Vol. 1 - Services General - 5 Level
- 1.
How is the decision to train specific task and knowledge items in an initial skills course made?
- A.
Subject matter experts' inputs only.
- B.
A review of the occupational survey report (OSR) data only.
- C.
By the career field manager based on his or her experiences.
- D.
A review of the OSR data and subject matter experts' inputs.
Correct Answer
D. A review of the OSR data and subject matter experts' inputs.Explanation
The decision to train specific task and knowledge items in an initial skills course is made by reviewing the occupational survey report (OSR) data and taking into account the inputs of subject matter experts. This ensures that the training is based on accurate and up-to-date information about the tasks and knowledge required for the specific career field. By combining the OSR data with the expertise of subject matter experts, a comprehensive and effective training program can be developed.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Training for the Services Journeyman 5 level primarily consists of...
- A.
Fitness Specialist Course.
- B.
On-the-job training (OJT).
- C.
Shift leader mobile training.
- D.
Journeyman Leadership course.
Correct Answer
B. On-the-job training (OJT).Explanation
Training for the Services Journeyman 5 level primarily consists of on-the-job training (OJT). This means that the training is mainly focused on practical experience and learning while performing the actual tasks and responsibilities of the job. OJT allows the trainee to gain hands-on experience and develop the necessary skills and knowledge required for the position. It provides an opportunity to learn from experienced professionals and apply theoretical concepts in real-world scenarios. This type of training is often considered effective in preparing individuals for their roles as it allows them to learn in a practical and immersive environment.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is the minimum number of months required for on-the-job training (OJT) prior to the 7-skill level upgrade?
- A.
9.
- B.
12.
- C.
15.
- D.
18.
Correct Answer
B. 12.Explanation
The minimum number of months required for on-the-job training (OJT) prior to the 7-skill level upgrade is 12.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What is the minimum rank Airmen must attain before becoming a superintendent?
- A.
TSgt.
- B.
MSgt.
- C.
SMSgt.
- D.
CMSgt.
Correct Answer
C. SMSgt.Explanation
The minimum rank Airmen must attain before becoming a superintendent is SMSgt. This is because SMSgt is the highest enlisted rank in the Air Force and is typically required for leadership positions such as superintendent. TSgt, MSgt, and CMSgt are lower ranks and do not meet the minimum requirement for this position.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The career field education and training plan (CFETP) provides all of the following except a...
- A.
Comprehensive education and training document that identifies life-cycle education/training requirements.
- B.
Clear career path to success and instills rigor in all aspects of the career field training.
- C.
Clear path to instill a sense of industry in career field training.
- D.
Clear and comprehensive document that identifies minimum core task requirements for the associated Air Force specialty (AFS).
Correct Answer
C. Clear path to instill a sense of industry in career field training.Explanation
The CFETP provides a comprehensive education and training document that identifies life-cycle education/training requirements. It also provides a clear career path to success and instills rigor in all aspects of the career field training. Additionally, it provides a clear and comprehensive document that identifies minimum core task requirements for the associated Air Force specialty (AFS). However, it does not provide a clear path to instill a sense of industry in career field training.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Qualification training is designed to qualify an Airman...
- A.
Beyond the required minimum requirement of the Air Force specialty (AFS).
- B.
In a specific duty position.
- C.
To upgrade to the 5-skill level.
- D.
In all required tasks.
Correct Answer
B. In a specific duty position.Explanation
Qualification training is designed to train an Airman in a specific duty position. This means that the training is focused on providing the necessary skills and knowledge to perform the duties and responsibilities associated with a particular job or role within the Air Force. The training goes beyond the minimum requirements of the Air Force specialty and aims to fully prepare the Airman for the specific duties they will be performing in their assigned position.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What does Part II of the career field education and training plan (CFETP) not provide?
- A.
Course objectives list.
- B.
Available support materials.
- C.
MAJCOM-unique training requirements.
- D.
Resource constraints.
Correct Answer
D. Resource constraints.Explanation
Part II of the career field education and training plan (CFETP) provides course objectives list, available support materials, and MAJCOM-unique training requirements. However, it does not provide information on resource constraints. This means that Part II of the CFETP does not include details on the limitations or restrictions in terms of resources such as budget, staffing, or equipment that may affect the implementation of the training plan.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The specialty training standards (STS) serves as a contract between what major command (MAJCOM) and the functional user to show which of the overall training requirements for an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) are taught in formal schools and correspondence courses?
