Maternal And Child Health Nursing NCLEX Quiz 10
All questions are shown, but the results will only be given after you’ve finished the quiz. You are given 1 minute per question, a total of 10 minutes in this quiz.
- 1.
Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy would the nurse expect to occur during the first trimester?
- A.
Introversion. egocentrism. narcissism
- B.
Awkwardness. clumsiness. and unattractiveness
- C.
Anxiety. passivity. extroversion
- D.
Ambivalence. fear. fantasies
Correct Answer
D. Ambivalence. fear. fantasiesExplanation
During the first trimester. common emotional reactions include ambivalence. fear. fantasies. or anxiety.Option A: The second trimester is a period of well-being accompanied by the increased need to learn about fetal growth and development. Common emotional reactions during this trimester include narcissism. passivity. or introversion. At times the woman may seem egocentric and self-centered.Option B: During the third trimester. the woman typically feels awkward. clumsy. and unattractive. often becoming more introverted or reflective of her own childhood.Rate this question:
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- 2.
During which of the following would the focus of classes be mainly on physiologic changes. fetal development. sexuality. during pregnancy. and nutrition?
- A.
Prepregnant period
- B.
First trimester
- C.
Second trimester
- D.
Third trimester
Correct Answer
B. First trimesterExplanation
First-trimester classes commonly focus on such issues as early physiologic changes. fetal development. sexuality during pregnancy. and nutrition. Some early classes may include pregnant couples.Options C and D: Second and third-trimester classes may focus on preparation for birth. parenting. and newborn care.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following would be a disadvantage of breastfeeding?
- A.
Involution occurs more rapidly
- B.
The incidence of allergies increases due to maternal antibodies
- C.
The father may resent the infant’s demands on the mother’s body
- D.
There is a greater chance for error during preparation
Correct Answer
C. The father may resent the infant’s demands on the mother’s bodyExplanation
With breastfeeding. the father’s body is not capable of providing the milk for the newborn. which may interfere with feeding the newborn. providing fewer chances for bonding. or he may be jealous of the infant’s demands on his wife’s time and body.Option A: Breastfeeding is advantageous because uterine involution occurs more rapidly. thus minimizing blood loss.Option B: The presence of maternal antibodies in breast milk helps decrease the incidence of allergies in the newborn.Option D: A greater chance for error is associated with bottle feeding. No preparation is required for breastfeeding.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following would cause a false-positive result on a pregnancy test?
- A.
The test was performed less than 10 days after an abortion
- B.
The test was performed too early or too late in the pregnancy
- C.
The urine sample was stored too long at room temperature
- D.
A spontaneous abortion or a missed abortion is impending
Correct Answer
A. The test was performed less than 10 days after an abortionExplanation
A false-positive reaction can occur if the pregnancy test is performed less than 10 days after an abortion.Options B. C. and D: Performing the tests too early or too late in the pregnancy. storing the urine sample too long at room temperature. or having a spontaneous or missed abortion impending can all produce false-negative results.Rate this question:
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- 5.
FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following?
- A.
5 weeks gestation
- B.
10 weeks gestation
- C.
15 weeks gestation
- D.
20 weeks gestation
Correct Answer
D. 20 weeks gestationExplanation
The FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope at about 20 week’s gestation. FHR usually is auscultated at the midline suprapubic region with Doppler ultrasound transducer at 10 to 12 week’s gestation. FHR. cannot be heard any earlier than 10 weeks’ gestation.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be which of the following?
- A.
02/01/2017
- B.
28/03/2017
- C.
12/04/2017
- D.
12/10/2017
Correct Answer
C. 12/04/2017Explanation
The FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope at about 20 week’s gestation. FHR usually is auscultated at the midline suprapubic region with Doppler ultrasound transducer at 10 to 12 week’s gestation. FHR. cannot be heard any earlier than 10 weeks’ gestation.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks’ gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown?
- A.
Uterus in the pelvis
- B.
Uterus at the xiphoid
- C.
Uterus in the abdomen
- D.
Uterus at the umbilicus
Correct Answer
A. Uterus in the pelvisExplanation
When the LMP is unknown. the gestational age of the fetus is estimated by uterine size or position (fundal height). The presence of the uterus in the pelvis indicates less than 12 weeks’ gestation. At approximately 12 to 14 weeks. the fundus is out of the pelvis above the symphysis pubis. The fundus is at the level of the umbilicus at approximately 20 weeks’ gestation and reaches the xiphoid at term or 40 weeks.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following danger signs should be reported promptly during the antepartum period?
- A.
Constipation
- B.
Breast tenderness
- C.
Nasal stuffiness
- D.
Leaking amniotic fluid
Correct Answer
D. Leaking amniotic fluidExplanation
Danger signs that require prompt reporting leaking of amniotic fluid. vaginal bleeding. blurred vision. rapid weight gain. and elevated blood pressure.Options A. B. and C: Constipation. breast tenderness. and nasal stuffiness are common discomforts associated with pregnancy.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the nurse consider as significant?
- A.
Hematocrit 33.5%
- B.
Rubella titer less than 1:8
- C.
White blood cells 8.000/mm3
- D.
One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL
Correct Answer
B. Rubella titer less than 1:8Explanation
A rubella titer should be 1:8 or greater. Thurs. a finding of a titer less than 1:8 is significant. indicating that the client may not possess immunity to rubella.Options A and D: A hematocrit of 33.5% a white blood cell count of 8.000/mm3. and a 1-hour glucose challenge test of 110 g/dl are with normal parameters.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following characteristics of contractions would the nurse expect to find in a client experiencing true labor?
- A.
Occurring at irregular intervals
- B.
Starting mainly in the abdomen
- C.
Gradually increasing intervals
- D.
Increasing intensity with walking
Correct Answer
D. Increasing intensity with walkingExplanation
With true labor. contractions increase in intensity with walking. In addition. true labor contractions occur at regular intervals. usually starting in the back and sweeping around to the abdomen. The interval of true labor contractions gradually shortens.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Sep 04, 2017Quiz Created by
Santepro
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