An Advanced Computer Hardware And Network Components Test
Below is an advanced computer hardware and network components test that is perfect for any person who is beginning their lessons on computers. The quiz below is designed for all of you out there that want to test out what they have understood so far. Feel like you are up to the challenge? Do give it a shot and get to see just how well you do.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
10
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
A computer network requires at least two computers to establish a connection and exchange information. With only one computer, there would be no other device to connect to, making it impossible to create a network. Therefore, the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network is two.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?
- A.
Homogeneous network.
- B.
Internetwork.
- C.
Intranetwork.
- D.
Local area network (LAN).
Correct Answer
C. Intranetwork.Explanation
A privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called an intranetwork. This type of network is designed for internal use within an organization, allowing employees to securely share resources and communicate with one another. Unlike an internetwork, which connects multiple networks together, an intranetwork is confined to a single organization. It is also different from a local area network (LAN), which refers to a network that covers a small geographical area like an office building or campus. A homogeneous network, on the other hand, refers to a network where all the devices and systems use the same protocol or technology.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?
- A.
Internetwork.
- B.
Intranetwork.
- C.
Homogeneous network.
- D.
Heterogeneous network.
Correct Answer
D. Heterogeneous network.Explanation
A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. In this type of network environment, there is a mix of hardware and software technologies from various manufacturers, making it diverse and complex. This allows for interoperability between different systems and enables communication and data exchange between them.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?
- A.
Internetwork.
- B.
Intranetwork.
- C.
Homogeneous network.
- D.
Heterogeneous network.
Correct Answer
C. Homogeneous network.Explanation
A homogeneous network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices and equipment in the network are from the same source and are designed to work seamlessly together. This can simplify network management and troubleshooting, as there is a consistent and unified system in place.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?
- A.
Global area network (GAN).
- B.
Local area network (LAN).
- C.
Metropolitan area network. (MAN).
- D.
Wide area network. (WAN).
Correct Answer
B. Local area network (LAN).Explanation
A local area network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It is typically used in homes, offices, or schools to connect computers and other devices together. LANs are characterized by high data transfer rates and low latency, making them ideal for sharing resources and communicating within a small area. Unlike wide area networks (WANs) that cover larger areas such as cities or countries, LANs are designed for local use and are usually privately owned and operated.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
- A.
Global area network (GAN).
- B.
Local area network (LAN).
- C.
Metropolitan area network. (MAN).
- D.
Wide area network. (WAN).
Correct Answer
D. Wide area network. (WAN).Explanation
A wide area network (WAN) is a type of communications network that connects a broad geographical region. Unlike local area networks (LANs) that are limited to a specific area, WANs allow for the connection of multiple LANs over a larger distance. This enables organizations with multiple locations in different cities or countries to communicate and share resources effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is wide area network (WAN).Rate this question:
-
- 7.
What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?
- A.
Global area network (GAN).
- B.
Local area network (LAN).
- C.
Metropolitan area network. (MAN).
- D.
Wide area network. (WAN).
Correct Answer
A. Global area network (GAN).Explanation
A Global Area Network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. It is designed to provide connectivity on a global scale, allowing organizations and individuals to communicate and share resources across vast distances. GANs typically utilize a combination of wired and wireless technologies to establish connections between networks, enabling seamless communication and data transfer on a global level.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?
- A.
2-10.
- B.
10-50.
- C.
50-250.
- D.
250-1,000.
Correct Answer
A. 2-10.Explanation
In a peer-to-peer network, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This is because peer-to-peer networks are designed for small-scale collaborations or file sharing among a limited number of users. These networks are decentralized, meaning that each user has equal authority and can directly communicate with other users. As the number of users increases, the network may become less efficient and harder to manage, which is why larger networks often use client-server models instead.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
How many users are in a single-server network?
- A.
2-10
- B.
10-50.
- C.
50-250.
- D.
250-1,000.
Correct Answer
B. 10-50.Explanation
A single-server network typically refers to a network where all the network resources are managed by a single server. In such a network, the number of users can vary, but it is generally recommended to have between 10 to 50 users. This range ensures that the server can handle the workload efficiently without being overwhelmed. Having too few users may underutilize the server's capabilities, while having too many users may lead to performance issues and decreased efficiency. Therefore, 10-50 users is considered an optimal range for a single-server network.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
How many users are in a multi-server network?
- A.
2-10.
- B.
10-50.
- C.
50-250.
- D.
250-1,000.