- A.
Air Combat Command (ACC).
- B.
Air Mobility Command (AMC).
- C.
Air Force Material Command (AFMC).
- D.
Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
Correct Answer
D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).Explanation
The correct answer is Air Education and Training Command (AETC). The specialty training standards (STS) serve as a contract between AETC and the functional user to show which of the overall training requirements for an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) are taught in formal schools and correspondence courses.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Trainers are selected based on their...
- A.
Time in grade.
- B.
Motivation.
- C.
Experience.
- D.
Rank.
Correct Answer
C. Experience.Explanation
Trainers are selected based on their experience because it indicates their level of knowledge and expertise in the field. Experienced trainers are more likely to have a deep understanding of the subject matter and have encountered various scenarios, which allows them to effectively train others. Time in grade, motivation, and rank may be important factors in some contexts, but experience is generally considered the most crucial criterion for selecting trainers.Rate this question:
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- 10.
We are required to rotate through at least two of the six core areas in Services prior to the award of the...
- A.
9 level.
- B.
7 level.
- C.
5 level.
- D.
3 level.
Correct Answer
B. 7 level. -
- 11.
Individuals should remain in a core function during the rotation program for how many months?
- A.
9 to 12.
- B.
12 to 15.
- C.
18 to 24.
- D.
21 to 26.
Correct Answer
C. 18 to 24.Explanation
During a rotation program, individuals are typically expected to remain in a core function for a certain period of time before moving on to another function. The given correct answer suggests that individuals should remain in a core function for a period of 18 to 24 months. This allows individuals to gain a comprehensive understanding of the specific role and function, develop necessary skills, and contribute effectively before transitioning to a new area of the organization.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which form do we used to document all rotations in a core area?
- A.
AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record.
- B.
AF IMT Form 9, Course Exam scorecard.
- C.
AF Form 797, Job Qualifications Standard.
- D.
AF IMT Form 2096, Classification Action.
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record.Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record. This form is used to document all rotations in a core area.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which is not a duty or responsibility of a Services specialist?
- A.
Managing force support squadron (FSS) functions.
- B.
Performing FSS functions.
- C.
Documenting FSS functions.
- D.
Inspecting and evaluating FSS functions.
Correct Answer
C. Documenting FSS functions.Explanation
A Services specialist is responsible for managing and performing force support squadron (FSS) functions, as well as inspecting and evaluating them. However, documenting FSS functions is not listed as a duty or responsibility of a Services specialist.Rate this question:
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- 14.
When developing a master task listing (MTL), who determines which tasks in the specialty training standard (STS) apply to their specific mission?
- A.
Individual.
- B.
Supervisor.
- C.
Flight chief.
- D.
Training manager.
Correct Answer
B. Supervisor.Explanation
The supervisor determines which tasks in the specialty training standard (STS) apply to their specific mission when developing a master task listing (MTL). The supervisor is responsible for overseeing and managing the work of their team, including assigning tasks and ensuring that the necessary training is provided. Therefore, it is the supervisor's role to determine which tasks from the STS are relevant to their team's specific mission and include them in the MTL.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which is not an advantage of developing a master training listing (MTL)?
- A.
All task requirements are listed in one place.
- B.
The task requirements have to be memorized.
- C.
Promotes program continuity by allowing everyone to know what the requirements are.
- D.
The MTL can be broken down to show what tasks and skill levels are required for specific duty positions.
Correct Answer
B. The task requirements have to be memorized.Explanation
Developing a master training listing (MTL) has several advantages. It allows all task requirements to be listed in one place, promoting program continuity by ensuring that everyone knows what the requirements are. Additionally, the MTL can be broken down to show the specific tasks and skill levels required for different duty positions. However, one disadvantage of the MTL is that the task requirements have to be memorized, which can be time-consuming and prone to errors.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The purpose of Force Support Awards and Recognition programs is to...
- A.
Recognize our best performers and best installation level programs.
- B.
Employ personnel at major command (MAJCOM) positions.
- C.
