Cell Structure Cytology Quiz

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Cell Structure Cytology Quiz - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which sample collection is used for mites and pinworms such as Cheyletiella sp. and Oxyuris sp.

    • A.

      Tape Strips

    • B.

      Imprints

    • C.

      Hair Pluck

    • D.

      Aspiration

    Correct Answer
    A. Tape Strips
    Explanation
    Tape strips are used for collecting samples for mites and pinworms such as Cheyletiella sp. and Oxyuris sp. This method involves pressing a clear adhesive tape onto the skin or fur of the affected area and then removing it. The tape collects any mites or pinworm eggs present, which can then be examined under a microscope for diagnosis. This method is non-invasive and easy to perform, making it a suitable choice for collecting samples for these specific parasites.

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  • 2. 

    Which sample collection is done on external lesions or from removed tissues. Collection of fewer cells and Greater contamination. Either can be Dirty or Clean.

    • A.

      Imprints

    • B.

      Tape strips

    • C.

      Scrapings

    • D.

      Swabs

    Correct Answer
    A. Imprints
    Explanation
    Imprints are a type of sample collection method that is done on external lesions or from removed tissues. This method involves pressing a slide or a piece of paper onto the lesion or tissue to collect cells. Imprints tend to collect fewer cells and have a greater risk of contamination compared to other methods. They can be dirty or clean depending on the condition of the lesion or tissue.

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  • 3. 

    Disadvantages of this sample collection would be that few cells may be collected, Cells obtained from the surface of a lesion may not be representative of the whole lesion.

    • A.

      Imprints

    • B.

      Skin Scrapings

    • C.

      Aspiration

    • D.

      Swabs

    Correct Answer
    A. Imprints
    Explanation
    Imprints may have disadvantages in sample collection as they may collect only a few cells, which could limit the amount of material available for analysis. Additionally, imprints may only capture cells from the surface of a lesion, potentially missing deeper or more representative cells from the entire lesion.

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  • 4. 

    External lesions or Removed tissues, Collects many cells, Infection and inflammation induced lesions. Lesion must bleed. What is this sample collection?

    • A.

      Scrapings

    • B.

      Imprints

    • C.

      Aspiration

    • D.

      Swabs

    Correct Answer
    A. Scrapings
    Explanation
    Scrapings are the correct answer because they involve collecting external lesions or removed tissues, which can contain many cells. Additionally, the requirement for the lesion to bleed suggests that scraping the affected area would be the most appropriate method for sample collection.

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  • 5. 

    This form of sample collection collects many cells, you need to add mineral oil to the lesion, scalpel and slide. Material on blade transferred to slide.

    • A.

      Scrapings

    • B.

      Imprints

    • C.

      Swabs

    • D.

      Aspiration

    Correct Answer
    A. Scrapings
    Explanation
    Scrapings is the correct answer because it involves collecting cells by scraping the lesion with a scalpel and transferring the material from the blade onto a slide. This method is commonly used for collecting samples from skin lesions or mucosal surfaces. Adding mineral oil helps to preserve the cells and prevent them from drying out. Imprints involve pressing a slide onto the lesion to collect cells, swabs involve using a cotton swab to collect cells, and aspiration involves using a needle and syringe to draw out fluid or cells from a lesion.

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  • 6. 

    This sample collection is done with KOH (Potassium Hydroxide) Preparation. It does the diagnostic test that diagnoses a fungal infection of the skin.

    • A.

      Skin Scraping

    • B.

      Aspiration

    • C.

      Swabs

    • D.

      Imprints

    Correct Answer
    A. Skin Scraping
    Explanation
    Skin scraping is the correct answer because it is a common method used to diagnose fungal infections of the skin. During a skin scraping, a healthcare professional will use a scalpel or a blade to scrape off a small sample of the affected skin. The sample is then examined under a microscope to look for the presence of fungal elements, such as hyphae or spores. This diagnostic test helps to identify the specific type of fungus causing the infection and guide appropriate treatment. Aspiration, swabs, and imprints are not typically used for diagnosing fungal infections of the skin.

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  • 7. 

