Operator Knowledge Spot Check Quiz
(373).webp "Operator Knowledge Spot Check Quiz - Quiz")
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- 1.
To protect against hydrocarbon vapors _______ __ _____ of venting processes and ____ _____ as possible to prevent exposure.
- A.
Down wind, and as close as possible.
- B.
Stand up wind, far away.
- C.
On top of, and as close as possible.
Correct Answer
B. Stand up wind, far away.Explanation
To protect against hydrocarbon vapors, it is recommended to stand upwind and stay far away from the source. This is because standing upwind helps to prevent the vapors from reaching and exposing oneself, while maintaining a safe distance minimizes the risk of inhalation or contact with the harmful substances.Rate this question:
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- 2.
To protect against fire and explosion, _____ ___ _____ _____ out of process areas that are not absolutely necessary.
- A.
Stand up wind.
- B.
Keep lighter with you at all times.
- C.
Keep all ignition sources.
Correct Answer
C. Keep all ignition sources.Explanation
The correct answer is "Keep all ignition sources." This answer is the most appropriate because it directly addresses the question of how to protect against fire and explosion. Ignition sources are potential triggers for fires and explosions, so keeping them away from process areas that are not necessary is a crucial safety measure. By doing so, the risk of accidental ignition and subsequent fire or explosion can be significantly minimized.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Why are Firechecks installed on the instrument air supply to ESD/ESV valves used for and how does it work?
- A.
In case of a pool fire around the valve, the firecheck will sense heat and immediately vent instrument supply air to the close valve.
- B.
In case of fire the Firechek will notify the board operator on the DCS.
- C.
The Firecheck will constantly monitor via a Fire eye for any flames and automatically ESD the plant.
Correct Answer
A. In case of a pool fire around the valve, the firecheck will sense heat and immediately vent instrument supply air to the close valve.Explanation
Firechecks are installed on the instrument air supply to ESD/ESV valves to provide protection in case of a fire. When a pool fire occurs around the valve, the firecheck detects the heat and triggers the immediate venting of instrument supply air to close the valve. This action helps prevent the spread of fire and mitigate potential damage. The firecheck acts as a safety measure by quickly responding to fire incidents and ensuring the valve is closed to minimize risks.Rate this question:
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- 4.
To protect against the possibility of frostbite when working with Cryogenic liquids, what PPE should be used?
- A.
Leather insulated gloves and approved face shield.
- B.
Rubber gloves and sun glasses.
- C.
Cotton gloves and contact lens.
Correct Answer
A. Leather insulated gloves and approved face shield.Explanation
When working with Cryogenic liquids, there is a risk of frostbite due to the extremely low temperatures. Leather insulated gloves provide insulation and protection against the cold, preventing frostbite. An approved face shield is also necessary to protect the face from any splashes or contact with the Cryogenic liquid. Rubber gloves and sun glasses do not provide enough insulation and protection, while cotton gloves and contact lens do not provide adequate protection against the cold temperatures. Therefore, the correct PPE to use in this situation is leather insulated gloves and an approved face shield.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What are the two positions in the Incident Command System (ICS) that must be in place in the event of an emergency?
- A.
Logistics Officer and Operations Chief
- B.
Incident Commander and Safety Officer
- C.
Incident Commander and Public Information Officer
Correct Answer
B. Incident Commander and Safety OfficerExplanation
In the event of an emergency, two positions that must be in place in the Incident Command System (ICS) are the Incident Commander and Safety Officer. The Incident Commander is responsible for overall management and coordination of the incident response, making strategic decisions and ensuring effective communication. The Safety Officer, on the other hand, focuses on identifying and mitigating potential hazards and risks to ensure the safety of responders and the public. These two positions are crucial in ensuring a coordinated and safe response to emergencies.Rate this question:
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- 6.
In an emergency what is the first contact that needs to be made?
- A.
Operations Supervisor
- B.
Safety Specialist
- C.
911
- D.
Williams Public Information Officer
Correct Answer
C. 911Explanation
In an emergency, the first contact that needs to be made is 911. This is because 911 is the emergency telephone number in many countries, including the United States, and it is specifically designated for emergency situations. By calling 911, individuals can quickly reach emergency services such as the police, fire department, or ambulance, who can provide immediate assistance and dispatch the necessary resources to handle the situation effectively.Rate this question:
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- 7.