Correct Answer
C. 50-250.Explanation
The correct answer is 50-250. This range suggests that a multi-server network typically consists of a moderate number of users. Having too few users (2-10) would not require multiple servers, while having too many users (250-1,000) would likely require more servers than a typical multi-server network. Therefore, the range of 50-250 strikes a balance between the need for multiple servers and the size of the user base.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network
- A.
2-10.
- B.
10-50.
- C.
50-250.
- D.
250-1,000.
Correct Answer
D. 250-1,000.Explanation
The correct answer is 250-1,000. This range suggests that a multi-server high-speed backbone network can accommodate a significant number of users. It implies that the network has the capacity to handle a large volume of traffic and support a substantial user base. The range also indicates that the network is designed to be scalable, allowing for growth and expansion as the number of users increases.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?
- A.
Local area network (LAN).
- B.
Metropolitan area network (MAN).
- C.
Multi-server high-speed backbone network.
- D.
Enterprise network.
Correct Answer
D. Enterprise network.Explanation
An enterprise network is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in different cities or even around the world. This network is designed to support the communication and data sharing needs of a large organization or enterprise. It provides a secure and reliable infrastructure for employees to access resources, applications, and data no matter where they are located. Unlike a local area network (LAN) or a metropolitan area network (MAN) which are limited to a specific geographical area, an enterprise network spans across multiple locations and enables seamless connectivity and collaboration. A multi-server high-speed backbone network is not specific to connecting geographically dispersed offices, and a LAN or MAN may not have the necessary scale or capabilities to support a large enterprise.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?
- A.
Media access control address.
- B.
Network server name.
- C.
Subnet mask address.
- D.
Node serial number.
Correct Answer
A. Media access control address.Explanation
The media access control address is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. This address is a unique identifier assigned to each network interface card (NIC) and is used by the data link layer of the network protocol to ensure that data is sent to the correct destination. The MAC address is typically a 48-bit hexadecimal number and is hard-coded into the NIC by the manufacturer.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
- A.
2.
- B.
4.
- C.
6.
- D.
8.
Correct Answer
B. 4.Explanation
The standard internet protocol, also known as IPv4, is broken down into 4 octets. An octet is a group of 8 bits, and in IPv4, each octet represents a portion of the IP address. The IP address is composed of 4 octets, separated by periods, with each octet ranging from 0 to 255. This allows for a total of 4,294,967,296 unique IP addresses in IPv4. However, due to the increasing demand for IP addresses, the internet is transitioning to IPv6, which uses 128-bit addresses and can accommodate a significantly larger number of unique addresses.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
What is the binary equivalent to the dotted-decimal number 96?
- A.
01100000.
- B.
01100110.
- C.
00001100.
- D.
10000001.
Correct Answer
A. 01100000.Explanation
The dotted-decimal number 96 is converted to its binary equivalent, which is 01100000.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
- A.
0.0.0.120.
- B.
0.10.230.0.
- C.
131.10.230.0.
- D.
255.255.255.0.
Correct Answer
C. 131.10.230.0.Explanation
The network ID of an IP address is obtained by setting all the host bits to 0. In this case, the IP address 131.10.230.120 has a subnet mask of /24, which means the first 24 bits are the network portion. Therefore, the network ID is obtained by setting the last 8 bits to 0, resulting in 131.10.230.0.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
- A.
0.0.0.120.
- B.
0.10.230.0.
- C.
131.10.230.0.
- D.
255.255.255.0.
Correct Answer
A. 0.0.0.120.Explanation
The host id refers to the portion of the IP address that identifies a specific device on a network. In this case, the IP address is given as 131.10.230.120/24, where /24 indicates that the first 24 bits are the network portion and the remaining 8 bits are the host portion. Therefore, the host id would be 0.0.0.120, as it represents the host portion of the IP address.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?
- A.
24.
- B.
48.
- C.
64.
- D.
128.
Correct Answer
C. 64.Explanation
An internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask typically covers 64 bits. The subnet mask is used to divide an IPv6 address into network and host portions. In IPv6, the first 64 bits represent the network prefix, while the remaining 64 bits are used for the host identifier. This allows for a large number of unique addresses and supports hierarchical addressing and routing.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?
- A.
10.
- B.
29.
- C.
30.
- D.
33.
Correct Answer
D. 33.Explanation
The correct answer is 33 because it is stated in the question that the series of Air Force instructions that covers communications and information is being asked for. Out of the given options, 33 is the only number that falls within the series range. The other options (10, 29, and 30) do not pertain to the specific series mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)?