    This sample collection involves vigorous scraping. If vesicles or pustules are being tested, the underside of the vesicle is sampled. Under surface is gently heated before microscopic examination.

    • A.

      Skin Scraping - KOH Prep

    • B.

      Skin Scraping - Normal Prep

    • C.

      Swabs

    • D.

      Imprints

    Correct Answer
    A. Skin Scraping - KOH Prep
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Skin Scraping - KOH Prep. This is because the sample collection method mentioned in the question involves vigorous scraping, which is typically done for skin scraping. The additional information about sampling the underside of vesicles and gently heating the under surface before microscopic examination further supports the idea that this method is used for collecting and preparing samples for testing vesicles or pustules.

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  • 8. 

    Check for presence of Hyphae, thread-like branching tubular cells interconnected by septa. Is seen while doing which preparation

    • A.

      Skin Scraping - KOH Prep

    • B.

      Swabs

    • C.

      Aspiration

    • D.

      Tape Strips

    Correct Answer
    A. Skin Scraping - KOH Prep
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Skin Scraping - KOH Prep. The presence of hyphae, which are thread-like branching tubular cells interconnected by septa, can be seen while doing a KOH (potassium hydroxide) preparation of a skin scraping. KOH is used to dissolve the skin cells and debris, leaving behind the fungal elements such as hyphae, which can then be visualized under a microscope. This technique is commonly used to diagnose fungal infections of the skin.

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  • 9. 

    This way of sample collection is done when imprints, scraping, and aspiration cannot be made.

    • A.

      Swabs

    • B.

      Aspiration

    • C.

      Skin Scraping

    • D.

      Tape Strips

    Correct Answer
    A. Swabs
    Explanation
    Swabs are used for sample collection when imprints, scraping, and aspiration cannot be made. Swabs are small pieces of cotton or other absorbent material attached to a stick or wire, which are used to collect samples from various surfaces or body parts. They are particularly useful for collecting samples from hard-to-reach areas or delicate surfaces where other methods may not be suitable. Therefore, swabs are the correct answer in this context.

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  • 10. 

    Fistulous tracts, Vaginal Collection are examples of this type of sample collection.

    • A.

      Swab

    • B.

      Aspiration

    • C.

      Skin Scraping - KOH Prep

    • D.

      Skin Scraping - Norm Prep

    Correct Answer
    A. Swab
    Explanation
    Fistulous tracts and vaginal collection are examples of sample collections that can be done using a swab. Swabs are commonly used to collect samples from specific areas of the body, such as the inside of a fistulous tract or the vaginal area. They are designed to absorb and retain the sample material, making them suitable for various types of sample collection. Aspiration is a method of collecting samples by using a needle and suction, while skin scraping with KOH prep and norm prep involve scraping the skin to collect samples.

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  • 11. 

    No superficial contamination, and collection is from masses. Fewer cells are collected than scraping.

    • A.

      Aspiration

    • B.

      Swabs

    • C.

      Non- Aspiration

    • D.

      Imprints

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspiration
    Explanation
    Aspiration is the correct answer because it involves collecting samples from masses, which suggests that the procedure is done by using a needle and syringe to draw fluid or cells from a specific area. This method is likely to result in fewer cells being collected compared to scraping, as it is a more targeted approach. Swabs, non-aspiration, and imprints are not likely to be associated with the given explanation.

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  • 12. 

    Selection of needle for this collection procedure depends on the tissue. Softer the tissue, smaller the needle and syringe. 21guage needle and 12mL syringe.

    • A.

      Aspiration

    • B.

      Non Aspiration

    • C.

      Skin Scraping - KOH

    • D.

      Skin Scraping

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspiration
    Explanation
    The selection of needle for this collection procedure depends on the tissue being sampled. Softer tissues require smaller needles and syringes. Therefore, a 21-gauge needle and 12mL syringe would be appropriate for this procedure.

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  • 13. 

    Small Mass: Mass held firmly, Needle introduced in center of mass, Strong negative pressure applied (3/4 syringe), Sample several areas. (Avoid surrounding tissue)

    • A.

      Aspiration

    • B.

      Scraping

    • C.

      Non-Aspirate

    • D.

