A&p II Exam 3 Review

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 828

Questions: 139 | Attempts: 828 | Updated: Mar 22, 2023

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We all get pre-exam jitters, when studying for that human anatomy and physiology final exam one needs all the help they can get so as to nail down a pass grade. This means enrolling in study groups and taking quizzes to polish up your knowledge. Give the test review below a try. All the best

Questions and Answers

1.

Which of the following is not characteristic of a virus?
- A.
  
  RNA or DNA core
- B.
  
  Causes cell lysis
- C.
  
  Protein coating
- D.
  
  Cause infections in body fuids
Correct Answer
D. Cause infections in body fuids

Explanation
The characteristic of a virus that is not mentioned in the options is "Cause infections in body fluids." Viruses can cause infections in various ways, such as respiratory droplets, contaminated surfaces, or through vectors like mosquitoes. However, the options provided do mention other characteristics of a virus, such as having an RNA or DNA core, causing cell lysis, and having a protein coating.

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2.

Which of the following is not characteristic of a bacteria?
- A.
  
  May have a slime coat
- B.
  
  One chromosome
- C.
  
  Not a living cell
- D.
  
  Has a cell wall
Correct Answer
C. Not a living cell

Explanation
The statement "Not a living cell" is not characteristic of bacteria because bacteria are living cells. Bacteria are single-celled microorganisms that can be found in various environments. They have a distinct cellular structure, including a cell wall, and contain genetic material in the form of a single chromosome. Additionally, some bacteria may have a slime coat, which helps protect them and aid in their attachment to surfaces.

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3.

Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?
- A.
  
  Prevents the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue
- B.
  
  Sets the stage for repair processes
- C.
  
  Replaces injured tissues with connective tissue
- D.
  
  Disposes of cellular debris and pathogens
Correct Answer
C. Replaces injured tissues with connective tissue

Explanation
The inflammatory response is a protective mechanism of the body that is triggered in response to tissue injury or infection. It involves various processes such as increased blood flow, migration of immune cells, and release of chemical mediators. The purpose of the inflammatory response is to prevent the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue, set the stage for repair processes, and dispose of cellular debris and pathogens. However, replacing injured tissues with connective tissue is not a function of the inflammatory response. This process is known as fibrosis or scarring, which occurs during the later stages of tissue repair.

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4.

Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms?
- A.
  
  Macrophage
- B.
  
  Gastric juice
- C.
  
  Keratin
- D.
  
  Cilia
Correct Answer
A. MacropHage

Explanation
Macrophages are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the body's immune response. They are part of the second line of defense against microorganisms, as they engulf and destroy foreign particles, including bacteria and viruses. Macrophages are particularly effective in phagocytosis, the process of engulfing and digesting pathogens. They also release chemicals that help activate other immune cells and initiate an inflammatory response. Overall, macrophages are an important component of the body's immune system and contribute to the second line of defense against microorganisms.

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5.

B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by ___________.
- A.
  
  Forming of a large number of cells that are unlike the original B cell
- B.
  
  Producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells
- C.
  
  Immediately producing antigen-specific antibodies
- D.
  
  Reducing its size
Correct Answer
B. Producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells

Explanation
When B cells are initially exposed to an antigen, they respond by producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells. Plasma cells are responsible for the immediate production of antigen-specific antibodies, which help in the immune response against the antigen. Memory cells, on the other hand, are long-lived cells that "remember" the antigen and provide long-term immunity. This response allows the immune system to mount a quicker and more effective response upon subsequent exposure to the same antigen.

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6.

Cytotoxic T cells
- A.
  
  Require the double recognition signal of I MHC plus II MHC on the target cell in order to function
- B.
  
  Self-destruct once the antigen has been neutralized
- C.
  
  Function mainly to stimulate the proliferation of other T cell populations
- D.
  
  Are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells
Correct Answer
D. Are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells

Explanation
Cytotoxic T cells are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells. They do not require the double recognition signal of I MHC plus II MHC on the target cell in order to function. They do not self-destruct once the antigen has been neutralized. They do not function mainly to stimulate the proliferation of other T cell populations. The given answer correctly identifies the unique ability of cytotoxic T cells to directly attack and kill other cells.

