Z3d152 Volume 1 UREs

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 148

Questions: 100 | Attempts: 148 | Updated: Mar 21, 2023

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Volume 1. Cyber Transport Systems Fundamentals

Questions and Answers

1.

Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?
- A.
  
  Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3)
- B.
  
  Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2)
- C.
  
  Spectrum Operations (3D1X4)
- D.
  
  Client Systems (3D1X1)
Correct Answer
A. Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3)

Explanation
Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3) is the correct answer because this career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing various types of transmission devices, including wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This field also deals with encryption transmission devices, which are used to secure communications. Therefore, individuals in this career field are responsible for maintaining and ensuring the proper functioning of these transmission systems.

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2.

Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?
- A.
  
  Transmission security
- B.
  
  Technical security
- C.
  
  Emission security
- D.
  
  Physical security
Correct Answer
B. Technical security

Explanation
Technical security is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems. Communications security programs primarily focus on protecting the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information during its transmission. Transmission security ensures that information is securely transmitted over networks. Emission security deals with preventing unauthorized disclosure of information through unintentional emissions. Physical security involves protecting physical assets and infrastructure. However, technical security refers to measures taken to protect the technical aspects of a system, such as software, hardware, and networks. While important for overall system security, it is not specifically related to communications security in this context.

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3.

What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
- A.
  
  Core duty
- B.
  
  Core value
- C.
  
  Core competency
- D.
  
  Core responsibility
Correct Answer
C. Core competency

Explanation
Core competency is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field. It refers to the specialized abilities and expertise that individuals or organizations possess, which distinguish them from their competitors and enable them to excel in their field. Core competencies are essential for achieving a competitive advantage and success in a specific industry or profession. They represent the unique strengths and capabilities that contribute to the overall effectiveness and performance in a particular career field.

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4.

Which of the following is a core competency of Core Transport Systems?
- A.
  
  Fixed cable systems
- B.
  
  Voice network systems
- C.
  
  Application software systems
- D.
  
  Client-server database systems
Correct Answer
B. Voice network systems

Explanation
Voice network systems are a core competency of Core Transport Systems because they specialize in providing solutions for voice communication. This suggests that they have expertise in designing, implementing, and maintaining voice network systems, which are crucial for effective communication within an organization. It is likely that Core Transport Systems has developed a strong reputation and track record in delivering high-quality voice network solutions to their clients.

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5.

Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?
- A.
  
  1118
- B.
  
  457
- C.
  
  55
- D.
  
  3
Correct Answer
B. 457

Explanation
AF Form 457 is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk. This form is specifically designed for reporting unsafe conditions, such as damaged equipment, unsafe working environments, or potential hazards that could cause harm. By using AF Form 457, Air Force personnel can easily and efficiently report these conditions to the appropriate authorities, allowing for prompt action to be taken to mitigate the risk and ensure the safety of personnel and property.

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6.

Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?
- A.
  
  Biological
- B.
  
  Chemical
- C.
  
  Physical
- D.
  
  Nuclear
Correct Answer
D. Nuclear

Explanation
Nuclear hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards. The four major types of hazards are biological, chemical, physical, and nuclear hazards. While biological hazards involve the risk of exposure to harmful organisms or substances, chemical hazards involve the risk of exposure to toxic or hazardous chemicals. Physical hazards refer to the risk of injury or harm due to physical factors such as noise, radiation, or temperature. On the other hand, nuclear hazards specifically pertain to the risk of exposure to radioactive materials or nuclear reactions.

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7.

Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?
- A.
  
  Biological
- B.
  
  Chemical
- C.
  
  Physical
- D.
  
  Stress
Correct Answer
D. Stress

Explanation
Stress is the correct answer because heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers are all factors that can contribute to increased stress levels in the workplace. These factors can negatively impact an individual's mental and physical well-being, leading to a variety of health issues.

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8.

To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?
- A.
  
  25
- B.
  
  50
- C.
  
  75
- D.
  
  100
Correct Answer
A. 25

Explanation
To prevent manual handling hazards, it is recommended to utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This is because lifting heavy objects on your own can put excessive strain on your muscles and joints, increasing the risk of injuries such as strains, sprains, or even more serious conditions like hernias. By using team lifting, the load is distributed among multiple people, reducing the strain on each individual and making it safer to handle heavier items.

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9.

When working on electrical circuits, the role of the safety observer is normally performed by the
- A.
  
  Trainer
- B.
  
  Certifier
- C.
  
  Technician
- D.
  
  Supervisor
Correct Answer
D. Supervisor

Explanation
The role of the safety observer in electrical circuits is typically performed by a supervisor. A supervisor is responsible for overseeing the work being done, ensuring safety protocols are followed, and monitoring the overall safety of the work environment. They have the authority and knowledge to intervene if any unsafe practices or conditions are observed, making them suitable for the role of a safety observer in electrical circuits.