During an emergency, after evacuation the most important step is_______.
- A.
Identify Hazardous Materials
- B.
Isolate and Deny Access or Entry
- C.
Account for all Personnel
Correct Answer
C. Account for all PersonnelExplanation
During an emergency, after evacuation, it is crucial to account for all personnel. This step ensures that everyone has successfully evacuated the area and is safe. By accounting for all personnel, emergency responders can determine if anyone is missing or trapped, and take immediate action to rescue them if necessary. It also helps prevent confusion and allows for a more efficient and organized response to the emergency situation.Rate this question:
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- 8.
When local emergency responders arrive on site the incident commander should work with them to manage the incident. This is called what?
- A.
Unified Command
- B.
Joint Task Force
- C.
Joint Command
Correct Answer
A. Unified CommandExplanation
When local emergency responders arrive on site, the incident commander should work with them to manage the incident. This collaboration between the incident commander and local emergency responders is known as Unified Command. In Unified Command, all agencies and organizations involved in the incident work together to establish a common set of objectives and a single incident action plan. This approach ensures effective coordination, communication, and decision-making, leading to a more efficient and coordinated response to the incident. Joint Task Force and Joint Command refer to different command structures and are not applicable in this context.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What document is used to guide emergency response efforts?
- A.
Emergency Shutdown Operating Procedure
- B.
Emergency Response plan
- C.
SPCC
Correct Answer
B. Emergency Response planExplanation
The correct answer is Emergency Response plan. An Emergency Response plan is a document specifically designed to guide emergency response efforts. It outlines the necessary steps and procedures to be followed in the event of an emergency, providing a systematic approach to mitigate risks, protect lives and property, and ensure an effective response. This plan typically includes information on emergency contacts, evacuation procedures, communication protocols, resource allocation, and other relevant details to facilitate a coordinated and efficient emergency response.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Where is the Emergency Response plan located? Select all that apply
- A.
In all Williams Vehicles
- B.
White binder in the Control Room labeled ERP
- C.
On the Oak Grove Share Point Site
- D.
In the operations supervisor office
Correct Answer(s)
A. In all Williams Vehicles
B. White binder in the Control Room labeled ERP
C. On the Oak Grove Share Point SiteExplanation
The Emergency Response plan is located in all Williams Vehicles, in a white binder in the Control Room labeled ERP, and on the Oak Grove Share Point Site.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Where are the Muster areas for Oak Grove?
- A.
Fork Ridge Church, Warehouse and Middle Grave Creek Road
- B.
Fork Ridge Church, Oak Grove Admin Building, Middle Grave Creek Road
- C.
Fork Ridge Church, Alternate Road, Middle Grave Creek Road
Correct Answer
B. Fork Ridge Church, Oak Grove Admin Building, Middle Grave Creek RoadExplanation
The correct answer is Fork Ridge Church, Oak Grove Admin Building, Middle Grave Creek Road. This is because the question asks for the muster areas for Oak Grove, and these three locations are listed as the options.Rate this question:
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- 12.
When should an employee initiate an ESD? Select all that apply
- A.
A fire is observed in or around the facility that is larger than the incipient stage that could cause hydrocarbons to ignite resulting in an explosion. At the Oak Grove Facility, an incipient fire is defined as a fire that is larger than can be extinguished with a 10 pound ABC dry chemical fire extinguisher by a trained individual.
- B.
An uncontrollable release of any hazardous material that has the potential for ignition or can significantly harm people or the environment.
- C.
Any storm or weather condition that poses a substantial threat to human life or health which would prevent adequate operation of the facility. A storm or weather condition that could damage equipment at the facility to a point that could cause one of the above conditions.
- D.
Any condition that a facility employee feels is an immediate threat or danger to human life, health, or the environment that warrants the shutdown of the facility to lessen the risk.
- E.
In the event of a total power failure, loss of computer systems or in the event of deviation from the safe operating limits for the unit.
Correct Answer(s)
A. A fire is observed in or around the facility that is larger than the incipient stage that could cause hydrocarbons to ignite resulting in an explosion. At the Oak Grove Facility, an incipient fire is defined as a fire that is larger than can be extinguished with a 10 pound ABC dry chemical fire extinguisher by a trained individual.