Ensure promotion to next rank is achieved.
- D.
Ensure qualification to the next skill level.
Correct Answer
A. Recognize our best performers and best installation level programs.Explanation
The purpose of Force Support Awards and Recognition programs is to recognize our best performers and best installation level programs. These programs are designed to acknowledge and appreciate the exceptional efforts and achievements of individuals and teams within the force support community. By recognizing their contributions, it motivates and encourages others to strive for excellence, fostering a culture of high performance and dedication. This recognition also helps to promote a positive image of the organization and its members, both internally and externally.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What Air Force form is used to nominate an individual, program, or installation for Force Support and A1 Awards?
- A.
1000.
- B.
1119.
- C.
1206.
- D.
1339.
Correct Answer
C. 1206.Explanation
The correct answer is 1206. The Air Force form 1206 is used to nominate an individual, program, or installation for Force Support and A1 Awards. This form is specifically designed for recognizing outstanding achievements and contributions in the Air Force. It allows for the nomination of individuals or teams who have demonstrated exceptional performance in their respective fields. The form provides a structured format for detailing the accomplishments and qualifications of the nominee, which is then evaluated by a selection board to determine the recipients of the awards.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Headings for nominations for A1 Special Recognition award are identical to which legacy award?
- A.
Gen Benjamin Oliver Davis, Jr. Management Engineering.
- B.
Gen Michael P.C. Carns.
- C.
Dr. Beverly L. Schmalzried.
- D.
Dr. Edwin C. Peterson Education and Training Manager.
Correct Answer
D. Dr. Edwin C. Peterson Education and Training Manager.Explanation
The correct answer is Dr. Edwin C. Peterson Education and Training Manager. This is because the question asks for the legacy award that has identical headings to the nominations for the A1 Special Recognition award. Among the given options, only Dr. Edwin C. Peterson Education and Training Manager matches the format of the A1 Special Recognition award. Therefore, this is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What percentage is allotted for the Significant Self-Improvement nomination heading for Individual Award nominees?
- A.
10.
- B.
15.
- C.
20.
- D.
25.
Correct Answer
B. 15.Explanation
The percentage allotted for the Significant Self-Improvement nomination heading for Individual Award nominees is 15%.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What Force Support recognition program recognizes excellence in Air Force food service?
- A.
AF Innkeeper Award.
- B.
John L. Hennessy Trophy.
- C.
12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year Award.
- D.
Lieutenant General Norm Lezy Services Award.
Correct Answer
B. John L. Hennessy TropHy.Explanation
The John L. Hennessy Trophy is the Force Support recognition program that recognizes excellence in Air Force food service.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The Services marketing program office supports force support squadron commanders or directors, flight chiefs, and activity managers by adopting what kind of marketing practices?
- A.
Sound.
- B.
Internet.
- C.
Indigent.
- D.
Inexpensive.
Correct Answer
A. Sound.Explanation
The Services marketing program office supports force support squadron commanders or directors, flight chiefs, and activity managers by adopting sound marketing practices. This means that they implement strategies and techniques that are effective, reliable, and based on solid principles. They prioritize methods that are proven to work and yield positive results, ensuring that their marketing efforts are well-planned and executed.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Activity managers require marketing information that is...
- A.
Brief, clear, and timely.
- B.
Accurate, brief, and clear.
- C.
Accurate, clear, and timely.
- D.
Accurate, reliable, and timely.
Correct Answer
D. Accurate, reliable, and timely.Explanation
Activity managers require marketing information that is accurate, reliable, and timely in order to make informed decisions and develop effective marketing strategies. Accurate information ensures that managers have access to the correct data and facts, while reliable information ensures that the data is trustworthy and can be relied upon. Timely information is important as it allows managers to stay updated and respond quickly to market changes and trends. Therefore, accurate, reliable, and timely information is crucial for activity managers to effectively plan and execute marketing activities.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Advertising can be posted on the Web or the Internet as allowed by the...
- A.
Facility manager.
- B.
Marketing manager.
- C.
Marketing policy.
- D.
Local base policy.
Correct Answer
D. Local base policy.Explanation
The correct answer is "local base policy." This means that advertising on the Web or the Internet is permitted based on the policies set by the local base, which could be a specific location or organization. The local base policy determines the guidelines and restrictions for advertising, ensuring that it aligns with the rules and regulations of the specific area or company.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Marketing is restricted from purchasing space for...