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10.

When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if
- A.
  
  The circuit is energized
- B.
  
  You have a valid prescription
- C.
  
  They are certified for high voltage
- D.
  
  They are secured with a nonmetallic cord
Correct Answer
D. They are secured with a nonmetallic cord

Explanation
When working on electrical circuits, it is important to wear metal framed eyeglasses that are secured with a nonmetallic cord. This is because metal framed eyeglasses can conduct electricity, which can be extremely dangerous when working with energized circuits. By securing the glasses with a nonmetallic cord, the risk of them falling off and coming into contact with live wires is minimized. Therefore, wearing metal framed eyeglasses that are secured with a nonmetallic cord is a safety precaution to prevent electrical accidents.

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11.

To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?
- A.
  
  All personnel
- B.
  
  Only safety personnel
- C.
  
  Only civilian personnel
- D.
  
  Only medical personnel
Correct Answer
A. All personnel

Explanation
The risk management (RM) process applies to all personnel. This means that everyone in the organization, regardless of their role or department, is responsible for identifying, assessing, and managing risks. By involving all personnel in the RM process, the organization can benefit from a collective effort to mitigate potential hazards and ensure the safety and well-being of everyone involved. This approach promotes a culture of risk awareness and encourages proactive measures to prevent accidents and incidents.

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12.

What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?
- A.
  
  Risk control
- B.
  
  Safety control
- C.
  
  Risk management
- D.
  
  Safety management
Correct Answer
C. Risk management

Explanation
The correct answer is risk management. Risk management is a simple and systematic process that allows commanders to maximize combat capability while limiting risk. It involves identifying potential risks, assessing their likelihood and impact, and implementing strategies to mitigate or eliminate them. By effectively managing risks, commanders can make informed decisions and take appropriate actions to ensure the safety and success of their operations. Safety control and safety management are related concepts but do not encompass the comprehensive approach of risk management.

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13.

Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?
- A.
  
  Accept unnecessary risk
- B.
  
  Apply the RM process continuously
- C.
  
  Train and adhere to safety guidelines
- D.
  
  Make risk decisions at the lowest level
Correct Answer
B. Apply the RM process continuously

Explanation
The correct answer is "Apply the RM process continuously." This principle of risk management emphasizes the importance of consistently applying the risk management process throughout the entire duration of a project or operation. By continuously assessing and managing risks, organizations can proactively identify and address potential threats, minimize their impact, and maximize opportunities. This approach ensures that risk management remains an ongoing and integral part of decision-making and planning processes, helping to protect the organization's assets, reputation, and overall success.

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14.

How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?
- A.
  
  Four
- B.
  
  Five
- C.
  
  Six
- D.
  
  Seven
Correct Answer
B. Five

Explanation
The correct answer is five because the risk management process typically involves five steps: identification, assessment, mitigation, monitoring, and communication. In the identification step, potential risks are identified and documented. The assessment step involves analyzing the identified risks to determine their likelihood and impact. Mitigation involves developing strategies to minimize or eliminate the risks. Monitoring involves tracking the effectiveness of the mitigation strategies and making adjustments as needed. Finally, communication involves sharing information about the risks and mitigation efforts with relevant stakeholders.

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15.

An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having what category of vulnerability?
- A.
  
  I
- B.
  
  II
- C.
  
  III
- D.
  
  IV
Correct Answer
A. I

Explanation
An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having a category I vulnerability. This means that the enclave lacks the necessary security measures to protect against unauthorized access and potential intrusions. Without a firewall, the enclave is vulnerable to network-based attacks, while the absence of an IDS leaves it susceptible to detecting and responding to potential security breaches. Overall, the absence of these security measures increases the risk of unauthorized access and compromises the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the enclave's resources.

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16.

How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC) does the Air Force have?
- A.
  
  One
- B.
  
  Two
- C.
  
  Three
- D.
  
  Four
Correct Answer
B. Two

Explanation
The Air Force has two Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC).

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17.

The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibilities except
- A.
  
  Maintain sole administrative privileges on the firewall
- B.
  
  Standardize, configure, back up, and otherwise maintain the firewall
- C.
  
  Maintain a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices
- D.
  
  Install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN)
Correct Answer
D. Install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN)

Explanation
The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) is responsible for maintaining sole administrative privileges on the firewall, standardizing, configuring, backing up, and otherwise maintaining the firewall, and maintaining a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices. However, they are not responsible for installing patches or performing any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN). This task is likely assigned to another entity or department within the network infrastructure.

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18.

Which term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP)?
- A.
  
  IP telephony
- B.
  
