Bergen Online Quiz Sep'17- North Zone
- 1.
In diarrhoea NHE3 channel expression is
- A.
Increased
- B.
Remains same
- C.
Decreased
- D.
Hyper activated
Correct Answer
C. DecreasedExplanation
In diarrhoea, the expression of the NHE3 channel is decreased. This means that there is a reduction in the number or activity of NHE3 channels in the intestines. NHE3 channels are responsible for the absorption of sodium and water in the intestines. When their expression is decreased, it can lead to a decrease in sodium and water absorption, resulting in loose and watery stools, which are characteristic of diarrhoea.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Campaign for Gutgain in QTR 2 is
- A.
Happy gut......... healthy gut
- B.
Healthy gut….. happy gut
- C.
Health begins from gut
- D.
Restore gut flora
Correct Answer
B. Healthy gut….. happy gutExplanation
The given answer, "Healthy gut….. happy gut," suggests that having a healthy gut leads to happiness. This implies that taking care of one's gut health is important for overall well-being and happiness. It emphasizes the idea that a healthy gut is directly linked to a positive and happy state of mind.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Zocef in UTI (according to VA) is active against
- A.
Superior efficacy against ELBSs
- B.
Biofilm producing E.coli & P.mirabilis
- C.
Superior efficacy against ESLBs
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
B. Biofilm producing E.coli & P.mirabilisExplanation
Zocef in UTI has superior efficacy against biofilm producing E.coli & P.mirabilis. This means that Zocef is effective in treating urinary tract infections caused by these specific bacteria strains that are capable of forming biofilms. Biofilms are protective layers formed by bacteria that make them more resistant to antibiotics. Therefore, Zocef's ability to effectively target and eliminate these biofilm producing bacteria strains makes it a suitable choice for treating UTIs caused by them.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Bacillus subtilis has got
- A.
No approval
- B.
USFDA GRAS approval
- C.
EFSA approval
- D.
B & C both
Correct Answer
D. B & C bothExplanation
Bacillus subtilis has both USFDA GRAS (Generally Recognized as Safe) approval and EFSA (European Food Safety Authority) approval. This means that it is considered safe for consumption by both the USFDA and EFSA.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Bacillus Subtilis can form spore & colonize in the GI tract
- A.
False
- B.
True
- C.
Can form spore but can’t colonize
- D.
Can colonize but spore formation is irregular
Correct Answer
B. TrueExplanation
Bacillus Subtilis is a bacterium that is capable of forming spores and colonizing the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. This means that it can produce a dormant form called a spore, which allows it to survive in harsh conditions. Additionally, it can establish itself and grow in the GI tract, potentially causing infections or other health issues. Therefore, the correct answer is true.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The dose of Bacillus Subtilis in children is
- A.
1-2 billion CFU/day
- B.
2-3 billion CFU/day
- C.
2-4 billion CFU/day
- D.
3-4 billion CFU/day
Correct Answer
C. 2-4 billion CFU/dayExplanation
The correct answer is 2-4 billion CFU/day. This dosage range is recommended for children when taking Bacillus Subtilis. CFU stands for colony-forming units, which is a measure of viable bacteria. This dosage range is considered safe and effective for children to support their gut health and immune system.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The survival rate of S. Boulardii in Econorm is
- A.
Less than 50%
- B.
Less than 60%
- C.
Less than 80%
- D.
Less than 40%
Correct Answer
A. Less than 50%Explanation
The survival rate of S. Boulardii in Econorm is less than 50%. This means that less than half of the S. Boulardii organisms are able to survive in Econorm. It suggests that the conditions or ingredients in Econorm are not favorable for the survival of S. Boulardii, resulting in a low survival rate.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Name the drugs which are known to cause Drug Induced Tendinopathy?
- A.
Long term Glucocorticoids
- B.
Statins
- C.
Quinolones
- D.
Aromatase inhibitors
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
Long-term use of glucocorticoids, statins, quinolones, and aromatase inhibitors are all known to cause drug-induced tendinopathy. Glucocorticoids are anti-inflammatory drugs that can weaken tendons over time. Statins, commonly used to lower cholesterol, have been associated with tendon-related side effects. Quinolones, a class of antibiotics, can cause tendon inflammation and rupture. Aromatase inhibitors, used in breast cancer treatment, have also been linked to tendon problems. Therefore, all of the drugs listed can potentially cause drug-induced tendinopathy.Rate this question:
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- 9.
In Tendinopathy ratio of collagen type III/type I is
- A.
Decreased
- B.
Increased
- C.
Remains same
Correct Answer
B. IncreasedExplanation
In tendinopathy, there is an increase in the ratio of collagen type III to collagen type I. Collagen type I is the main structural component of healthy tendons, providing strength and stability. However, in tendinopathy, there is a disruption in the collagen balance, leading to an increase in collagen type III, which is a less organized and weaker form of collagen. This imbalance can result in structural changes and decreased tensile strength of the tendon, contributing to the development and progression of tendinopathy.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Tenomodulin is
- A.