      Swab

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspiration
    Explanation
    The given explanation suggests that the correct answer is "Aspiration" because it involves the process of introducing a needle into a small mass and applying strong negative pressure (using 3/4 syringe) to collect a sample from several areas. This technique is used to avoid surrounding tissue and ensure that only the desired sample is obtained.

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  • 14. 

    Large mass: Needle stays in mass, redirected to other areas, Negative pressure relieved during redirection and removal.

    • A.

      Aspiration

    • B.

      Non- Aspiration

    • C.

      Imprints

    • D.

      Tape Strips

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspiration
    Explanation
    The given explanation states that a large mass can cause the needle to stay in the mass, be redirected to other areas, and relieve negative pressure during redirection and removal. This explanation suggests that the correct answer is "Aspiration" because aspiration refers to the act of drawing fluid or material into a syringe or needle. In the context of the explanation, it implies that the large mass is being aspirated or suctioned out using a needle.

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  • 15. 

    Mass held firmly, Needle with syringe pre-filled with air. Needle is moved rapidly back and forth through the  mass five to six times along the same tract. Cells are collected by shearing and capillary action. Needle removed from mass, material is expelled by depressing plunger.

    • A.

      Non-Aspirate

    • B.

      Aspirate

    • C.

      Skin Scraping - KOH

    • D.

      Imprints

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-Aspirate
    Explanation
    The given procedure involves moving the needle rapidly back and forth through the mass, collecting cells by shearing and capillary action. This method does not involve aspirating any fluid or material from the mass. Therefore, the correct answer is Non-Aspirate.

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  • 16. 

    Exfoliative Cytology - Neutrophils - Appear the same

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Undergone morphological changes

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  • 17. 

    Undergone Morphological Changes. i.e. Hypersegmentation, Pyknosis, Karyolysis, Karyorrhexis

    • A.

      Neutriphils

    • B.

      Plasma Cells

    • C.

      Eosinophils

    • D.

      Lymphocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. NeutripHils
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the body's immune response. The given terms, hypersegmentation, pyknosis, karyolysis, and karyorrhexis, are all morphological changes that can occur in neutrophils. Hypersegmentation refers to an increase in the number of lobes in the nucleus of the neutrophil. Pyknosis, karyolysis, and karyorrhexis are all terms that describe different stages of nuclear degradation in the neutrophil. These morphological changes can indicate various pathological conditions or infections in the body.

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  • 18. 

    Appear the Same

    • A.

      Lymphocytes

    • B.

      Macrophages

    • C.

      Mast Cells

    • D.

      Mesothelial Cells

    Correct Answer
    A. LympHocytes
    Explanation
    Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. They are responsible for recognizing and attacking foreign substances in the body, such as bacteria or viruses. Macrophages, on the other hand, are also white blood cells that engulf and destroy pathogens. Mast cells are involved in allergic reactions and release histamine. Mesothelial cells line the body's internal organs. While all of these cells are important in the immune system, lymphocytes are specifically known for their role in immune defense, making them the correct answer.

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  • 19. 

    Represented as Activated Lymphocytes. Oval cells with eccentric nucleus, Basophilic cytoplasm and a perinuclear clear zone.

    • A.

      Plasma Cells

    • B.

      Neutrophils

    • C.

      Eosinophils

    • D.

      Macrophages

    Correct Answer
    A. Plasma Cells
    Explanation
    Plasma cells are a type of activated lymphocytes that are responsible for producing antibodies. The description given in the question matches the characteristics of plasma cells, such as oval shape, eccentric nucleus, basophilic cytoplasm, and a perinuclear clear zone. These features are typical of plasma cells, making them the correct answer in this case.

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  • 20. 

    Appear the same

    • A.

      Eosinophils

    • B.

      Neutrophils

    • C.

      Mast Cells

    • D.

      Mesothelial Cells

    Correct Answer
    A. EosinopHils
    Explanation
    Eosinophils, neutrophils, mast cells, and mesothelial cells are all types of cells found in the body. However, the given answer "Eosinophils" is correct because eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that are involved in the immune response to parasitic infections and allergic reactions. Neutrophils are another type of white blood cell that are involved in the immune response to bacterial infections. Mast cells are a type of cell that release histamine and other chemicals during allergic reactions. Mesothelial cells are a type of cell that line the body cavities. Therefore, eosinophils are the only cells in the given list that have a specific immune function.