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7.

The primary immune response ________________.
- A.
  
  Is another name for immunological memory
- B.
  
  Has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
- C.
  
  Occurs when memory cells are stimulated
- D.
  
  Occurs more rapidly and is stronger than the secondary response
Correct Answer
B. Has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells

Explanation
The primary immune response refers to the initial immune response that occurs when the body is exposed to a specific pathogen for the first time. During this response, B cells need time to recognize the pathogen, proliferate (multiply), and differentiate into plasma cells, which produce antibodies to fight against the pathogen. This process takes some time, resulting in a lag period before sufficient levels of antibodies are produced. This is why the primary immune response has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells.

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8.

Select the correct statement about the function of antibodies.
- A.
  
  Neutralization is the process by which antibodies cause invading cells to clump together
- B.
  
  Antibodies may directly destroy "invaders"
- C.
  
  Complement activation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide protection
- D.
  
  The most potent agglutinating agent is IgG
Correct Answer
C. Complement activation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide protection

Explanation
Complement activation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide protection. When antibodies bind to antigens on the surface of invading cells, they can activate the complement system. This triggers a cascade of reactions that lead to the formation of membrane attack complexes, which can puncture and destroy the cell membrane of the invader. This mechanism helps in neutralizing and eliminating the invading cells, providing protection against infections.

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9.

Which of the following cells combines bother cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity?
- A.
  
  Cytotoxic T cells
- B.
  
  APC
- C.
  
  B cell
- D.
  
  Helper T cell
Correct Answer
D. Helper T cell

Explanation
Helper T cells combine both cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity. They play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response by activating other immune cells such as B cells and cytotoxic T cells. Helper T cells recognize antigens presented by antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and release chemical signals called cytokines, which stimulate the production of antibodies by B cells and activate cytotoxic T cells to destroy infected cells. Therefore, helper T cells are essential for the effective functioning of both the cellular and humoral immune responses.

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10.

The cells directly responsible for cellular immunity are the ___________ cells.
- A.
  
  Suppressor T
- B.
  
  Cytotoxic T
- C.
  
  B
- D.
  
  Plasma
- E.
  
  Helper T
Correct Answer
B. Cytotoxic T

Explanation
Cytotoxic T cells are the cells directly responsible for cellular immunity. These cells play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing and destroying infected or abnormal cells. They do this by releasing toxic substances that induce cell death in their target cells. Cytotoxic T cells are a type of T lymphocyte and are essential for eliminating pathogens and cancer cells from the body. They are an important component of the adaptive immune system and contribute to the overall defense against infections and diseases.

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11.

The cells responsible for humoral immunity are the _________ cells.
- A.
  
  Helper T
- B.
  
  NK
- C.
  
  Suppressor T
- D.
  
  B
- E.
  
  Cytotoxic T
Correct Answer
D. B

Explanation
B cells are the cells responsible for humoral immunity. They are a type of white blood cell that produce and secrete antibodies, which are proteins that can recognize and neutralize pathogens. B cells play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing antigens and initiating the production of antibodies to eliminate the invaders. Helper T cells, NK cells, Suppressor T cells, and Cytotoxic T cells are all involved in different aspects of the immune response, but they are not specifically responsible for humoral immunity like B cells are.

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12.

Examples of physical barriers against pathogens include
- A.
  
  Mucus
- B.
  
  Sebaceous glands
- C.
  
  Epidermal layers
- D.
  
  Epithelia
- E.
  
  All of the answers are correct
Correct Answer
E. All of the answers are correct

Explanation
All of the options listed (mucus, sebaceous glands, epidermal layers, and epithelia) are examples of physical barriers that can protect against pathogens. Mucus acts as a sticky trap for pathogens, preventing them from entering the body. Sebaceous glands produce an oily substance that can create a protective barrier on the skin, preventing pathogens from penetrating. Epidermal layers provide a tough outer layer of skin that acts as a physical barrier against pathogens. Epithelia, which are found in various tissues and organs, form a protective layer that can prevent the entry of pathogens. Therefore, all of the options listed are correct examples of physical barriers against pathogens.

