Cardiovascular System | Myocardial Infarction And Heart Failure NCLEX Quiz 16
All questions are shown, but the results will only be given after you’ve finished the quiz. You are given 1 minute per question, a total of 10 minutes in this quiz.
- 1.
Which of the following terms describes the force against which the ventricle must expel blood?
- A.
Afterload
- B.
Cardiac output
- C.
Overload
- D.
Preload
Correct Answer
A. AfterloadExplanation
Afterload refers to the resistance on maintained by the aortic and pulmonic valves. the condition and tone of the aorta. and the resistance offered by the systemic and pulmonary arterioles.Option B: Cardiac output is the amount of blood expelled by the heart per minute.Option C: Overload refers to an abundance of circulating volume.Option D: Preload is the volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of diastole.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Acute pulmonary edema caused by heart failure is usually a result of damage to which of the following areas of the heart?
- A.
Left atrium
- B.
Right atrium
- C.
Left ventricle
- D.
Right ventricle
Correct Answer
C. Left ventricleExplanation
The left ventricle is responsible for the majority of force for the cardiac output. If the left ventricle is damaged. the output decreases and fluid accumulates in the interstitial and alveolar spaces. causing pulmonary edema.Option A: Damage to the left atrium would contribute to heart failure but wouldn’t affect cardiac output or. therefore. the onset of pulmonary edema.Options B and D: If the right atrium and right ventricle were damaged. right-sided heart failure would result.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
An 18-year-old client who recently had an URI is admitted with suspected rheumatic fever. Which assessment findings confirm this diagnosis?
- A.
Erythema marginatum. subcutaneous nodules. and fever
- B.
Tachycardia. finger clubbing. and a load S3
- C.
Dyspnea. cough. and palpitations
- D.
Dyspnea. fatigue. and syncope
Correct Answer
A. Erythema marginatum. subcutaneous nodules. and feverExplanation
Diagnosis of rheumatic fever requires that the client have either two major Jones criteria or one minor criterion plus evidence of a previous streptococcal infection. Major criteria include carditis. polyarthritis. Sydenham’s chorea. subcutaneous nodules. and erythema marginatum (transient. non pruritic macules on the trunk or inner aspects of the upper arms or thighs). Minor criteria include fever. arthralgia. elevated levels of acute phase reactants. and a prolonged PR-interval on ECG.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
A client admitted with angina complains of severe chest pain and suddenly becomes unresponsive. After establishing unresponsiveness. which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A.
Activate the resuscitation team
- B.
Open the client’s airway
- C.
Check for breathing
- D.
Check for signs of circulation
Correct Answer
A. Activate the resuscitation teamExplanation
Immediately after establishing unresponsiveness. the nurse should activate the resuscitation team. The next step is to open the airway using the head-tilt. chin-lift maneuver and check for breathing (looking. listening. and feeling for no more than 10-seconds). If the client isn’t breathing. give two slow breaths using a bag mask or pocket mask. Next. check for signs of circulation by palpating the carotid pulse.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
A 55-year-old client is admitted with an acute inferior-wall myocardial infarction. During the admission interview. he says he stopped taking his metoprolol (Lopressor) 5 days ago because he was feeling better. Which of the following nursing diagnoses takes priority for this client?
- A.
Anxiety
- B.
Ineffective tissue perfusion; cardiopulmonary
- C.
Acute pain
- D.
Ineffective therapeutic regimen management
Correct Answer
B. Ineffective tissue perfusion; cardiopulmonaryExplanation
MI results from prolonged myocardial ischemia caused by reduced blood flow through the coronary arteries. Therefore. the priority nursing diagnosis for this client is Ineffective tissue perfusion (cardiopulmonary).Options A. C. and D: Anxiety. acute pain. and ineffective therapeutic regimen management are appropriate but don’t take priority.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
A client comes into the E.R. with acute shortness of breath and a cough that produces pink. frothy sputum. Admission assessment reveals crackles and wheezes. a BP of 85/46. a HR of 122 BPM. and a respiratory rate of 38 breaths/minute. The client’s medical history included DM. HTN. and heart failure. Which of the following disorders should the nurse suspect?