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  • 21. 

    Derived from monocytes in peripheral blood. Oval to pleomorphic nucleus with lacy condensed chromatin

    • A.

      Macrophages

    • B.

      Mesothelial Cells

    • C.

      Mast Cells

    • D.

      Plasma Cells

    Correct Answer
    A. MacropHages
    Explanation
    Macrophages are derived from monocytes in peripheral blood and have an oval to pleomorphic nucleus with lacy condensed chromatin. This description accurately matches the characteristics mentioned in the question. Mesothelial cells, mast cells, and plasma cells do not have the same characteristics as described, making them incorrect options.

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  • 22. 

    Mutlinucleated, Giant size, Phagocytized material (may be contained), Abundant blue cytoplasm with vacuoles.

    • A.

      Macrophages

    • B.

      Mast Cells

    • C.

      Eosinophils

    • D.

      Neutrophils

    Correct Answer
    A. MacropHages
    Explanation
    The given characteristics of being multinucleated, giant size, containing phagocytized material, having abundant blue cytoplasm with vacuoles, all point towards macrophages. Macrophages are large immune cells that are capable of engulfing and digesting foreign particles, such as bacteria or dead cells, through a process called phagocytosis. They have multiple nuclei and their cytoplasm is filled with vacuoles, giving it a blue appearance. Therefore, the correct answer is macrophages.

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  • 23. 

    Line the pleural, peritoneal and visceral surfaces. - May react to presence of excess fluid by developing abnormal morphologies that should not be confused with malignant changes.

    • A.

      Mesothelial Cells

    • B.

      Mast Cells

    • C.

      Plasma Cell

    • D.

      Neutrophils

    Correct Answer
    A. Mesothelial Cells
    Explanation
    Mesothelial cells line the pleural, peritoneal, and visceral surfaces. These cells can react to the presence of excess fluid by developing abnormal morphologies, which should not be mistaken for malignant changes. This suggests that mesothelial cells have the ability to change their appearance in response to fluid buildup, which is a characteristic feature of these cells. Mast cells, plasma cells, and neutrophils are not specifically mentioned in relation to this reaction to excess fluid, making mesothelial cells the most appropriate answer.

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  • 24. 

    Nuclear chromatin finely reticulated, nucleoli, corona (fringe border). Be seen singularly or in clusters.

    • A.

      Mesothelial Cells

    • B.

      Mast Cells

    • C.

      Plasma cells

    • D.

      Eosinophils

    Correct Answer
    A. Mesothelial Cells
    Explanation
    The given description of the nuclear chromatin being finely reticulated and the presence of nucleoli and corona (fringe border) suggests that the cells being described are mesothelial cells. Mesothelial cells are found in the lining of body cavities and organs and have a characteristic appearance under the microscope with a finely reticulated nuclear chromatin pattern and the presence of nucleoli and a corona. This description does not match the characteristics of mast cells, plasma cells, or eosinophils, so they are not the correct answer.

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  • 25. 

    Round to Oval, Numerous blue to purple cytoplasmic granules.

    • A.

      Mast Cells

    • B.

      Plasma Cells

    • C.

      Erythrocytes

    • D.

      Macrophages

    Correct Answer
    A. Mast Cells
    Explanation
    Mast cells are known to have a round to oval shape and contain numerous blue to purple cytoplasmic granules. This characteristic appearance distinguishes them from plasma cells, erythrocytes, and macrophages. Therefore, the correct answer is Mast Cells.

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  • 26. 

    Free in sample or seen inside phagocytic cells, particularly macrophages.

    • A.

      Erythrocyte

    • B.

      Eosinophil

    • C.

      Neutrophil

    • D.

      Monocyte

    Correct Answer
    A. Erythrocyte
  • 27. 

    Chemotactic factors release from damaged tissues attract neutrophils, and macrophages to the inflamed site.

    • A.

      Eosinophils and Basophils may also be evident

    • B.

      Neutrophils and Basophils may also be evident

    • C.