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13.

Inflammation produces localized
- A.
  
  Heat
- B.
  
  Pain
- C.
  
  Swelling
- D.
  
  Redness
- E.
  
  All of the answers are correct
Correct Answer
E. All of the answers are correct

Explanation
Inflammation is a natural response of the body to injury or infection. It is characterized by various symptoms such as heat, pain, swelling, and redness in the affected area. These symptoms occur due to increased blood flow and accumulation of immune cells at the site of inflammation. Therefore, all of the given answers - heat, pain, swelling, and redness - are correct as they are common manifestations of localized inflammation.

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14.

Adaptive defenses depend on the activities of
- A.
  
  Agranulocytes
- B.
  
  Lymphocytes
- C.
  
  Monocytes
- D.
  
  Erythrocytes
- E.
  
  Leukocytes
Correct Answer
B. LympHocytes

Explanation
Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in adaptive immune responses. They are responsible for recognizing and targeting specific pathogens, such as bacteria or viruses, through the production of antibodies or by directly attacking infected cells. Lymphocytes are able to adapt and remember previous encounters with pathogens, allowing for a more efficient immune response upon subsequent exposures. Therefore, adaptive defenses heavily rely on the activities of lymphocytes to provide targeted and long-lasting protection against infectious agents.

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15.

T cells and B cells can be activated only by
- A.
  
  Interleukins, interferons, and colony-stimulating factors
- B.
  
  Exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane
- C.
  
  Pathogens
- D.
  
  Cells infected with viruses, bacteria, or cancer cells
- E.
  
  Disease-causing agents
Correct Answer
B. Exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane

Explanation
T cells and B cells are specialized types of white blood cells that play a crucial role in the immune response. They can be activated by exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane. Antigens are molecules that are recognized by the immune system as foreign, such as those found on pathogens or infected cells. When T or B cells encounter an antigen that matches their specific receptors, they become activated and initiate an immune response to eliminate the threat. This activation process is essential for the body to mount an effective immune response against pathogens, viruses, bacteria, or cancer cells.

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16.

The role of antigen-presenting cells in immunity is to
- A.
  
  Activate T cells
- B.
  
  Display antigen fragments
- C.
  
  Bind antigens to glycoproteins
- D.
  
  Process antigens
- E.
  
  All of the answers are correct
Correct Answer
E. All of the answers are correct

Explanation
The role of antigen-presenting cells in immunity is to activate T cells, display antigen fragments, bind antigens to glycoproteins, and process antigens. Antigen-presenting cells play a crucial role in the immune response by presenting antigens to T cells, which then recognize and respond to the antigens. They display antigen fragments on their cell surface, allowing T cells to recognize them. They also bind antigens to glycoproteins, facilitating their presentation to T cells. Additionally, antigen-presenting cells process antigens by breaking them down into smaller fragments for presentation. Therefore, all of the answers are correct.

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17.

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects _________ cells.
- A.
  
  Helper T
- B.
  
  B
- C.
  
  Cytotoxic T
- D.
  
  Suppressor T
- E.
  
  Plasma
Correct Answer
A. Helper T

Explanation
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) specifically targets and infects Helper T cells, also known as CD4+ T cells. These cells play a crucial role in the immune response by coordinating and activating other immune cells. By infecting and destroying Helper T cells, HIV weakens the immune system, making the individual more susceptible to infections and diseases.

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18.

What is the average normal pH range of blood?
- A.
  
  4.65-4.75
- B.
  
  8.35-8.45
- C.
  
  7.35-7.45
- D.
  
  7.75-7.85
Correct Answer
C. 7.35-7.45

Explanation
The average normal pH range of blood is 7.35-7.45. This range is slightly alkaline, indicating that blood is slightly basic. Maintaining this pH range is crucial for the proper functioning of various physiological processes in the body, including enzyme activity, oxygen transport, and acid-base balance. Any significant deviation from this range can lead to health issues and disrupt normal bodily functions.