A type of glycoprotein
- B.
Needed for Tendon maturation
- C.
Needed for Tenocyte proliferation
- D.
B & C
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
Tenomodulin is a glycoprotein that plays a crucial role in both tendon maturation and tenocyte proliferation. Tendon maturation refers to the process of developing and strengthening tendons, while tenocyte proliferation refers to the multiplication and growth of cells responsible for tendon formation. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as tenomodulin is involved in both tendon maturation and tenocyte proliferation.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Paediatric dose of Zocef dry syp in Otitis media is
- A.
15mg/kg in 2 divided dosage
- B.
15mg/kg twice daily
- C.
10mg/kg twice daily
- D.
10mg/kg in 2 divided dosage
Correct Answer
B. 15mg/kg twice dailyExplanation
The correct answer is 15mg/kg twice daily. In the treatment of Otitis media, the recommended paediatric dose of Zocef dry syp is 15mg/kg given twice daily. This dosage regimen ensures that an adequate amount of the medication is administered to effectively treat the infection. Splitting the dose into two administrations helps maintain a consistent level of the drug in the body throughout the day, increasing its efficacy. Therefore, 15mg/kg twice daily is the appropriate dosage for paediatric patients with Otitis media.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Zocef(As per VA) is indicated in ________________ for general surgeons
- A.
Abscess & Cellulitis
- B.
RTI
- C.
A & B
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Abscess & CellulitisExplanation
Zocef is indicated for the treatment of abscess and cellulitis in general surgeons. It is a medication that is commonly used to treat bacterial infections, and abscess and cellulitis are both types of bacterial infections that can occur in the body. General surgeons may encounter patients with these conditions and may prescribe Zocef to help treat and resolve the infections.Rate this question:
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- 13.
In comparison to Gemcal, Bio D3 plus lacks __________ which ________ bone loss
- A.
Calcitriol, increases
- B.
Vit k2-7, reduces
- C.
Zinc, inhibits
- D.
Vit B12, decreases
Correct Answer
C. Zinc, inhibitsExplanation
Zinc is lacking in Bio D3 plus, which inhibits bone loss. Zinc plays a crucial role in bone metabolism and is essential for maintaining bone health. It helps in the formation and mineralization of bones, as well as in the regulation of bone remodeling. Therefore, the absence of zinc in Bio D3 plus can lead to an increased risk of bone loss and weakened bone structure.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Choose the correct statement
- A.
Zinc in Gemcal is an essential factor for bone mineralization
- B.
Zinc enhances osteoclastic activity
- C.
Zinc enhances osteoblastic activity
- D.
A & C
Correct Answer
D. A & CExplanation
Zinc is known to play a crucial role in bone mineralization, which is the process of depositing minerals, such as calcium and phosphorus, into the bone matrix. It is an essential factor for the proper formation and maintenance of healthy bones. Additionally, zinc also enhances osteoblastic activity, which refers to the activity of cells responsible for bone formation. Therefore, both statements A and C are correct as they highlight the importance of zinc in bone mineralization and its role in enhancing osteoblastic activity.Rate this question:
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- 15.
As per visual aid the advantage of “Sonication” technology in Gemcal is
- A.
Calcium is made in 20 micron particle size in ready to dissolve form which leads to faster calcium dissolution from the intestine, which leads to maximum calcium deposition in bone
- B.
Calcium is made in 200 micron particle size in ready to absorb form which leads to faster calcium absorption from the intestine, which leads to maximum calcium deposition in bone
- C.
A & B
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Calcium is made in 200 micron particle size in ready to absorb form which leads to faster calcium absorption from the intestine, which leads to maximum calcium deposition in boneExplanation
The advantage of "Sonication" technology in Gemcal is that calcium is made in 200 micron particle size in a ready to absorb form. This allows for faster calcium absorption from the intestine, which in turn leads to maximum calcium deposition in the bone.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Normal concentration of calcium in blood is
- A.
9-11 mg/ml
- B.
12-15 mg/ml
- C.
9-11 mg/100ml
- D.
1000 mg in total blood
Correct Answer
C. 9-11 mg/100mlExplanation
The normal concentration of calcium in blood is typically measured in milligrams per 100 milliliters (mg/100ml). The given answer, "9-11 mg/100ml," falls within the normal range for calcium concentration in the blood.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Name the enzyme which helps in conversion of large emulsion droplets to mixed micelles in Uprise D3
- A.
Lipase
- B.
Lactase
- C.
Amylase
- D.
Sucrase
Correct Answer
A. LipaseExplanation
Lipase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that aids in the breakdown of fats into smaller molecules, such as fatty acids and glycerol. In the case of Uprise D3, lipase would be responsible for converting large emulsion droplets into mixed micelles, which are smaller and more easily absorbed by the body.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 06, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 08, 2017Quiz Created by
Mukesh Sisoudia
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