B. An uncontrollable release of any hazardous material that has the potential for ignition or can significantly harm people or the environment.
C. Any storm or weather condition that poses a substantial threat to human life or health which would prevent adequate operation of the facility. A storm or weather condition that could damage equipment at the facility to a point that could cause one of the above conditions.
D. Any condition that a facility employee feels is an immediate threat or danger to human life, health, or the environment that warrants the shutdown of the facility to lessen the risk.
E. In the event of a total power failure, loss of computer systems or in the event of deviation from the safe operating limits for the unit.Explanation
An employee should initiate an ESD in the following situations: when there is a fire observed in or around the facility that is larger than the incipient stage and could cause an explosion; when there is an uncontrollable release of any hazardous material that can potentially ignite or harm people or the environment; when there is a storm or weather condition that poses a substantial threat to human life or health or could damage equipment at the facility; when there is any condition that an employee feels is an immediate threat to human life, health, or the environment and warrants the shutdown of the facility; and in the event of a total power failure, loss of computer systems, or deviation from safe operating limits.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the High High Shutdown on all Gas detectors in the facility?
- A.
20% LEL
- B.
40% LEL
- C.
100% LEL
- D.
10%LEL
Correct Answer
B. 40% LELExplanation
The High High Shutdown on all Gas detectors in the facility is set at 40% LEL. LEL stands for Lower Explosive Limit, which is the minimum concentration of a gas or vapor in the air that can ignite and cause an explosion. The High High Shutdown is a safety measure that triggers an alarm or shuts down the system when the gas concentration reaches a dangerously high level. In this case, the facility has determined that a gas concentration of 40% LEL is the threshold for a potentially hazardous situation, prompting the need for immediate action to prevent any accidents.Rate this question:
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- 14.
How is the evacuation siren activated?
- A.
Automatically from any Fire/Gas detector, or any pullstation
- B.
Manual initiation from the DCS
- C.
A specified pull station in the control room
Correct Answer
B. Manual initiation from the DCSExplanation
The evacuation siren is activated manually from the DCS (Distributed Control System). This means that someone in control of the DCS system must initiate the activation of the siren. It is not triggered automatically by any fire/gas detector or pull station. Additionally, there is a specified pull station in the control room, but it is not used for activating the evacuation siren.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Who has the Stop Work authority?
- A.
Everyone onsite
- B.
Only Facility Operators
- C.
Only Williams Employees
Correct Answer
A. Everyone onsiteExplanation
Stop Work authority refers to the power or responsibility of individuals to halt work activities if they identify any safety concerns or hazards. In this case, the correct answer suggests that everyone present at the worksite has the authority to stop work if they believe it is necessary to ensure safety. This implies that all individuals, including Facility Operators and Williams Employees, have the power to take action and halt work if they perceive any potential risks or dangers.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What document is used to manage change to process chemicals, technology, equipment, procedures, and changes to the facility that affect a covered process?
- A.
Job Plan
- B.
Permit To Work
- C.
Management of Change
Correct Answer
C. Management of ChangeExplanation
The correct answer is "Management of Change." This document is used to manage changes to process chemicals, technology, equipment, procedures, and changes to the facility that affect a covered process. It helps ensure that any changes made are properly assessed, documented, and communicated to minimize risks and maintain safety in the workplace. The Management of Change process typically involves reviewing the proposed changes, identifying potential hazards, assessing the impact of the changes, and implementing necessary controls and training to mitigate any risks.Rate this question:
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- 17.
When performing work that is not covered in an Operating or Maintenance Procedure, what document must be completed and approved prior to starting work?
- A.
Lock Out Tag Out
- B.
Work Plan
- C.
Critical Lift
Correct Answer
B. Work PlanExplanation
A work plan must be completed and approved prior to starting work that is not covered in an Operating or Maintenance Procedure. This document outlines the specific tasks, resources, and timeline for the work, ensuring that all necessary steps are taken and that the work is properly planned and executed. It helps to mitigate risks, allocate resources effectively, and ensure that all stakeholders are aware of and aligned on the work to be performed.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What tool do we use for communicating equipment malfunctions to Maintenance/I&E department?
- A.
Word of mouth
- B.
They should see it in the daily log
- C.