- A.
Pulmonary edema
- B.
Pneumothorax
- C.
Cardiac tamponade
- D.
Pulmonary embolus
Correct Answer
A. Pulmonary edemaExplanation
SOB. tachypnea. low BP. tachycardia. crackles. and a cough producing pink. frothy sputum are late signs of pulmonary edema.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
The nurse coming on duty receives the report from the nurse going off duty. Which of the following clients should the on-duty nurse assess first?
- A.
The 58-year-old client who was admitted 2 days ago with heart failure. BP of 126/76. and a respiratory rate of 21 breaths a minute.
- B.
The 88-year-old client with end-stage right-sided heart failure. BP of 78/50. and a DNR order.
- C.
The 62-year-old client who was admitted one day ago with thrombophlebitis and receiving IV heparin.
- D.
A 76-year-old client who was admitted 1 hour ago with new-onset atrial fibrillation and is receiving IV diltiazem (Cardizem).
Correct Answer
D. A 76-year-old client who was admitted 1 hour ago with new-onset atrial fibrillation and is receiving IV diltiazem (Cardizem).Explanation
The client with A-fib has the greatest potential to become unstable and is on IV medication that requires close monitoring. After assessing this client. the nurse should assess the client with thrombophlebitis who is receiving a heparin infusion. and then go to the 58-year-old client admitted 2-days ago with heart failure (her s/s are resolving and don’t require immediate attention). The lowest priority is the 89-year-old with end stage right-sided heart failure. who requires time-consuming supportive measures.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
When developing a teaching plan for a client with endocarditis. which of the following points is most essential for the nurse to include?
- A.
“Report fever. anorexia. and night sweats to the physician.”
- B.
“Take prophylactic antibiotics after dental work and invasive procedures.”
- C.
“Include potassium rich foods in your diet.”
- D.
“Monitor your pulse regularly.”
Correct Answer
A. “Report fever. anorexia. and night sweats to the pHysician.”Explanation
An essential teaching point is to report signs of relapse. such as fever. anorexia. and night sweats. to the physician.Option B: To prevent further endocarditis episodes. prophylactic antibiotics are taken before and sometimes after dental work. childbirth. or GU. GI. or gynecologic procedures.Options C and D: A potassium-rich diet and daily pulse monitoring aren’t necessary for a client with endocarditis.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
A nurse is conducting a health history with a client with a primary diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following disorders reported by the client is unlikely to play a role in exacerbating the heart failure?
- A.
Recent URI
- B.
Nutritional anemia
- C.
Peptic ulcer disease
- D.
A-Fib
Correct Answer
C. Peptic ulcer diseaseExplanation
Heart failure is precipitated or exacerbated by physical or emotional stress. dysrhythmias. infections. anemia. thyroid disorders. pregnancy. Paget’s disease. nutritional deficiencies (thiamine. alcoholism). pulmonary disease. and hypervolemia.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
A nurse is preparing for the admission of a client with heart failure who is being sent directly to the hospital from the physician’s office. The nurse would plan on having which of the following medications readily available for use?
- A.
Diltiazem (Cardizem)
- B.
Digoxin (Lanoxin)
- C.
Propranolol (Inderal)
- D.
Metoprolol (Lopressor)
Correct Answer
B. Digoxin (Lanoxin)Explanation
Digoxin exerts a positive inotropic effect on the heart while slowing the overall rate through a variety of mechanisms. Digoxin is the medication of choice to treat heart failure.Options A. C. and D: Diltiazem (calcium channel blocker) and propranolol and metoprolol (beta blockers) have a negative inotropic effect and would worsen the failing heart.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Sep 29, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Sep 21, 2017Quiz Created by
Santepro
Back to top