- A.
Special programs.
- B.
Limited sale items.
- C.
Lunch meal menus.
- D.
Alcoholic beverages.
Correct Answer
D. Alcoholic beverages.Explanation
Marketing is restricted from purchasing space for alcoholic beverages. This could be because marketing is focused on promoting products or services, and advertising alcoholic beverages may not align with the brand image or target audience. Additionally, there may be legal restrictions or regulations in place regarding the advertising and promotion of alcoholic beverages.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which is not a general guideline for advertising using social medial other than direct mail?
- A.
Arrange for advertising produced for distribution on the installation.
- B.
Prepare advertising media directed at local customers.
- C.
Distribute advertising through formal base channels.
- D.
Accept voluntarily initiated media from suppliers.
Correct Answer
C. Distribute advertising through formal base channels.Explanation
This answer is correct because distributing advertising through formal base channels is not a general guideline for advertising using social media. Social media advertising typically involves reaching a wider audience through platforms such as Facebook, Instagram, Twitter, etc., rather than relying on formal base channels for distribution.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which organization allocates appropriated fund (APF) money?
- A.
Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES).
- B.
Nonappropriated funds instrumentalities (NAFI) office.
- C.
Commissary.
- D.
Congress.
Correct Answer
D. Congress.Explanation
The correct answer is Congress. Congress is responsible for allocating appropriated fund (APF) money. As the legislative branch of the U.S. government, Congress has the authority to approve and allocate funds for various purposes, including funding government agencies and programs. The Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES), Nonappropriated funds instrumentalities (NAFI) office, and Commissary may receive funding from Congress, but they do not directly allocate APF money themselves.Rate this question:
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- 27.
At what initial dollar amount are procurement funds reserved for?
- A.
$50,000.
- B.
$40,000.
- C.
$30,000.
- D.
$20,000.
Correct Answer
A. $50,000.Explanation
Procurement funds are reserved for an initial dollar amount of $50,000. This means that when procurement activities are initiated, a minimum of $50,000 is set aside for the purpose of purchasing goods or services. This amount ensures that there is sufficient funding available to cover the costs associated with procurement and allows for flexibility in negotiating contracts and making purchases.Rate this question:
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- 28.
At what organizational level are procurement funds controlled?
- A.
Flight.
- B.
Squadron.
- C.
Installation.
- D.
Major command.
Correct Answer
D. Major command.Explanation
Procurement funds are controlled at the major command level. Major commands are responsible for overseeing and managing procurement activities within their jurisdiction. They have the authority to allocate and distribute funds for procurement purposes, ensuring that the necessary resources are acquired in a timely and efficient manner. This level of control allows major commands to effectively coordinate and manage procurement activities across multiple units and installations under their command.Rate this question:
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- 29.
By when must fallout funds be spent?
- A.
End of the fiscal year.
- B.
End of the calendar year.
- C.
January 31 of current fiscal year.
- D.
January 31 of current calendar year.
Correct Answer
A. End of the fiscal year.Explanation
Fallout funds must be spent by the end of the fiscal year. This means that any unused funds from the fallout must be utilized and allocated before the fiscal year ends. This ensures that the funds are not carried over into the next fiscal year and are used for their intended purpose within the current budget cycle.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Establishing goals for a budget are based on the requirements of your...
- A.
Customer.
- B.
Staff.
- C.
Resource manager (RM).
- D.
Commander.
Correct Answer
D. Commander.Explanation
Establishing goals for a budget is based on the requirements of the commander. The commander is responsible for setting the overall objectives and priorities for the organization, and the budget goals need to align with these objectives. The commander's input and guidance are crucial in determining the financial priorities and allocating resources accordingly. The commander's vision and strategic direction play a significant role in shaping the budget goals and ensuring that they are in line with the overall mission of the organization.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Who prepares the NAF Requirements Budget (NAFFA)?
- A.
Commander.
- B.
Resource manager (RM).
- C.
Nonappropriated Fund Financial Analyst (NAFFA).
- D.
Activity manager.
