A. ChloroquineExplanation
Corneal deposits are an adverse reaction associated with chloroquine administration. necessitating frequent eye examination.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
Nurse Pia is instructing a client receiving probenecid (Benemid). she should cover all of the following information except the need to:
- A.
Change dietary habits.
- B.
Increase fluid intake.
- C.
Have frequent laboratory work done.
- D.
Recognize side effects.
Correct Answer
C. Have frequent laboratory work done.Explanation
Side effects of probenecid treatment are relatively benign. and there is no indication that there is a need for frequent laboratory evaluation.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Enrique who is under chemotherapy has the following CBC results: WBC 5000/mm3, RBC platelet 10,000/mm3. Which of the following is he at risk for?
- A.
Infection
- B.
Bleeding
- C.
Angina
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. BleedingExplanation
A platelet count of 10,000/mm3 means that the client does not have enough platelets to clot the blood; therefore, the possibility of bleeding is high. Choice A is a normal value of WBC. Angina would only be a risk if the client had a lower RBC count.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Lorraine who is on chemotherapy has a history of cardiac disease. The client is at risk for cardiac complications because:
- A.
White blood cells are reduced.
- B.
Oxygen-carrying capacity may be reduced.
- C.
Sodium levels may rise meaning fluid overload.
- D.
Hematocrit is lowered.
Correct Answer
B. Oxygen-carrying capacity may be reduced.Explanation
If hemoglobin and red cell counts drop from myelosuppression, the oxygen-carrying capacity will fall, leaving the person at risk for angina.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis for a client undergoing chemotherapy?
- A.
Decreased cardiac output
- B.
Fear
- C.
Altered nutrition
- D.
Anxiety
Correct Answer
A. Decreased cardiac outputExplanation
Decreased cardiac output is more important than the other choices because it can jeopardize the client’s life.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Which of the following contributes most to the debilitation of an individual during a course of chemotherapy?
- A.
Diarrhea
- B.
Alopecia
- C.
Constipation
- D.
Pain
Correct Answer
A. DiarrheaExplanation
Diarrhea will cause debilitation as fluid and nutrients are lost at a time when the body most needs to be nourished.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Combination chemotherapy is used in the treatment of cancer because:
- A.
Single-agent therapy produces cell lines that are resistant.
- B.
Two drugs are more likely to work.
- C.
Single-agent therapy requires larger doses for long remissions.
- D.
Two cancers may be present.
Correct Answer
A. Single-agent therapy produces cell lines that are resistant.Explanation
Single-agent therapy tends to produce resistant tumor cells, making remission or cure impossible.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Aug 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Aug 10, 2017Quiz Created by
Santepro