      Lymphocytes and Macrophages may also be evident

    • D.

      Lymphocytes and Basophils may also be evident

    Correct Answer
    A. EosinopHils and BasopHils may also be evident
    Explanation
    When tissues are damaged, chemotactic factors are released which attract neutrophils and macrophages to the site of inflammation. However, eosinophils and basophils may also be present in the inflamed site. These cells are involved in the immune response and can contribute to the inflammatory process. Therefore, the presence of eosinophils and basophils is a possible outcome in addition to neutrophils and macrophages.

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  • 28. 

    Chemotactic factors released from damage cells attract neutrophils and macrophages to the inflamed site.

    • A.

      Normal Physiological Response

    • B.

      Purulent Inflammation

    • C.

      Neoplastic Lesions

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal pHysiological Response
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Normal Physiological Response" because chemotactic factors released from damaged cells play a role in attracting neutrophils and macrophages to the site of inflammation. This is a normal response of the body to injury or infection, where the immune cells are recruited to help clear the damaged cells and initiate the healing process.

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  • 29. 

    Suppurative or Acute Inflammation. Most Common type with majority being bacteria. Greater than 85% neutrophils seen with small number of ?

    • A.

      Macrophages and Lymphocytes

    • B.

      Eosinophils and Basophils

    • C.

      Lymphocytes and Basophils

    • D.

      Eosinophils and Macrophages

    Correct Answer
    A. MacropHages and LympHocytes
    Explanation
    Suppurative or acute inflammation is characterized by the presence of bacteria and a high percentage of neutrophils. Neutrophils are the first responders to infection and play a crucial role in fighting bacterial pathogens. Macrophages and lymphocytes are also present in suppurative inflammation, but in smaller numbers compared to neutrophils. Macrophages are responsible for phagocytosing bacteria and debris, while lymphocytes are involved in the adaptive immune response, producing antibodies and coordinating the immune system. Therefore, the presence of macrophages and lymphocytes in suppurative inflammation is expected.

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  • 30. 

    Suppurative or Acute. Most Common type with majority being bacteria. Greater than 85% neutrophils.

    • A.

      Purulent Inflammation

    • B.

      Eosinophilic

    • C.

      Pyogranulomatous Inflammation

    • D.

      Granulomatous Inflammation

    Correct Answer
    A. Purulent Inflammation
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Purulent Inflammation," is the correct choice because it aligns with the description provided. The description states that the most common type of suppurative or acute inflammation is caused by bacteria and is characterized by the presence of greater than 85% neutrophils. Purulent inflammation refers to an inflammatory response dominated by neutrophils and the formation of pus, which is consistent with the given information.

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  • 31. 

    Referred as Chronic or Active. Consists of Macrophages and 50-70% Neutrophils

    • A.

      Pyogranulomatous Inflammation

    • B.

      Granulomatous Inflammation

    • C.

      Purulent Inflammation

    • D.

      Eosinophilic

    Correct Answer
    A. Pyogranulomatous Inflammation
    Explanation
    Pyogranulomatous inflammation refers to a type of chronic or active inflammation characterized by the presence of macrophages and 50-70% neutrophils. This type of inflammation is characterized by the formation of granulomas, which are aggregates of immune cells, particularly macrophages. These macrophages are often accompanied by a large number of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response. This combination of macrophages and neutrophils distinguishes pyogranulomatous inflammation from other types of inflammation such as granulomatous, purulent, or eosinophilic inflammation.

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  • 32. 

    Chronic Inflammation, 70% of cells mononuclear with few neutrophils.

    • A.

      Granulomatous Inflammation

    • B.

      Pyogranulomatous Inflammation

    • C.

      Eosinophilic

    • D.

      Purulent Inflammation

    Correct Answer
    A. Granulomatous Inflammation
    Explanation
    The given description states that 70% of the cells are mononuclear with few neutrophils. This indicates a chronic inflammatory process rather than an acute one. Granulomatous inflammation is a type of chronic inflammation characterized by the presence of granulomas, which are aggregates of activated macrophages surrounded by lymphocytes. This matches the description provided, making granulomatous inflammation the correct answer.

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  • 33. 