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19.

Which blood type is generally called the universal donor?
- A.
  
  A
- B.
  
  O
- C.
  
  AB
- D.
  
  B
Correct Answer
B. O

Explanation
Blood type O is generally called the universal donor because it lacks both A and B antigens on the red blood cells. This means that it can be transfused to individuals with any blood type without causing an adverse immune reaction. In contrast, individuals with blood types A, B, or AB have antigens on their red blood cells that can potentially react with antibodies in the recipient's blood, leading to complications. Therefore, blood type O is considered the safest and most compatible for transfusions in emergency situations or when the recipient's blood type is unknown.

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20.

Which of the following is not a distribution function of blood?
- A.
  
  Delivery of oxygen to body cells
- B.
  
  Transport of hormones to their target organs
- C.
  
  Transport of salts to maintain blood volume
- D.
  
  Transport of metabolic wastes from cells
Correct Answer
C. Transport of salts to maintain blood volume

Explanation
The transport of salts to maintain blood volume is not a distribution function of blood. Blood is responsible for delivering oxygen to body cells, transporting hormones to their target organs, and removing metabolic wastes from cells. However, maintaining blood volume is primarily regulated by the kidneys through the process of reabsorption and excretion, rather than by the distribution of salts through the bloodstream.

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21.

Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?
- A.
  
  An increased number of RBCs
- B.
  
  Hypoxia of EPO-producing cells
- C.
  
  Moving to a lower altitude
- D.
  
  Decreased tissue demand for oxygen
Correct Answer
B. Hypoxia of EPO-producing cells

Explanation
Hypoxia is a condition in which there is a deficiency of oxygen in the body's tissues. EPO (erythropoietin) is a hormone produced by the kidneys in response to low oxygen levels in the blood. When EPO-producing cells detect hypoxia, they release erythropoietin, which stimulates the production of red blood cells (RBCs) in the bone marrow. Therefore, hypoxia of EPO-producing cells can trigger erythropoiesis, the process of RBC production, in order to increase oxygen-carrying capacity and alleviate the oxygen deficiency in the body.

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22.

What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?
- A.
  
  Kidney
- B.
  
  Pancreas
- C.
  
  Brain
- D.
  
  Liver
Correct Answer
A. Kidney

Explanation
The kidney is responsible for regulating erythrocyte production in the body. It produces a hormone called erythropoietin (EPO) which stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells (erythrocytes). When the oxygen levels in the body are low, the kidney detects this and releases EPO, which then signals the bone marrow to increase the production of red blood cells. This process helps to maintain the balance of red blood cells in the body and ensure adequate oxygen delivery to tissues and organs.

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23.

Normal heart founds are caused by which of the following events?
- A.
  
  Opening and closing of the heart valves
- B.
  
  Friction of blood against the chamber walls
- C.
  
  Closure of the heart valves
- D.
  
  Excitation of the SA node
Correct Answer
C. Closure of the heart valves

Explanation
The normal heart sounds are caused by the closure of the heart valves. When the valves close, they produce a sound that can be heard with a stethoscope. This closure prevents blood from flowing back into the previous chamber, ensuring that it moves forward through the heart. The opening and closing of the heart valves, as well as the friction of blood against the chamber walls, also contribute to the overall heart sounds, but the closure of the heart valves is the primary cause. The excitation of the SA node is responsible for initiating the electrical signals that regulate the heart's rhythm, but it does not directly cause the normal heart sounds.

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24.

Which of the events below does not occur when the semilunar valves are open?
- A.
  
  AV valves are closed
- B.
  
  Ventricles are systole
- C.
  
  Ventricles are diastole
- D.
  
  Blood enters pulmonary arteries and the aorta
Correct Answer
C. Ventricles are diastole

Explanation
When the semilunar valves are open, blood is able to flow from the ventricles into the pulmonary arteries and the aorta. This occurs during ventricular systole, which is the contraction phase of the ventricles. During ventricular diastole, the ventricles relax and fill with blood. Therefore, the event that does not occur when the semilunar valves are open is "Ventricles are diastole."