- A.
AFPD 33–1.
- B.
AFI 33–112.
- C.
AFI 33–115v1.
- D.
AFI 29–2603v2.
Correct Answer
C. AFI 33–115v1.Explanation
AFI 33–115v1 provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG).Rate this question:
-
- 21.
According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
3.
- D.
4.
Correct Answer
A. 1.Explanation
According to the Air Force network structure, the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC) is located at the first tier.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base-level customers?
- A.
Network control center (NCC).
- B.
Network control center-deployable (NCC-D).
- C.
Network operations center (NOSC).
- D.
Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC).
Correct Answer
A. Network control center (NCC).Explanation
The network control center (NCC) is the network entity that provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base-level customers. It is responsible for monitoring and managing the network infrastructure, ensuring its availability and security. The NCC is the central point of contact for network-related issues and coordinates with other entities to resolve them. It plays a critical role in maintaining the integrity and functionality of the network for base-level customers.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?
- A.
Fault management server.
- B.
Network management server.
- C.
Performance management server.
- D.
Security management server.
Correct Answer
B. Network management server.Explanation
A network management server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It helps in monitoring, controlling, and optimizing network performance, ensuring that all network devices are functioning properly and efficiently. This server allows network administrators to identify and resolve network issues, manage network resources, and ensure smooth network operations. It plays a crucial role in managing and maintaining a network infrastructure, enhancing overall network efficiency and productivity.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?
- A.
Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.
- B.
Centralized, hybrid and distributed.
- C.
Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid.
- D.
Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed.
Correct Answer
A. Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.Explanation
The three most common network management architectures are centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. In a centralized architecture, all management functions are performed by a single entity or system. In a hierarchical architecture, management functions are divided into different levels or layers, with each level responsible for specific tasks. In a distributed architecture, management functions are distributed across multiple entities or systems, allowing for greater flexibility and scalability.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties?
- A.
Centralized.
- B.
Distributed.
- C.
Hierarchical.
- D.
Hybrid.
Correct Answer
A. Centralized.Explanation
A network architecture that has a network management platform on one computer system at a location responsible for all network management duties is referred to as centralized. In this architecture, all network management tasks and responsibilities are concentrated in one central location, making it easier to monitor and control the network from a single point. This approach can provide better efficiency and control over the network management process. Distributed architecture, on the other hand, involves distributing network management tasks across multiple systems, hierarchical architecture involves organizing network management into multiple levels of control, and hybrid architecture combines elements of both centralized and distributed approaches.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?
- A.
Centralized.
- B.
Distributed.
- C.
Hierarchical.
- D.
Hybrid.
Correct Answer
C. Hierarchical.Explanation
Hierarchical network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients. In this architecture, the central server is responsible for controlling and managing the entire network, while the client systems are used for accessing and utilizing network resources. This hierarchical structure allows for efficient network management and control, as well as easy scalability and expansion of the network.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
- A.
Inactive.
- B.
Interactive.
- C.
Proactive.
- D.
Reactive.
Correct Answer
B. Interactive.Explanation
When you are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause, you are working at an interactive level of network management activity. This level involves actively engaging with the network and its components to identify and resolve issues. It requires direct interaction and intervention from the network manager to address problems and ensure smooth functioning of the network.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?
- A.
Inactive.
- B.
Reactive.
- C.
Interactive.
- D.
Proactive.
Correct Answer
D. Proactive.Explanation
When the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis and gives a root cause alarm for the problem at hand, it indicates that the network management activity is being conducted at a proactive level. This means that the network is being actively monitored and analyzed in order to identify and address potential issues before they escalate into larger problems. The proactive approach allows for timely intervention and problem resolution, helping to ensure the smooth functioning of the network.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
- A.
Monitoring and analyzing.
- B.
Monitoring and replacing.
- C.
Monitoring and tuning.
- D.
Analyzing and tuning.
Correct Answer
C. Monitoring and tuning.Explanation
Performance management involves monitoring and analyzing the performance of a system or process. Monitoring refers to the continuous tracking and measuring of performance metrics to identify any issues or deviations from desired performance. Tuning, on the other hand, involves making adjustments or optimizations to improve the performance of the system or process. Therefore, monitoring and tuning are the two separate functional categories involved in performance management.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?
- A.
Tuning.
- B.
Analyzing.
- C.
Gathering.
- D.
Monitoring.