    Greater than 10% eosinophils, few mast cells, plasma cells, lymphocytes.

    • A.

      Eosinophilic

    • B.

      Pyogranulomatous inflammation

    • C.

      Granulomatous inflammation

    • D.

      Purulent Inflammation

    Correct Answer
    A. EosinopHilic
    Explanation
    The presence of greater than 10% eosinophils, along with few mast cells, plasma cells, and lymphocytes, suggests eosinophilic inflammation. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that are commonly associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections. The presence of other immune cells such as mast cells, plasma cells, and lymphocytes further supports the diagnosis of eosinophilic inflammation.

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  • 34. 

    This is the best indication is presence of homogeneous population of cells, which may or may not be pleomorphic. May be benign or malignant associative inflammation.

    • A.

      Neoplastic Lesions

    • B.

      Purulent Inflammation

    • C.

      Granulomatous Inflammation

    • D.

      Eosinphilic

    Correct Answer
    A. Neoplastic Lesions
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "Neoplastic Lesions". This is because the best indication mentioned in the statement is the presence of a homogeneous population of cells, which may or may not be pleomorphic. This suggests the possibility of a neoplastic process, which refers to the abnormal growth of cells that can be benign or malignant. The statement also mentions the possibility of an associative inflammation, which further supports the likelihood of neoplastic lesions.

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  • 35. 

    Characterized by homogeneous populations of the same cell type with no evidence of malignant characteristics within cells.

    • A.

      Benign Neoplasia

    • B.

      Malignant Neoplasia

    Correct Answer
    A. Benign Neoplasia
    Explanation
    Benign neoplasia refers to the formation of non-cancerous tumors. In this context, the given statement describes a condition where the cells within the tumor are uniform and lack any signs of malignancy. This suggests that the tumor is benign in nature, as it does not exhibit any characteristics commonly associated with cancer, such as uncontrolled growth, invasion of surrounding tissues, or metastasis. Therefore, the correct answer is Benign Neoplasia.

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  • 36. 

    Characterized by morphological changes in the cytoplasm and nuclei

    • A.

      Malignant neoplasia

    • B.

      Benign neoplasia

    Correct Answer
    A. Malignant neoplasia
    Explanation
    The given statement describes morphological changes in the cytoplasm and nuclei, which is a characteristic feature of malignant neoplasia. Malignant neoplasia refers to cancerous growths that have the potential to invade nearby tissues and spread to other parts of the body. Benign neoplasia, on the other hand, refers to non-cancerous growths that do not invade surrounding tissues or spread to other areas. Therefore, based on the description provided, the correct answer is malignant neoplasia.

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  • 37. 

    Anisocytosis and Macrocytosis, Hypercellularity, Pleomorphism (except lymphoid tissue)

    • A.

      General Criteria of Malignancy

    • B.

      Cellular Changes of Malignancy

    • C.

      Nuclear Changes of Malignancy

    • D.

      Cytoplasmic Changes of Malignancy

    • E.

      Two of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. General Criteria of Malignancy
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "General Criteria of Malignancy". This is because the listed characteristics, such as Anisocytosis and Macrocytosis, Hypercellularity, Pleomorphism (except lymphoid tissue), are all general criteria of malignancy. These criteria are used to assess whether a cell or tissue is malignant or not. Therefore, the answer "General Criteria of Malignancy" best describes the listed characteristics.

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  • 38. 

    Abnormal variation in size of cells of same type

    • A.

      Anisocytosis

    • B.

      Hypercellularity

    • C.

      Pleomorphism

    Correct Answer
    A. Anisocytosis
    Explanation
    Anisocytosis refers to the abnormal variation in the size of cells of the same type. This condition can be observed in blood smears and is commonly associated with certain medical conditions, such as anemia and liver disease. It is characterized by the presence of both smaller and larger cells than the normal range for a specific cell type. Anisocytosis can be indicative of underlying health issues and is often evaluated through blood tests.

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  • 39. 

    Increase in cell exfoliation

    • A.

      Anisocytosis

    • B.

      Hypercellularity

    • C.