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25.

The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates ____________.
- A.
  
  Ventricular repolarization
- B.
  
  Atrial repolarization
- C.
  
  Ventricular depolarization
- D.
  
  Atrial depolarization
Correct Answer
D. Atrial depolarization

Explanation
The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates atrial depolarization. Depolarization refers to the electrical activation of the heart muscle cells, causing them to contract. In this case, the P wave represents the depolarization of the atria, which is the electrical signal that spreads through the atria and causes them to contract. This is followed by the QRS complex, which represents the depolarization of the ventricles and the subsequent contraction of the ventricles. Therefore, the correct answer is atrial depolarization.

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26.

Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the ___________.
- A.
  
  Left atrium
- B.
  
  Left ventricle
- C.
  
  Right atrium
- D.
  
  Right ventricle
Correct Answer
A. Left atrium

Explanation
Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the left atrium. The pulmonary veins are responsible for carrying oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart. Once the blood reaches the left atrium, it is then pumped into the left ventricle, which will eventually pump it out to the rest of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is the left atrium.

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27.

The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it _____________.
- A.
  
  Expands the thoracic cage
- B.
  
  Sends blood through a smaller valve
- C.
  
  Pumps blood against a greater resistance
- D.
  
  Pumps a greater volume of blood
Correct Answer
C. Pumps blood against a greater resistance

Explanation
The left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle because it needs to pump blood against a greater resistance. The left ventricle is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body, while the right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs. Since the body's systemic circulation has a higher resistance compared to the pulmonary circulation, the left ventricle needs to generate more force to overcome this resistance. This is why it has a thicker muscular wall, allowing it to pump blood effectively against the greater resistance.

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28.

Which of the following is not an age-related change affecting the heart?
- A.
  
  Atherosclerosis
- B.
  
  Fibrosis of cardiac muscle
- C.
  
  Thinning of the valve flaps
- D.
  
  Decline in cardiac reserve
Correct Answer
C. Thinning of the valve flaps

Explanation
Thinning of the valve flaps is not an age-related change affecting the heart. As people age, they commonly experience atherosclerosis, which is the buildup of plaque in the arteries, leading to narrowing and hardening of the blood vessels. Fibrosis of the cardiac muscle refers to the replacement of healthy heart muscle tissue with scar tissue, which can occur with age. Additionally, there is a decline in cardiac reserve, which is the ability of the heart to respond to increased demands, as people get older. However, thinning of the valve flaps is not a typical age-related change in the heart.

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29.

If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells, ______________.
- A.
  
  Contractions would last as long as the refractory period
- B.
  
  It would be less than 1-2m
- C.
  
  Tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action
- D.
  
  It would be much longer before cardiac cells could respond to a second stimulation
Correct Answer
C. Tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action

Explanation
If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells, tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action. This is because tetanic contractions are sustained contractions that occur when a muscle is stimulated rapidly and does not have enough time to relax between contractions. In skeletal muscle cells, the refractory period is short, allowing for rapid contractions. However, in cardiac muscle cells, the refractory period is longer to ensure that the heart has enough time to relax and refill with blood before the next contraction. If the refractory period in cardiac cells was as short as in skeletal cells, the heart would not have enough time to relax, leading to sustained contractions and a cessation of pumping action.

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30.

What occurs a the area labeled "D" on the graph?
- A.
  
  AV valve opens
- B.
  
  Ventricle contracts
- C.
  
  Diastolic filling begins
- D.
  
  Semilunar valve opens
- E.
  
  AV valve opens and diastolic filling beings
Correct Answer
E. AV valve opens and diastolic filling beings

Explanation
At the area labeled "D" on the graph, the AV valve opens and diastolic filling begins. This means that the atrioventricular (AV) valve, which separates the atria and ventricles, opens to allow blood to flow from the atria into the ventricles. At the same time, diastolic filling begins, which refers to the phase of the cardiac cycle when the ventricles relax and fill with blood. This is an important step in the overall process of the heart pumping blood throughout the body.