Correct Answer
D. Activity manager.Explanation
The activity manager prepares the NAF Requirements Budget (NAFFA). The NAFFA is a budget document that outlines the financial requirements for Nonappropriated Fund (NAF) activities. The activity manager is responsible for identifying the funding needs of their specific activity and preparing the budget accordingly. This includes determining the costs of personnel, supplies, equipment, and other resources necessary to operate the activity. The NAFFA is then used to allocate funds and make financial decisions for the NAF activity.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The nonappropriated funds (NAF) requirements budget (NRB) is prepared for a minimum of...
- A.
2 years.
- B.
3 years.
- C.
4 years.
- D.
5 years.
Correct Answer
D. 5 years.Explanation
The nonappropriated funds (NAF) requirements budget (NRB) is prepared for a minimum of 5 years. This is because long-term planning is necessary to ensure the effective allocation of resources and to meet the financial needs of the organization over an extended period of time. By preparing a budget for 5 years, the organization can anticipate future expenses, make informed decisions, and adapt to any changes or challenges that may arise in the future.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Who prioritizes items in the nonappropriated funds (NAF) requirements budjet (NRB)?
- A.
Comptroller.
- B.
NAF accounting office (AO).
- C.
Budget working committee.
- D.
NAF council.
Correct Answer
C. Budget working committee.Explanation
The budget working committee is responsible for prioritizing items in the nonappropriated funds (NAF) requirements budget (NRB). They review and assess the various needs and requests within the budget and determine the order of priority based on factors such as importance, urgency, and available resources. The committee ensures that the most critical items receive the necessary funding and attention, while also considering the overall financial constraints and objectives of the organization.Rate this question:
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- 34.
At base level, who is the single custodian for all nonappropriated fund (NAF) assets, unless another individual is appointed as directed by Air Force Instruction (AFI) 34-201?
- A.
Supervisor.
- B.
Flight chief.
- C.
Resource manager (RM).
- D.
Force support squadron commander.
Correct Answer
C. Resource manager (RM).Explanation
The resource manager (RM) is the single custodian for all nonappropriated fund (NAF) assets at the base level, unless another individual is appointed as directed by Air Force Instruction (AFI) 34-201. The RM is responsible for managing and overseeing the financial resources and assets of the organization, ensuring their proper use and accountability. They play a crucial role in budgeting, financial planning, and resource allocation, making them the most suitable candidate for this custodial role.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Who provides accounting support to the force support squadron (FSS)?
- A.
Nonappropriated fund (NAF) accounting office (AO) personnel.
- B.
Resource manager (RM).
- C.
NAF resale operations personnel.
- D.
NAF activity manager.
Correct Answer
A. Nonappropriated fund (NAF) accounting office (AO) personnel.Explanation
Nonappropriated fund (NAF) accounting office (AO) personnel provide accounting support to the force support squadron (FSS). They are responsible for managing the financial transactions and records related to nonappropriated funds, which are funds generated by the FSS through activities such as morale, welfare, and recreation programs. These personnel ensure proper financial management, budgeting, and reporting for the FSS, helping to maintain accurate and transparent financial records.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What requires internal control?
- A.
Cash or cash equivalents and resale merchandise only.
- B.
Cash or cash equivalents and fixed assets only.
- C.
Cash or cash equivalents, fixed assets, resale merchandise and consumable supplies only.
- D.
Cash or cash equivalents, fixed assets, resale merchandise, consumable supplies, and securities.
Correct Answer
D. Cash or cash equivalents, fixed assets, resale merchandise, consumable supplies, and securities.Explanation
Internal control is a system of policies and procedures put in place by an organization to safeguard its assets, ensure the accuracy and reliability of financial information, promote operational efficiency, and ensure compliance with laws and regulations. Cash or cash equivalents, fixed assets, resale merchandise, consumable supplies, and securities are all assets that need to be controlled and protected through internal control measures.Rate this question:
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- 37.
For losses up to and including $50, who conducts an informal review and files the documentation in the activity?
- A.
Resource manager (RM).
- B.
Combat support flight chief.
- C.
Activity manager.
- D.
Supervisor.
Correct Answer
C. Activity manager.Explanation
The activity manager conducts an informal review and files the documentation for losses up to and including $50. This implies that the activity manager is responsible for overseeing and managing the activities related to the losses within the specified monetary range.Rate this question:
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- 38.