Maximo Work Request
Correct Answer
C. Maximo Work RequestExplanation
Maximo Work Request is the correct answer because it is a tool specifically designed for communicating equipment malfunctions to the Maintenance/I&E department. It allows users to submit work requests, track the progress of those requests, and communicate any relevant information about the malfunction. Word of mouth may be used for informal communication, but it is not a reliable or efficient method for reporting equipment malfunctions. The daily log may contain information about malfunctions, but it is not a dedicated tool for communication within the department.Rate this question:
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- 19.
How often must Operators take a refresher test on the Site Specific Operating Procedures?
- A.
Annually
- B.
Every 3 Years
- C.
Every time they use them
Correct Answer
B. Every 3 YearsExplanation
Operators must take a refresher test on the Site Specific Operating Procedures every 3 years. This ensures that they stay up to date with any changes or updates to the procedures and can effectively carry out their tasks in a safe and efficient manner. Taking the test every 3 years allows operators to refresh their knowledge and skills without overwhelming them with too frequent testing.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the purpose of a LOTO?
- A.
To identify and isolate all energy hazards, communicate to all effected employees who will service or maintain equipment.
- B.
To make sure work is documented so that it can be re-used in the future.
- C.
To protect the piece of equipment from major energy releases.
Correct Answer
A. To identify and isolate all energy hazards, communicate to all effected employees who will service or maintain equipment.Explanation
The purpose of a LOTO (Lockout/Tagout) is to ensure the safety of employees who are servicing or maintaining equipment by identifying and isolating all energy hazards. This process involves locking and tagging the equipment to prevent accidental activation of energy sources, effectively protecting the employees from potential harm. Communication is also a crucial aspect of LOTO, as all affected employees need to be informed about the lockout and tagout procedures to ensure their safety.Rate this question:
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- 21.
How long is a Permit to Work good for?
- A.
6 hours or until shift change
- B.
8 hours or until shift change
- C.
10 hours or until shift change
- D.
12 hours or until shift change
Correct Answer
D. 12 hours or until shift changeExplanation
A Permit to Work is valid for 12 hours or until shift change. This means that the permit can be used for a maximum duration of 12 hours, or until the shift changes, whichever comes first. This ensures that the permit remains valid throughout the assigned shift and allows for a smooth transition between shifts.Rate this question:
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- 22.
If bypassing a safety device for more than 24 hours, what must be completed to leave the device bypassed?
- A.
Incident Investigation
- B.
Permanent MOC
- C.
Management of Change
- D.
Job Plan
Correct Answer
C. Management of ChangeExplanation
To leave a safety device bypassed for more than 24 hours, the Management of Change (MOC) process must be completed. MOC ensures that any changes made to the system, such as bypassing a safety device, are thoroughly evaluated for potential risks and hazards. It involves a systematic approach that includes assessing the impact of the change, obtaining necessary approvals, implementing appropriate controls, and communicating the changes to all relevant personnel. By completing the MOC process, the organization can ensure that the bypassed safety device is properly managed and that any associated risks are effectively mitigated.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What is the maximum length of time that a temporary MOC is valid for?
- A.
24 hours
- B.
180 Days
- C.
1 year
- D.
30 days
Correct Answer
B. 180 DaysExplanation
A temporary MOC is valid for a maximum length of 180 days. This means that it can be used for up to 180 days before it expires and needs to be renewed or replaced. It provides temporary authorization or permission for a specific activity or purpose, and after 180 days, it is no longer considered valid.Rate this question:
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- 24.
When must a critical lift be completed? Select all that apply.
- A.
When lifting over live lines
- B.
When weight exceeds 75% of the crane’s rated capacity
- C.
Any time a lift is being performed
- D.
Only when using a telehandler or forklift.
Correct Answer(s)
A. When lifting over live lines
B. When weight exceeds 75% of the crane’s rated capacityExplanation
A critical lift must be completed when lifting over live lines to ensure the safety of the workers and to prevent any accidents or damage to the equipment or infrastructure. Additionally, a critical lift must be completed when the weight exceeds 75% of the crane's rated capacity to avoid overloading the crane and causing it to fail or collapse.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What should be done if you find an error in P&ID’s?
- A.
Redline the error and turn it in to engineering for review
- B.
Assume someone else is taking care of it
- C.
Make a mental note because accurate P&ID’s are not important.