  Network telephony
- C.
  
  Voice protection system
- D.
  
  Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)
Correct Answer
A. IP telepHony

Explanation
IP telephony is the correct answer because it accurately describes the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP). IP telephony, also known as Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), allows for the transmission of voice signals in digital form over an IP network, enabling voice calls to be made over the internet rather than traditional telephone lines. This technology has become increasingly popular due to its cost-effectiveness and flexibility.

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19.

You should implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except
- A.
  
  Enabling access control lists (ACL) on firewalls, routers, and switches
- B.
  
  Deploying protection from dynamic host configuration (DHCP) spoofing
- C.
  
  Consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN)
- D.
  
  Enabling port security access to only the required devices needed by the client
Correct Answer
C. Consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN)

Explanation
The correct answer is consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN). This is because consolidating voice and data traffic on the same VLAN can increase the risk of attacks and compromise the security of the IP telephony system. It is recommended to separate voice and data traffic using separate VLANs to ensure better security and to prevent unauthorized access to the IP telephony system.

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20.

At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter gateway operate at?
- A.
  
  2
- B.
  
  3
- C.
  
  4
- D.
  
  5
Correct Answer
B. 3

Explanation
A packet filter gateway operates at the third layer of the OSI model, which is the network layer. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets across different networks. A packet filter gateway examines the headers of incoming and outgoing packets to make decisions about whether to allow or block them based on predefined rules and filters. By operating at this layer, a packet filter gateway can effectively control network traffic and enhance network security.

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21.

At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a circuit layer gateway operate?
- A.
  
  3
- B.
  
  4
- C.
  
  5
- D.
  
  6
Correct Answer
B. 4

Explanation
A circuit layer gateway operates at the transport layer (layer 4) of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for the reliable delivery of data between end systems, providing services such as segmentation, flow control, and error recovery. A circuit layer gateway acts as a translator between different protocols or network architectures at this layer, allowing communication between networks with different protocols.

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22.

At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?
- A.
  
  4
- B.
  
  5
- C.
  
  6
- D.
  
  7
Correct Answer
D. 7

Explanation
An application-level firewall operates at the seventh layer of the OSI model, which is the application layer. This layer is responsible for managing communication between applications and provides services such as file transfers, email, and web browsing. By operating at this layer, an application-level firewall can monitor and control traffic based on the specific application protocols being used, allowing it to provide more granular and targeted security measures.

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23.

The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it
- A.
  
  Can analyze any encrypted data if it is decrypted before reaching the target host
- B.
  
  Consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down
- C.
  
  Monitors log files for inadvisable settings or passwords
- D.
  
  Monitors traffic on the host on which it is installed
Correct Answer
B. Consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down

Explanation
A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down because it requires processing power and memory to continuously monitor and analyze system activities. This can result in decreased performance and potentially impact the overall functionality of the host.

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24.

One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it
- A.
  
  Can decrypt data
- B.
  
  Uses very few network resources
- C.
  
  Monitors logs for policy violations
- D.
  
  Can analyzed encrypted network traffic
Correct Answer
B. Uses very few network resources

Explanation
A network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) that uses very few network resources is advantageous because it minimizes the impact on network performance. This means that the NIDS can monitor network traffic and detect potential intrusions without causing significant slowdowns or disruptions to the network. By using fewer network resources, the NIDS can operate efficiently and effectively, allowing for continuous monitoring and protection against intrusions without negatively affecting network performance.

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25.

Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?
- A.
  
  Active
- B.
  
  Passive
- C.
  
  Host-based
- D.
  
  Network-based
Correct Answer
C. Host-based

Explanation
Host-based intrusion detection systems (IDS) use software sensors to monitor and analyze activities on individual hosts or endpoints within a network. These sensors are installed directly on the host machines and collect data about file integrity, system logs, and user activities. By analyzing this data, host-based IDS can detect and alert on suspicious or malicious behavior that may indicate an intrusion or compromise. Unlike network-based IDS, which monitor network traffic, host-based IDS focus on the activities happening within the host itself. This makes them particularly effective at detecting attacks that may bypass network-based defenses.

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26.

Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?
- A.
  
  Active
- B.
  
  Passive
- C.
  
  Host-based
- D.
  
  Network-based
Correct Answer
D. Network-based

Explanation
A network-based intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures. This means that it analyzes network traffic in real-time to identify any abnormal behavior or patterns that may indicate a potential intrusion or attack. By comparing the network traffic against a database of known virus signatures, the IDS can also detect and alert on any malicious code or malware that may be present in the network. This type of IDS is typically deployed at strategic points within the network infrastructure to provide comprehensive coverage and protection against network-based threats.

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27.

Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are
- A.
  