      Pleomorphism

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypercellularity
    Explanation
    Hypercellularity refers to an increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ. In the context of the given options, an increase in cell exfoliation would not be a likely explanation for hypercellularity. Anisocytosis refers to a condition where there is a variation in the size of cells, which is different from hypercellularity. Pleomorphism refers to the presence of cells with varying shapes and sizes, which is also different from hypercellularity. Therefore, hypercellularity is the most appropriate answer as it directly relates to an increase in the number of cells.

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  • 40. 

    Variability in size, shape and appearance of same cell type

    • A.

      Pleomorphism

    • B.

      Hypercellularity

    • C.

      Anisocytosis

    Correct Answer
    A. PleomorpHism
    Explanation
    Pleomorphism refers to the variability in size, shape, and appearance of the same cell type. This means that cells of the same type can exhibit different characteristics, such as varying in size or having different shapes and appearances. Hypercellularity, on the other hand, refers to an increased number of cells in a tissue or organ, while anisocytosis refers to the presence of red blood cells of unequal sizes. Therefore, the best explanation for the given answer is pleomorphism, as it directly relates to the variability in size, shape, and appearance of the same cell type.

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  • 41. 

    Anisokaryosis, High/ Variable N:C ratio, Increased mitotic activity, Coarse Chromatin pattern, Nuclear molding, Multinucleation, Nucleoli very in size shape and number.

    • A.

      Nuclear Changes

    • B.

      General Criteria

    • C.

      Cellular Changes

    • D.

      Cytoplasmic Changes

    Correct Answer
    A. Nuclear Changes
    Explanation
    The given answer describes various nuclear changes that can be observed in a cell. Anisokaryosis refers to the presence of nuclei of different sizes, while a high or variable N:C ratio indicates an abnormal ratio of nuclear size to cytoplasmic size. Increased mitotic activity suggests a higher rate of cell division. Coarse chromatin pattern refers to the appearance of the chromatin in the nucleus, which may appear clumped or irregular. Nuclear molding refers to the deformation of the nucleus due to pressure from adjacent cells. Multinucleation indicates the presence of multiple nuclei within a single cell. Finally, the variation in size, shape, and number of nucleoli suggests abnormalities in the nucleoli, which are involved in ribosome synthesis.

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  • 42. 

    Any unusual variation in over all nuclear size

    • A.

      Anisokaryosis

    • B.

      Multinucleation

    • C.

      Coarse Chromatin Pattern

    • D.

      Increased mitotic activity

    Correct Answer
    A. Anisokaryosis
    Explanation
    Anisokaryosis refers to an abnormality in the size of cell nuclei. It is characterized by a significant variation in the size of nuclei within a tissue or cell population. This can be observed in various diseases, such as cancer, where abnormal cell growth and division occur. Anisokaryosis is often associated with malignant cells and can be indicative of cellular dysplasia or malignancy. Therefore, in the context of the given options, anisokaryosis would be the most appropriate explanation for any unusual variation in overall nuclear size.

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  • 43. 

    Specifically an increase in the size of the nucleus to that of cytoplasm

    • A.

      High/ Variable N:C Ratio

    • B.

      Nuclear Molding

    • C.

      Multinucleation

    • D.

      Anisokaryosis

    Correct Answer
    A. High/ Variable N:C Ratio
    Explanation
    The correct answer is High/ Variable N:C Ratio. This is because an increase in the size of the nucleus to that of the cytoplasm leads to a higher or variable N:C ratio. The N:C ratio refers to the ratio of the size of the nucleus to the size of the cytoplasm in a cell. When the nucleus becomes larger in relation to the cytoplasm, the N:C ratio increases. This can be seen in conditions such as cancer, where abnormal cell growth can cause an increase in the N:C ratio.

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  • 44. 

    Rare so any increase in presence of mitotic figures or cells that are not dividing equally is considered a criterion for malignancy

    • A.

      Increased mitotic activity

    • B.

      Multinucleation

    • C.

      Coarse Chromatin Pattern

    • D.

      Anisokaryosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased mitotic activity
    Explanation
    The presence of mitotic figures or cells that are not dividing equally is considered a criterion for malignancy because it indicates increased mitotic activity. This means that cells are dividing more frequently, which is often associated with cancerous growth. Therefore, an increase in mitotic activity is a reliable indicator of malignancy.