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31.

What volume is labeled "G" on the graph?
- A.
  
  Stroke volume
- B.
  
  End-systolic volume
- C.
  
  Cardiac output
- D.
  
  Ejection fraction
- E.
  
  End-diastolic volume
Correct Answer
B. End-systolic volume

Explanation
The volume labeled "G" on the graph represents the end-systolic volume. End-systolic volume refers to the amount of blood remaining in the ventricle at the end of systole, or the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle. This volume is important because it indicates the amount of blood that remains in the ventricle after it has pumped out blood during systole. It can be used to calculate other important cardiac parameters such as stroke volume and ejection fraction.

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32.

What occurs at "A" on the graph?
- A.
  
  Semilunar valve closes
- B.
  
  End systolic volume
- C.
  
  AV valve opens
- D.
  
  Semilunar valve opens
- E.
  
  AV valve closes
Correct Answer
D. Semilunar valve opens

Explanation
At "A" on the graph, the semilunar valve opens. This is indicated by the upward movement of the graph. The semilunar valve is responsible for allowing blood to flow out of the heart from the ventricles to the arteries. When the semilunar valve opens, it allows blood to be ejected from the heart into the circulation.

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33.

What volume is labeled "E" on the graph?
- A.
  
  End-systolic volume
- B.
  
  Total cardiac volume
- C.
  
  Cardiac output
- D.
  
  Stroke volume
- E.
  
  End-diastolic volume
Correct Answer
D. Stroke volume

Explanation
Stroke volume refers to the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction. It is typically measured in milliliters. On the graph, the volume labeled "E" represents the stroke volume, indicating the volume of blood ejected from the heart during systole (contraction) and is therefore the correct answer.

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34.

What occurs at the circled label "5" on the graph?
- A.
  
  Peak systolic pressure
- B.
  
  Isovolumetric systole
- C.
  
  Ventricular refilling
- D.
  
  Increased heart rate
- E.
  
  Isovolumetric contraction
Correct Answer
A. Peak systolic pressure

Explanation
At the circled label "5" on the graph, the occurrence is the peak systolic pressure. This refers to the highest pressure reached in the arteries during ventricular contraction. It represents the force exerted by the blood against the arterial walls when the heart pumps blood out of the ventricles.

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35.

What occurs at the area labeled "B" on the graph?
- A.
  
  Semilunar valve opens
- B.
  
  AV valve opens
- C.
  
  AV valve closes
- D.
  
  Semilunar valve closes
- E.
  
  Ventricular ejection occurs
Correct Answer
D. Semilunar valve closes

Explanation
At the area labeled "B" on the graph, the semilunar valve closes. This means that the valve between the ventricles and the arteries leading away from the heart shuts, preventing the backflow of blood into the ventricles. This closure ensures that blood flows only in one direction, from the ventricles to the arteries, allowing for efficient circulation throughout the body.

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36.

What occurs at the circled label "4" on the graph?
- A.
  
  Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
- B.
  
  Ventricular filling
- C.
  
  Sympathetic stimulation
- D.
  
  Isovolumetric ventricular contraction
- E.
  
  Ventricular ejection
Correct Answer
D. Isovolumetric ventricular contraction

Explanation
At the circled label "4" on the graph, isovolumetric ventricular contraction occurs. This refers to the phase of the cardiac cycle when the ventricles contract without any change in volume. During this phase, the ventricles are closed and the pressure within them rises rapidly, causing the semilunar valves to remain closed. This contraction allows the ventricles to build up pressure before the next phase of ventricular ejection, where blood is pumped out of the ventricles.

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37.

What occurs at the circled label "7" on the graph?
- A.
  
  Ventricular filling
- B.
  
  Isovolumetric ventricular contraction
- C.
  
  Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
- D.
  
  Ventricular ejection
- E.
  