Correct Answer
A. Redline the error and turn it in to engineering for reviewExplanation
If you find an error in P&ID's, the correct course of action is to redline the error, which means marking it with a red line or highlighting it, and then turning it in to engineering for review. This ensures that the error is documented and brought to the attention of the appropriate personnel who can address and rectify it. Assuming someone else is taking care of it or making a mental note are not proactive measures and may result in the error being overlooked or not corrected in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 26.
You should never purge hydrocarbons with ________.
- A.
Nitrogen
- B.
Fuel Gas
- C.
Air
Correct Answer
C. AirExplanation
Purging hydrocarbons involves removing any potentially flammable or explosive gases from a confined space. Air contains oxygen, which can support combustion and increase the risk of fire or explosion. Therefore, purging hydrocarbons with air is not recommended as it can be hazardous. Nitrogen, on the other hand, is an inert gas that does not support combustion and is commonly used for purging hydrocarbons. Fuel gas, such as natural gas, can also be used for purging as it is less likely to cause combustion compared to air.Rate this question:
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- 27.
You notice a minor leak on the mechanical seal of DeC2 21-P205A pump. What should you do?
- A.
Tell a mechanic and let them deal with it.
- B.
Inform your board operator to switch pumps, isolate, blowdown, lock out, and complete a Maximo work Request.
- C.
Inform your board operator to switch pumps, and tell your supervisor.
- D.
ESD the facility.
Correct Answer
B. Inform your board operator to switch pumps, isolate, blowdown, lock out, and complete a Maximo work Request. -
- 28.
While on night shift you see a man with a camcorder videotaping the plant. What should you do?
- A.
Notify the police, contact your supervisor, and fill out a WIMS form F07-600 Security Incident Report with as much detail as possible and complete a concern report.
- B.
Approach the person and tell them to leave the area.
- C.
Call 911.
- D.
Ignore it, they are just curious.
Correct Answer
A. Notify the police, contact your supervisor, and fill out a WIMS form F07-600 Security Incident Report with as much detail as possible and complete a concern report.Explanation
If you see a man with a camcorder videotaping the plant while on a night shift, it is important to take immediate action to ensure the security of the plant. The correct answer suggests notifying the police, contacting your supervisor, and filling out a security incident report. This response demonstrates a proactive approach to addressing potential security threats and ensuring that the appropriate authorities are informed. It is crucial to provide as much detail as possible in the incident report to aid in the investigation and prevent any potential harm to the plant.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What should you do if you see the flare emitting black smoke?
- A.
Turn the other way
- B.
Inform your board operator
- C.
Inform your board operator and complete a method 22
- D.
Call 911
Correct Answer
C. Inform your board operator and complete a method 22Explanation
If you see a flare emitting black smoke, it is important to inform your board operator and complete a method 22. This is because black smoke indicates a potential problem or malfunction with the flare, which could pose a safety risk. Informing the board operator ensures that they are aware of the situation and can take appropriate action. Completing a method 22 involves following a specific procedure or protocol to address the issue and ensure that it is properly resolved.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Where can you look to find the HH pressure shutdown setpoint of a piece of equipment? Select all that apply
- A.
Cause and Effect Diagrams
- B.
Operating procedures
- C.
DCS screens
- D.
On the instrument tag in the field
Correct Answer(s)
A. Cause and Effect Diagrams
B. Operating procedures
C. DCS screensExplanation
To find the HH pressure shutdown setpoint of a piece of equipment, one can look at cause and effect diagrams, operating procedures, and DCS screens. Cause and effect diagrams provide a visual representation of the relationships between various factors and can include information about setpoints. Operating procedures typically outline the steps and parameters for operating equipment, including setpoints. DCS screens, which display real-time data and control options, often include information about setpoints. Checking the instrument tag in the field may not provide the specific setpoint information needed.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What position must the inlet and outlet of a PSV be into provide overpressure protection?
- A.
Closed
- B.
It doesn’t matter
- C.
Open
- D.
Locked Open
Correct Answer
D. Locked OpenExplanation
The inlet and outlet of a Pressure Safety Valve (PSV) must be locked open in order to provide overpressure protection. This means that the valve is held in the fully open position, allowing the excess pressure to be safely released from the system. By locking the valve open, it ensures that the valve cannot accidentally close and prevent the necessary pressure relief.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What is the purpose of a PSV?