Correct Answer
D. Monitoring.Explanation
Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves the continuous tracking and observation of activities on the network. This function of performance management allows for the collection of historical data, which can then be analyzed and used for tuning and analyzing network performance. Gathering, on the other hand, refers to the initial collection of data, while analyzing focuses on interpreting and making sense of the collected data. Monitoring is specifically geared towards tracking and observing network activities over time.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
- A.
Configuration.
- B.
Performance.
- C.
Accounting.
- D.
Security.
Correct Answer
D. Security.Explanation
The network management area concerned with controlling access points to information is security. Security measures are put in place to restrict unauthorized access to sensitive data and protect the network from cyber threats. This includes implementing firewalls, authentication protocols, encryption, and other security measures to ensure that only authorized users have access to the information.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
What is established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?
- A.
Fault parameters.
- B.
Tolerance parameters.
- C.
Low-level software alarms.
- D.
Low-level hardware alarms.
Correct Answer
B. Tolerance parameters.Explanation
Tolerance parameters are established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors due to a fault. These parameters define the acceptable range of errors or deviations from the expected behavior. When errors exceed the tolerance parameters, it indicates a fault or abnormal behavior that needs to be addressed. Therefore, tolerance parameters help in identifying and distinguishing between normal errors and errors caused by faults.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the operational system interface (OSI) model?
- A.
Session.
- B.
Transport.
- C.
Presentation.
- D.
Application.
Correct Answer
A. Session.Explanation
Network management protocols are designed to reside above the Session layer of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating connections between applications. Network management protocols, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), are used to monitor and control network devices and services. These protocols require a reliable and established session between the network management system and the managed devices, which is why they operate above the Session layer.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?
- A.
Object identifier.
- B.
Network device map.
- C.
Network protocol list.
- D.
Management information base.
Correct Answer
D. Management information base.Explanation
A Management Information Base (MIB) is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices. It is a database that stores information about the devices on a network, such as their configuration, status, and performance. MIB allows network administrators to monitor and manage network devices by providing a standardized way to access and retrieve information from these devices. It is an essential component of network management systems and plays a crucial role in monitoring and troubleshooting network issues.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?
- A.
Management.
- B.
Private.
- C.
Directory.
- D.
Experimental.
Correct Answer
B. Private.Explanation
The correct answer is "Private." In the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure, the private area is reserved for vendors to define their own label and leaf objects that are associated with specific manufactured equipment. This allows vendors to customize and add specific management capabilities to their equipment within the SNMP framework.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?
- A.
Primary domain controller (PDC).
- B.
Backup domain controller.
- C.
Manager.
- D.
Agent.
Correct Answer
D. Agent.Explanation
The correct answer is "Agent." In a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) network, the agent is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. The agent is installed on the managed devices and communicates with the management system, providing information about the device's performance, status, and configuration. The agent acts as an intermediary between the management system and the network devices, allowing for effective network monitoring and management.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information?
- A.
Get.
- B.
Set.
- C.
Trap.
- D.
GetNext.
Correct Answer
A. Get.Explanation
The correct answer is "Get." In Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), the Get message is used to request specific instances of management information from a network device. It allows the SNMP manager to retrieve information such as the value of a particular variable or the status of a specific device.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?
- A.
Get.
- B.
Set.
- C.
Trap.
- D.
GetNext.
Correct Answer
D. GetNext.Explanation
The GetNext SNMP message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. This message allows the SNMP manager to request the next set of information from the SNMP agent in a sequence. It is useful when the manager needs to retrieve a large amount of data in a more efficient manner, as it reduces the number of requests and responses required.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information?
- A.
Get.
- B.
Set.
- C.
Trap.
- D.
GetNext.
Correct Answer
B. Set.Explanation
The correct answer is "Set." The Set message is used in SNMP to modify the value of one or more instances of management information. This message allows the management station to change the values of variables on the managed devices. It is commonly used for configuration and control purposes in network management.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?
- A.
Get.
- B.
Set.
- C.
Trap.
- D.
GetNext.
Correct Answer
C. Trap.Explanation
A trap message is an unsolicited message sent from an SNMP agent to the manager. It is used to notify the manager about a specific event or condition that has occurred in the network. Traps are typically sent when there is a significant change in the network, such as an error or a failure. The manager can then take appropriate actions based on the information received in the trap message.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?
- A.
Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.
- B.
Neighbor probe.
- C.
Containment probe.
- D.
System information probe.