  Sympathetic stimulation
Correct Answer
C. Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation

Explanation
At the circled label "7" on the graph, isovolumetric ventricular relaxation occurs. This refers to the phase of the cardiac cycle when the ventricles are relaxed and the pressure inside them decreases. During this phase, the ventricles are not contracting, and the atrioventricular valves are closed. The decrease in pressure allows blood to flow from the atria into the ventricles, preparing for the next phase of ventricular filling.

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38.

What is occurring in the left atrium at the circle labeled "2" on the graph?
- A.
  
  Left atrium is receiving pressure from the left ventricle
- B.
  
  Left atrial pressure is decreasing
- C.
  
  Left atrium is in diastole
- D.
  
  Left atrium is pressurizing the left ventricle
- E.
  
  Left atrium is in systole
Correct Answer
E. Left atrium is in systole

Explanation
The left atrium is in systole. This means that the left atrium is contracting to push blood into the left ventricle. During systole, the atria contract to push blood into the ventricles, while the ventricles relax. This allows for the efficient filling of the ventricles before they contract during ventricular systole.

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39.

With each ventricular systole,
- A.
  
  The ventricles fill with blood
- B.
  
  Blood pressure remains steady
- C.
  
  Blood pressure increases
- D.
  
  Blood pressure decreases
- E.
  
  Cardiac output decreases
Correct Answer
C. Blood pressure increases

Explanation
During ventricular systole, the ventricles contract, causing an increase in pressure within the blood vessels. This increase in pressure is known as systolic blood pressure. As the ventricles forcefully pump blood out of the heart and into the arteries, the blood pressure rises. This increase in blood pressure helps to propel the blood forward and ensures that it reaches all parts of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is that blood pressure increases during ventricular systole.

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40.

If preload increases, what effect will that have on Cardiac Output?
- A.
  
  It will decrease
- B.
  
  It will increase
- C.
  
  Not enough information known
- D.
  
  There is no relationship
Correct Answer
C. Not enough information known

Explanation
The question states that if preload increases, the effect on cardiac output is not known. Preload refers to the amount of blood that fills the heart before it contracts. While an increase in preload can potentially increase cardiac output, it is not always the case. Other factors such as contractility and afterload also play a role in determining cardiac output. Without information on these factors, it is not possible to determine the exact effect of an increase in preload on cardiac output.

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41.

If preload increases because venous return increases, what effect will that have on Cardiac Output?
- A.
  
  It will increase
- B.
  
  Not enough information known
- C.
  
  It will decrease
- D.
  
  There is no relationship
Correct Answer
A. It will increase

Explanation
If preload increases because venous return increases, it means that more blood is being returned to the heart, leading to an increase in the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction. This increased preload results in a stronger contraction of the heart muscle, leading to an increase in stroke volume. Since cardiac output is the product of stroke volume and heart rate, an increase in stroke volume will ultimately lead to an increase in cardiac output. Therefore, the correct answer is that it will increase.

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42.

If preload increases, what effect will that have on Stroke Volume?
- A.
  
  Not enough information known
- B.
  
  It will increase
- C.
  
  It will decrease
- D.
  
  There is no relationship
Correct Answer
B. It will increase

Explanation
An increase in preload refers to an increase in the volume of blood that fills the ventricles of the heart during diastole (relaxation phase). This increased volume stretches the myocardial fibers, leading to a more forceful contraction during systole (contraction phase). As a result, the stroke volume, which is the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each beat, will increase.

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43.

If preload increases, what effect will that have on EDV?
- A.
  
  It will increase
- B.
  
  It will decrease
- C.
  
  There is no relationship
- D.
  
  Not enough information known
Correct Answer
A. It will increase

Explanation
If preload increases, it means that the amount of blood returning to the heart during diastole is increasing. This increased blood volume will lead to an increase in the end-diastolic volume (EDV), which is the amount of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole. Therefore, an increase in preload will result in an increase in EDV.

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44.

If preload increases, what effect will that have on ESV?
- A.
  
  It will decrease
- B.
  
  It will increase
- C.
  
  Not enough information known
- D.
  