- A.
A PSV is a type of valve used to control or limit the pressure
- B.
A PSV is a type of valve that keeps pressure from relieving to the flare.
- C.
To protect the flare from too much pressure releasing to it at one time.
Correct Answer
A. A PSV is a type of valve used to control or limit the pressureExplanation
A PSV, or Pressure Safety Valve, is a type of valve used to control or limit the pressure in a system. It is designed to open when the pressure exceeds a certain set point, allowing excess pressure to be released and preventing damage or failure of the system. By controlling the pressure, a PSV helps to maintain safe operating conditions and prevent overpressure situations.Rate this question:
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- 33.
How often must the continuous monitoring be recorded on the Hot work permit?
- A.
Every 15 minutes
- B.
Every 2 hours
- C.
Once a shift
- D.
After all work is complete
Correct Answer
B. Every 2 hoursExplanation
Continuous monitoring must be recorded on the Hot work permit every 2 hours. This ensures that the work environment is being regularly assessed for any potential hazards or changes that may occur during the work process. By recording the monitoring every 2 hours, there is a consistent check on the conditions to ensure the safety of the workers and the prevention of any accidents or incidents.Rate this question:
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- 34.
When working above 6ft what must be worn?
- A.
Hard Hat
- B.
Rubber Gloves
- C.
Fall Protection Harness
- D.
Gas Detector
Correct Answer
C. Fall Protection HarnessExplanation
When working above 6ft, it is necessary to wear a Fall Protection Harness. This is because working at heights poses a significant risk of falling, which can result in severe injuries or even death. A Fall Protection Harness is designed to secure the worker and prevent them from falling. It typically consists of straps, buckles, and D-rings that allow the worker to be connected to an anchor point. This ensures that even if they lose their balance or slip, they will be protected and not fall to the ground.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What does VESDA stand for and where is it located?
- A.
Very Early Smoke Detection Alarm and is located in the PDC & RIE Buildings
- B.
Voltage electrical shock damage alarm and is located in the PDC & RIE Buildings
- C.
Very Early Sensitive Detection Alarm and is located at the warehouse
- D.
Visual Energy Sampling Display adapter and is located in the Control room.
Correct Answer
A. Very Early Smoke Detection Alarm and is located in the PDC & RIE BuildingsExplanation
VESDA stands for Very Early Smoke Detection Alarm. It is located in the PDC & RIE Buildings.Rate this question:
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- 36.
How long after cutting, welding and grinding must the firewatch monitor the area?
- A.
2 hours
- B.
30 minutes
- C.
5 minutes
- D.
They can leave as soon as the work is completed.
Correct Answer
B. 30 minutesExplanation
After cutting, welding, and grinding, the firewatch must monitor the area for 30 minutes. This is necessary to ensure that there are no potential fire hazards or sparks that could ignite. It allows for any residual heat to dissipate and for any smoldering materials to be identified and extinguished if necessary. Monitoring the area for this duration helps to mitigate the risk of fire and ensure the safety of the work environment.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When walking out of the plant you see a contractor driving without an escort into a yellow chained area what should you do?
- A.
Stop the contractor, coach the individual on policies and why they must have an escort, and complete a concern report.
- B.
Stop the contractor and yell at him for not having an escort.
- C.
Nothing someone else should take care of it.
- D.
Go tell your supervisor
Correct Answer
A. Stop the contractor, coach the individual on policies and why they must have an escort, and complete a concern report.Explanation
The correct answer is to stop the contractor, coach the individual on policies and why they must have an escort, and complete a concern report. This is the appropriate action to take when encountering a contractor who is driving without an escort into a restricted area. By stopping the contractor, you can educate them on the policies and the importance of having an escort for safety reasons. Completing a concern report ensures that the incident is documented and addressed by the appropriate authorities.Rate this question:
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- 38.
If an ESD is activated, what is the first course of action?
- A.
Start opening valves and getting the facility back online.
- B.
Review first out alarm page to determine what the cause was. Verify system is safe to restart and communicate to supervision.
- C.
Call your supervisor and ask him to figure it out.