For losses over $50 up to and including $250, the activity manager conducts a review and provides a brief written explanation to the...
- A.
Resource manager (RM).
- B.
Combat support flight chief.
- C.
Force support squadron commander.
- D.
Installation commander.
Correct Answer
A. Resource manager (RM).Explanation
When losses occur within the range of $50 to $250, the activity manager is responsible for conducting a review and providing a brief written explanation. The resource manager (RM) is the appropriate recipient of this explanation as they are responsible for managing and allocating resources within the organization. They need to be informed about any losses and the reasons behind them in order to make informed decisions regarding resource allocation and potential adjustments to prevent further losses.Rate this question:
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- 39.
According to Air Force Instruction (AFI) 34-202, who approves funds storage limits?
- A.
Resource manager (RM).
- B.
Nonappropriated fund (NAF) accounting officer (AO).
- C.
Squadron commander.
- D.
Installation commander.
Correct Answer
D. Installation commander.Explanation
According to Air Force Instruction (AFI) 34-202, the installation commander is the one who approves funds storage limits.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which form is used to account for errors on an incorrectly rung sale on the cash register?
- A.
AF Form 645, Cash Register Adjustment.
- B.
AF Form 1401, NAF Petty Cash/Refund Voucher.
- C.
AF Form 1875, NAF Individual Cashier's Report.
- D.
AF Form 1876, NAF Consolidated Cost Center Report.
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 645, Cash Register Adjustment.Explanation
AF Form 645, Cash Register Adjustment, is used to account for errors on an incorrectly rung sale on the cash register. This form allows for the adjustment of the cash register records to correct any errors made during a sale transaction. It helps in maintaining accurate financial records and ensures that any discrepancies in the cash register are properly accounted for.Rate this question:
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- 41.
How often do activity managers make deposits to the center cashier or financial institution to keep cash on hand to a minimum?
- A.
Daily.
- B.
Weekly.
- C.
Monthly.
- D.
Quarterly.
Correct Answer
A. Daily.Explanation
Activity managers make daily deposits to the center cashier or financial institution to keep cash on hand to a minimum. This is done to ensure that the center has enough cash to cover daily expenses and to reduce the risk of theft or loss. By making daily deposits, the center can also maintain accurate records of its financial transactions and have better control over its cash flow.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Who approves operating instructions (OI) establishing procedures for the use of imprest funds?
- A.
Activity managers.
- B.
Supervisors.
- C.
Nonappropriated Fund Financial Analyst (NAFFA).
- D.
Resource manager (RM).
Correct Answer
D. Resource manager (RM).Explanation
The resource manager (RM) approves operating instructions (OI) establishing procedures for the use of imprest funds. Imprest funds are small amounts of cash that are kept on hand for minor expenses or emergencies. The resource manager is responsible for managing the financial resources of an organization, including the approval of operating instructions and procedures. They ensure that imprest funds are used properly and in accordance with established guidelines. Activity managers, supervisors, and the Nonappropriated Fund Financial Analyst (NAFFA) may have input or involvement in the process, but the final approval rests with the resource manager.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The primary consideration during a robbery is...
- A.
Safeguarding of human life.
- B.
Activating the robbery alarm.
- C.
Giving the robber marked money.
- D.
To remember in which direction the robber went.
Correct Answer
A. Safeguarding of human life.Explanation
During a robbery, the most important priority is to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals present. The value of human life surpasses any material possessions or monetary concerns. Therefore, safeguarding human life should take precedence over activating alarms, providing marked money, or tracking the direction in which the robber flees.Rate this question:
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- 44.
When it is safe, who should be informed that a robbery has been committed?
- A.
Supervisor.
- B.
Security forces.
- C.
Activity manager.
- D.
Squadron commander.
Correct Answer
B. Security forces.Explanation
When a robbery has been committed, the correct answer is to inform the security forces. This is because the security forces are specifically trained and equipped to handle such situations and ensure the safety of the people involved. They have the necessary expertise and resources to respond effectively to a robbery, apprehend the perpetrators, and secure the premises. Informing the security forces is crucial in order to minimize the risk and potential harm caused by the robbery, and to initiate the appropriate investigation and legal actions.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What should be done to avoid disturbing any fingerprints left by a robber?