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  • 45. 

    Coarser than normal, may appear ropy or coardlike

    • A.

      Coarse Chromatin Pattern

    • B.

      Nuclear Molding

    • C.

      Anisokaryosis

    • D.

      Multinucleation

    Correct Answer
    A. Coarse Chromatin Pattern
    Explanation
    A coarse chromatin pattern refers to an abnormal appearance of the genetic material within the nucleus of a cell. Normally, chromatin appears fine and evenly distributed, but in this case, it appears thicker and clumpy, resembling ropes or cords. This can be indicative of certain diseases or conditions, such as cancer or inflammation. The other options, nuclear molding, anisokaryosis, and multinucleation, do not specifically describe this coarse appearance of chromatin.

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  • 46. 

    Deformation o fnuclei by other nuclei within the same cell or adjacent cells

    • A.

      Nuclear molding

    • B.

      Multinucleation

    • C.

      Nucleoli that vary in size shape and number

    • D.

      Increased mitotic activity

    Correct Answer
    A. Nuclear molding
    Explanation
    The term "nuclear molding" refers to the deformation of nuclei caused by other nuclei within the same cell or adjacent cells. This can occur due to physical pressure exerted by neighboring nuclei or due to abnormal cell growth. The other options, multinucleation, nucleoli variation, and increased mitotic activity, do not specifically describe the deformation of nuclei by other nuclei.

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  • 47. 

    Multiple nuclei within a cell

    • A.

      Multinucleation

    • B.

      Nuclear Molding

    • C.

      Coarse Chromatin pattern

    • D.

      High or Variable N:C ratio

    Correct Answer
    A. Multinucleation
    Explanation
    Multinucleation refers to the presence of multiple nuclei within a single cell. This can occur due to various reasons such as cell fusion, abnormal cell division, or cellular stress. It is often associated with certain pathological conditions, such as cancer or viral infections. In multinucleated cells, each nucleus may have its own function and gene expression, leading to altered cellular behavior. Therefore, the presence of multinucleation is an important feature to consider when evaluating cellular abnormalities.

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  • 48. 

    Extreme basophilia of cytoplasm, Vacuolation

    • A.

      Cytoplasmic Changes

    • B.

      General Criteria

    • C.

      Cellular Changes

    • D.

      Nuclear Changes

    Correct Answer
    A. Cytoplasmic Changes
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "Cytoplasmic Changes". This suggests that the observed extreme basophilia of cytoplasm and vacuolation are indicative of alterations or abnormalities in the cytoplasm of the cell. These changes may include an increase in the basophilic staining properties of the cytoplasm and the presence of vacuoles, which are fluid-filled spaces within the cytoplasm. These cytoplasmic changes could be caused by various factors such as cellular stress, metabolic disturbances, or pathological conditions.

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  • 49. 

    Evaluation of solid mass, Smear like a blood smear for 1/3 of sample. Leave 1/3 of sample untouched. Squash last third.

    • A.

      Combination Technique

    • B.

      Squash Prep

    • C.

      Rotation Technique

    • D.

      Starfish Technique

    Correct Answer
    A. Combination Technique
    Explanation
    The given instructions suggest a combination technique for evaluating a solid mass. The technique involves creating a smear, similar to a blood smear, for one-third of the sample. Another one-third of the sample is left untouched, and the last one-third is squashed. This combination of methods allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the solid mass, ensuring that different aspects of the sample are examined.

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  • 50. 

    Risk of cell rupture, 2nd slide placed over the sample, Smoothly slide apart without downward pressure.

    • A.

      Squash Prep

    • B.

      Combo Tech

    • C.

      Rotation Tech

    • D.

      Starfish Tech

    Correct Answer
    A. Squash Prep
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Squash Prep because the given explanation suggests that the risk of cell rupture is present, and in Squash Prep technique, the 2nd slide is smoothly slid apart without applying downward pressure. This technique is commonly used to prepare samples for microscopy, where the cells need to be flattened and spread out without damaging them.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Sep 03, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 15, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Analeesa.love
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