Correct Answer
B. Review first out alarm page to determine what the cause was. Verify system is safe to restart and communicate to supervision.Explanation
The correct answer is to review the first out alarm page to determine what the cause was, verify the system is safe to restart, and communicate to supervision. This is the appropriate course of action because it allows for identifying the cause of the ESD activation, ensuring the system is safe before restarting, and informing the relevant authority to provide necessary guidance or instructions. Simply opening valves and getting the facility back online without understanding the cause or ensuring safety could lead to further issues or potential hazards. Asking the supervisor to figure it out without taking any initial steps would delay the resolution process.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What are the 5 minimum things a contractor/visitor must have before entering the facility.
- A.
Job Plan, LOTO, Radio, Gas Detector and Badge
- B.
Jacket, Water, Tools, Parts and Manlift
- C.
Contractor/Visitor Orientation, Sign-in, Vehicle Flag, Radio and Gas Detector
Correct Answer
C. Contractor/Visitor Orientation, Sign-in, Vehicle Flag, Radio and Gas DetectorExplanation
Contractor/Visitor Orientation is important to ensure that the contractor/visitor is aware of the safety protocols and procedures within the facility. Sign-in is necessary to keep track of who is present in the facility at any given time. A Vehicle Flag is required to identify the contractor/visitor's vehicle and prevent any confusion or unauthorized access. A Radio is essential for communication purposes, allowing the contractor/visitor to stay connected with the facility personnel. Lastly, a Gas Detector is necessary to detect any potential gas leaks or hazardous substances in the facility, ensuring the safety of everyone inside.Rate this question:
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- 40.
When is bump test required on personal gas detectors.
- A.
Every other day of use
- B.
Monthly at anytime
- C.
Weekly when ever you have time
- D.
Daily
Correct Answer
D. DailyExplanation
Bump tests are required on personal gas detectors daily to ensure that the sensors and alarms are functioning properly. This helps to verify that the detector can accurately detect hazardous gases and provide timely warnings to the user. By performing daily bump tests, any potential issues with the detector can be identified and addressed promptly, ensuring the safety of the user in potentially hazardous environments.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What does LDAR mean?
- A.
Low Dose Aspirin Regimen.
- B.
Lucky Dog Annual Recognition.
- C.
Leak Detection And Repair.
Correct Answer
C. Leak Detection And Repair.Explanation
LDAR stands for Leak Detection And Repair. This term is commonly used in industries such as oil and gas, chemical, and manufacturing. LDAR refers to the process of identifying and fixing leaks in equipment, pipelines, and storage tanks to prevent the release of harmful substances into the environment. It involves regular inspections, monitoring, and maintenance to ensure compliance with environmental regulations and to minimize the impact of leaks on air quality and safety.Rate this question:
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- 42.
When must the first attempt at repair be made on an LDAR?
- A.
Whenever you get to it.
- B.
Within 5 days.
- C.
Within 15 days.
Correct Answer
B. Within 5 days.Explanation
The first attempt at repair on an LDAR must be made within 5 days. This time frame ensures that any leaks or issues with the LDAR are addressed promptly, minimizing the potential for further damage or environmental impact. Waiting longer than 5 days could lead to increased emissions or other negative consequences.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What is the first and last tasks you do when you arrive on site and when you leave?
- A.
Get a cup of coffee and say goodbye.
- B.
Grab your tools and give relief to your replacement.
- C.
Sign in and sign out for headcount purposes.
Correct Answer
C. Sign in and sign out for headcount purposes.Explanation
The first and last tasks when arriving on site and leaving are to sign in and sign out for headcount purposes. This is important for tracking the number of people on site for safety and security reasons. It allows the company to have an accurate record of who is present at any given time and ensures that everyone is accounted for in case of an emergency. Getting a cup of coffee and saying goodbye or grabbing tools and giving relief to a replacement may be personal preferences or job-specific tasks, but they are not universally applicable to all situations.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What should be done if your Personal Monitor alarms high on H2S?
- A.
Ignore it. We do not have H2S.
- B.
Evacuate the area, inform the control room operator, supervisor, and control access to the area.
- C.
Reset your Monitor.
- D.
Run as fast as you can.