  There is no relationship
Correct Answer
D. There is no relationship

Explanation
The answer "There is no relationship" suggests that preload and ESV are not related to each other. Preload refers to the amount of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole, while ESV (end-systolic volume) refers to the amount of blood remaining in the ventricles at the end of systole. The question implies that there is no direct cause-and-effect relationship between preload and ESV. Therefore, changes in preload would not have any specific effect on ESV.

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45.

Which of the following is not a distribution function of blood?
- A.
  
  Delivery of oxygen to body cells
- B.
  
  Transport of salts to maintain blood volume
- C.
  
  Transport of hormones to their target organs
- D.
  
  Transport of metabolic wastes from cells
Correct Answer
B. Transport of salts to maintain blood volume

Explanation
The transport of salts to maintain blood volume is not a distribution function of blood. Blood is responsible for delivering oxygen to body cells, transporting hormones to their target organs, and removing metabolic wastes from cells. However, maintaining blood volume is primarily regulated by the kidneys and their control over water and salt balance in the body.

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46.

Which of the following is a protective function of blood?
- A.
  
  Maintenance of body temperature
- B.
  
  Maintenance of normal pH in body tissue
- C.
  
  Maintenance of adequate fluid volume
- D.
  
  Prevention of blood loss
Correct Answer
D. Prevention of blood loss

Explanation
The protective function of blood is the prevention of blood loss. Blood contains platelets that help in clotting and forming a plug at the site of injury, preventing excessive bleeding. This function is crucial in maintaining the integrity and stability of the circulatory system, ensuring that the body does not lose excessive amounts of blood, which could be life-threatening.

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47.

Which of the following statements does not describe blood?
- A.
  
  Blood varies from bright red to dark red color
- B.
  
  Blood is denser and more viscous than water
- C.
  
  Blood carries body cells to injured areas for repair
- D.
  
  Blood pH is normally between 7.35 and 7.45
Correct Answer
C. Blood carries body cells to injured areas for repair

Explanation
Blood carries body cells to injured areas for repair. This statement does not describe blood because blood does not carry body cells to injured areas for repair. Instead, it carries oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products throughout the body. The process of repairing injured areas is performed by other components of the blood, such as platelets and white blood cells.

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48.

In a centrifuged sample of blood, what makes up the buffy coat?
- A.
  
  Red blood cells
- B.
  
  Plasma
- C.
  
  Plaelets only
- D.
  
  White blood cells and platelets
Correct Answer
D. White blood cells and platelets

Explanation
The buffy coat in a centrifuged sample of blood consists of white blood cells and platelets. When blood is spun in a centrifuge, it separates into three layers: the top layer is plasma, the middle layer is the buffy coat, and the bottom layer is composed of red blood cells. The buffy coat contains white blood cells and platelets, which are important components of the immune system and play a role in blood clotting.

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49.

Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?
- A.
  
  Regulation
- B.
  
  Hormone production
- C.
  
  Protection
- D.
  
  Disteibution
Correct Answer
B. Hormone production

Explanation
Blood performs several important functions in the body, including regulation, protection, and distribution. However, hormone production is not a function of blood. Hormones are produced by various endocrine glands in the body, such as the pituitary gland, thyroid gland, and adrenal glands. These glands release hormones directly into the bloodstream, but the blood itself does not produce hormones. Instead, it serves as a transport system, carrying hormones to their target organs and tissues.

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50.

The plasma protein that is the major contributor to osmotic pressure is ______________.
- A.
  
  Gamma globulin
- B.
  
  Fibrinogen
- C.
  
  Albumin
- D.
  
  Alpha globulin
Correct Answer
C. Albumin

Explanation
Albumin is the correct answer because it is a plasma protein that plays a crucial role in maintaining osmotic pressure. Osmotic pressure is the pressure exerted by solutes in a solution, and albumin helps to balance the osmotic pressure between the blood vessels and the surrounding tissues. It is responsible for maintaining proper fluid balance and preventing fluid from leaking out of the blood vessels. Therefore, albumin is the major contributor to osmotic pressure in the plasma.

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