Correct Answer
B. Neighbor probe.Explanation
A neighbor probe is a type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB). It is used to discover and monitor neighboring devices in a network and gather information about their connectivity status. By collecting this information, a neighbor probe helps in identifying the devices connected to a network and their relationships, enabling efficient network management and troubleshooting.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?
- A.
Broker.
- B.
Clients.
- C.
Map console.
- D.
Domain manager.
Correct Answer
D. Domain manager.Explanation
The centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application is the domain manager. The domain manager is responsible for managing and organizing the various components of the system, including brokers, clients, and the map console. It acts as a central hub for coordinating and monitoring the system's activities, ensuring efficient and effective management of the automated report tracking process.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
- A.
Broker.
- B.
Clients.
- C.
Probes.
- D.
Consoles.
Correct Answer
A. Broker.Explanation
The component of the SMARTS application that contains knowledge of available domain managers is the Broker. The Broker acts as a central hub for communication between the various components of the system, including the domain managers. It maintains information about the availability and status of the domain managers, allowing other components to easily access and interact with them.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications?
- A.
Compound events, alarm, and trend.
- B.
Compound events, problems, and network.
- C.
Auto-discovery, compound, and symptomatic events.
- D.
Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.
Correct Answer
D. Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.Explanation
The correct answer is "Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events." This answer is correct because it accurately identifies the three types of notifications in the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS). Compound events refer to events that are composed of multiple individual events, problems refer to issues or errors in the system, and symptomatic events refer to events that indicate symptoms of a larger problem.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events?
- A.
Blue.
- B.
Orange.
- C.
Purple.
- D.
Yellow.
Correct Answer
C. Purple.Explanation
Purple color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?
- A.
7.
- B.
14.
- C.
19.
- D.
21.
Correct Answer
D. 21.Explanation
The performance monitor provides you with 21 different categories of information about your network. This means that it offers a wide range of data and insights regarding the performance and functioning of your network. With such a comprehensive set of categories, you can obtain a detailed understanding of various aspects of your network's performance, enabling you to make informed decisions and troubleshoot any issues effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?
- A.
Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS).
- B.
Protocol analyzer.
- C.
Network root router.
- D.
Windows advanced server.
Correct Answer
B. Protocol analyzer.Explanation
A protocol analyzer is a device that provides the capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software. It is used to capture and analyze network traffic, allowing network administrators and developers to troubleshoot network issues, monitor network performance, and develop and test network protocols and applications. It helps in identifying and resolving network problems, optimizing network performance, and ensuring the smooth functioning of digital communications.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?
- A.
Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
Correct Answer
C. Protocol statistics.Explanation
Protocol statistics provide information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol. This means that by analyzing the protocol statistics, one can gather data on how efficiently the network is being used and identify any errors or issues that may be occurring within that specific protocol. Media access control (MAC) node statistics, connection statistics, and node discovery may provide other types of information, but they do not specifically focus on network utilization and frame errors related to a specific protocol.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
- A.
Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
Correct Answer
A. Media access control (MAC) node statistics.Explanation
Media access control (MAC) node statistics report errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. These statistics provide information about the performance and reliability of the MAC layer, including any errors or issues that may be occurring at the physical layer. By monitoring the MAC node statistics, network administrators can identify and troubleshoot any physical layer problems that may be affecting network performance.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
- A.
Media access control (MAC)
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
Correct Answer
D. Node discovery.Explanation
When the protocol analyzer application is activated, node discovery automatically runs in the background. Node discovery is the process of identifying and mapping all the devices on a network. This allows the protocol analyzer to gather information about the network topology and the devices connected to it. By running node discovery, the protocol analyzer can provide a comprehensive view of the network and enable more accurate analysis of network traffic.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jun 04, 2017Quiz Created by
James Ciccone
- Binary Code Quizzes
- Computer Concept Quizzes
- Computer Essential Quizzes
- Computer Forensics Quizzes
- Computer Hardware Quizzes
- Computer Parts Quizzes
- Computer Programming Quizzes
- Computer Science Quizzes
- Computer Shortcut Key Quizzes
- Computer Skills Quizzes
- Computer Virus Quizzes
- Cyber Security Quizzes
- Data Quizzes
- Data Security Quizzes
- Hacking Quizzes
- HCI Quizzes
- IT SecurITy Quizzes
- Malware Quizzes
- Microprocessor Quizzes
- Network Quizzes
- Operating System Quizzes
- Phishing Quizzes
- Programming Language Quizzes
- Software Quizzes
Back to top