Correct Answer
B. Evacuate the area, inform the control room operator, supervisor, and control access to the area.Explanation
If your Personal Monitor alarms high on H2S, it is important to evacuate the area immediately to ensure safety. You should inform the control room operator and supervisor about the situation so that they can take appropriate measures. Additionally, controlling access to the area is necessary to prevent others from entering and being exposed to the high levels of H2S. Resetting your monitor or running away is not the correct response in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What hazard is associated with Iron Sulfide in the powder form?
- A.
Reacts with Oxygen to spontaneously combust
- B.
Reacts with Oxygen to release Cyanide
- C.
Reacts with Water to spontaneously combust
- D.
Reacts with Water to release Cyanide
Correct Answer
A. Reacts with Oxygen to spontaneously combustExplanation
Iron sulfide in powder form is associated with the hazard of reacting with oxygen to spontaneously combust. This means that when iron sulfide powder comes into contact with oxygen, it can ignite and burn without the need for an external ignition source. This combustion reaction can occur rapidly and without warning, making it a significant hazard in certain environments.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What does PSIG stand for?
- A.
Pints per square inch gauge
- B.
Pounds per square inch gauge
- C.
Pounds per seven inch gauges
- D.
Problems seen in Gas
Correct Answer
B. Pounds per square inch gaugeExplanation
PSIG stands for Pounds per square inch gauge. This unit of measurement is used to quantify pressure, specifically the pressure relative to atmospheric pressure. The term "gauge" indicates that the pressure is measured using a gauge that compares the pressure to atmospheric pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is "Pounds per square inch gauge."Rate this question:
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- 47.
What is the Joule-Thompson Effect?
- A.
Cooling of Gas upon expansion (moving from high pressure to low pressure)
- B.
Energy transfer from one electrical source to the next
- C.
Rapid Heating of gas upon compaction or pressurizing.
- D.
Separation of liquids through heating and pressurizing.
Correct Answer
A. Cooling of Gas upon expansion (moving from high pressure to low pressure)Explanation
The Joule-Thompson effect refers to the cooling of a gas when it expands from a high pressure to a low pressure. This phenomenon occurs due to the intermolecular forces between gas molecules. As the gas expands, the molecules move further apart, and this causes a decrease in temperature. It is an important concept in thermodynamics and is used in various applications such as refrigeration and liquefaction of gases.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A breaker in the PDC trips, what do you do?
- A.
Open the panel and inspect.
- B.
Rack breaker to energized position.
- C.
Call I and E tech to verify breaker is operable and have them reset it. Never reset a tripped breaker without assistance from an I and E tech.
Correct Answer
C. Call I and E tech to verify breaker is operable and have them reset it. Never reset a tripped breaker without assistance from an I and E tech.Explanation
The correct answer suggests that when a breaker in the PDC (Power Distribution Center) trips, it is important to call an I and E (Instrumentation and Electrical) technician to verify if the breaker is operable and have them reset it. It emphasizes the importance of not resetting a tripped breaker without assistance from an I and E technician, indicating that it could be potentially dangerous to do so.Rate this question:
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- 49.
After removing a LOTO what must be done with the valves?
- A.
Place valves in normal operating position.
- B.
Leave closed until someone says to operate the valves.
- C.
Open all valves.
Correct Answer
A. Place valves in normal operating position.Explanation
After removing a LOTO (Lockout-Tagout), it is important to place the valves in their normal operating position. This ensures that the equipment or system can resume its regular functioning. Leaving the valves closed until someone instructs to operate them may cause delays or disruptions in the workflow. Opening all valves immediately after removing the LOTO can be dangerous if there are any residual pressures or hazardous materials present. Therefore, placing the valves in their normal operating position is the appropriate step to take.Rate this question:
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- 50.
When installing a LOTO for a motor, where do you install the lock?
- A.
On the HOA.
- B.
On the motor.
- C.
In the PDC on the breaker.
Correct Answer
C. In the PDC on the breaker.Explanation
When installing a Lockout/Tagout (LOTO) for a motor, the lock is installed in the PDC (Power Distribution Center) on the breaker. This is because the PDC is the central control panel where the power to the motor is controlled. By installing the lock on the breaker in the PDC, it ensures that the power cannot be accidentally or intentionally turned on while maintenance or repairs are being performed on the motor. This helps to prevent any potential accidents or injuries that could occur from the motor being unexpectedly energized.Rate this question:
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Nov 06, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Jun 23, 2017Quiz Created by
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