- A.
Secure the scene.
- B.
Gather up all evidence.
- C.
Activate the robbery alarm system.
- D.
Observe the direction on the robber's escape.
Correct Answer
A. Secure the scene.Explanation
To avoid disturbing any fingerprints left by a robber, it is important to secure the scene. This means preventing anyone from entering or tampering with the area where the robbery took place. By doing so, the fingerprints can be preserved and collected as evidence by forensic experts. It is also crucial to gather up all evidence, including any potential fingerprints, to aid in the investigation. Activating the robbery alarm system and observing the direction of the robber's escape can be helpful in catching the culprit, but they do not directly address the preservation of fingerprints.Rate this question:
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- 46.
As the person on duty, what action should you take concerning the witnesses of the robbery?
- A.
Discuss detail with them.
- B.
Take their written statements.
- C.
Record their names and addresses.
- D.
Have them gather up all evidence at the scene.
Correct Answer
C. Record their names and addresses.Explanation
As the person on duty, it is important to gather information from the witnesses of the robbery. Recording their names and addresses is a crucial step as it allows for future contact and follow-up if needed. This information can be used for further investigation or as potential testimony in court. While discussing details with the witnesses and taking their written statements are also important actions, recording their names and addresses should be prioritized as it ensures their identification and availability for any further proceedings. Having them gather up all evidence at the scene may not be necessary as it is the duty of the authorities to properly collect and preserve evidence.Rate this question:
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- 47.
After purchasing a new piece of equipment, condemnation occurs when...
- A.
A newer model is available.
- B.
When deemed unusable by staff.
- C.
The item can be repaired, but funds are not available.
- D.
The cost of repair exceeds the maximum repair allowance.
Correct Answer
D. The cost of repair exceeds the maximum repair allowance.Explanation
Condemnation occurs when the cost of repair exceeds the maximum repair allowance. This means that if the equipment is damaged and the cost to repair it is higher than the maximum amount allowed for repairs, the equipment will be condemned. This is because it would not be cost-effective to repair the equipment in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When replacing a new piece of equipment, when should a replacement item be programmed into the long-range capital improvement plan (LRCIP)?
- A.
Immediately.
- B.
One year.
- C.
Three years.
- D.
Five years.
Correct Answer
A. Immediately.Explanation
When replacing a new piece of equipment, it is important to program the replacement item into the long-range capital improvement plan (LRCIP) immediately. This ensures that the replacement item is accounted for and budgeted in the long-term financial planning of the organization. Delaying the programming of the replacement item could lead to financial strain or unexpected expenses in the future. Therefore, it is crucial to address the replacement item immediately in order to effectively manage the organization's capital improvement plan.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Facility Category A funding for facility improvements are for mission-sustaining facilities such as fitness centers, community activity centers, ...
- A.
Libraries and intramural sports fields.
- B.
Family camps and aero clubs.
- C.
Youth activities and pools.
- D.
Clubs and golf courses.
Correct Answer
A. Libraries and intramural sports fields.Explanation
Facility Category A funding is specifically allocated for mission-sustaining facilities. Among the options provided, libraries and intramural sports fields are the only ones that fall under this category. Fitness centers, community activity centers, family camps, aero clubs, youth activities, pools, clubs, and golf courses may be important facilities, but they do not necessarily contribute directly to the mission of the organization. Therefore, libraries and intramural sports fields are the correct answer as they align with the purpose of Facility Category A funding.Rate this question:
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- 50.
When replacing equipment to modernize, the justification must describe/promote efficiency in money, manpower,...
- A.
Time, and ease of use.
- B.
Time, and productivity.
- C.
Productivity, and useful life.
- D.
Productivity, and ease of use.
Correct Answer
B. Time, and productivity.Explanation
The justification for replacing equipment to modernize should focus on saving time and increasing productivity. This means that the new equipment should be more efficient and allow tasks to be completed more quickly, while also improving overall productivity levels. By emphasizing these factors, the justification can demonstrate the benefits of investing in modern equipment and how it will positively impact the organization.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 11, 2017Quiz Created by
Maria McGinnis
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