  Active only
- B.
  
  Passive only
- C.
  
  Passive and active
- D.
  
  Neither passive nor active
Correct Answer
C. Passive and active

Explanation
HIDS, or host-based intrusion detection systems, are designed to monitor and analyze the activities occurring within a single host or system. They can operate in both passive and active modes. In passive mode, HIDS monitors and logs activities without taking any action. In active mode, HIDS not only monitors but also takes proactive measures to prevent or mitigate potential threats, such as blocking suspicious network traffic or terminating suspicious processes. Therefore, the correct answer is "passive and active."

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28.

Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are
- A.
  
  Active only
- B.
  
  Passive only
- C.
  
  Passive and active
- D.
  
  Neither passive nor active
Correct Answer
B. Passive only

Explanation
Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are designed to monitor network traffic and detect any suspicious or malicious activity. They work passively by analyzing network packets and comparing them against known attack signatures or abnormal behavior patterns. NIDS do not actively intervene or block any traffic; instead, they generate alerts or notifications to alert system administrators or security personnel about potential threats. Therefore, the correct answer is "passive only" as NIDS solely operate in a passive manner without actively intervening in network traffic.

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29.

What security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied?
- A.
  
  Default deny
- B.
  
  Default allow
- C.
  
  Close
- D.
  
  Open
Correct Answer
D. Open

Explanation
The correct answer is "Open." In a security posture where everything is open, all actions and access are permitted unless specifically denied. This means that there are no restrictions or limitations in place, and all users have unrestricted access to resources and actions. This approach may be suitable in certain situations where there is a high level of trust among users and minimal security risks. However, it is generally not recommended as it leaves systems vulnerable to potential threats and unauthorized access.

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30.

What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?
- A.
  
  Digital
- B.
  
  Biometric
- C.
  
  Encryption
- D.
  
  E-mail signing
Correct Answer
A. Digital

Explanation
A digital certificate is a type of certificate that authenticates the identity of the user. It is a digital file that contains information about the user and is issued by a trusted authority. This certificate is used to verify the identity of the user in online transactions and communications. It provides a secure way to ensure that the user is who they claim to be, protecting against identity theft and fraud.

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31.

What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?
- A.
  
  Set a login ID and password combination for access
- B.
  
  Install biometrics and encryption certificates
- C.
  
  Place a lock on computer
- D.
  
  Store in locked case
Correct Answer
A. Set a login ID and password combination for access

Explanation
The first line of defense in securing laptops is to set a login ID and password combination for access. This helps to prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing the laptop and its data. By requiring a unique login ID and a strong password, the laptop becomes more secure and less vulnerable to potential threats.

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32.

The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is
- A.
  
  Having information ready when needed
- B.
  
  Not being able to deny who performed network actions
- C.
  
  The protection of the network from those not authorized access
- D.
  
  The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission
Correct Answer
D. The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission

Explanation
Integrity in the context of identification, authentication, and encryption refers to the assurance that no unauthorized individual has tampered with or destroyed information without proper permission. It ensures that the data remains intact and unaltered, maintaining its accuracy and reliability. This is crucial for maintaining the trustworthiness and security of a network, as it prevents unauthorized modifications or destruction of sensitive information.

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33.

What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?
- A.
  
  2000
- B.
  
  3000
- C.
  
  7000
- D.
  
  8000
Correct Answer
C. 7000

Explanation
The Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers various aspects of security in the Air Force. In this case, the question specifically asks about emission security (EMSEC). The correct answer is 7000 because AFSSI 7000 specifically focuses on EMSEC, which involves protecting against unauthorized disclosure of information through unintentional electromagnetic emissions. This instruction provides guidelines and procedures for managing and mitigating the risks associated with electromagnetic emissions and ensuring the security of Air Force systems.

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34.

Which AF System Security Instruction (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of DOD's TEMPEST program?
- A.
  
  7700
- B.
  
  7701
- C.
  
  7702
- D.
  
  7703
Correct Answer
A. 7700

Explanation
AFSSI 7700 provides the overall implementation of DOD's TEMPEST program. TEMPEST is a program that ensures the security of electronic equipment from electromagnetic radiation emissions. AFSSI 7700 outlines the policies and procedures for protecting classified information from potential eavesdropping or compromise through electromagnetic signals. It establishes standards for the design, construction, and operation of secure facilities and equipment to prevent the leakage of classified information.

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35.

Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility and equipment testing?
- A.
  
  Zoning
- B.
  
  Shielding
- C.
  
  Suppression
- D.
  
  Profile matching
Correct Answer
A. Zoning

Explanation
Zoning is the method of containing radiated emanations that requires both facility and equipment testing. This involves dividing the area into different zones based on the level of radiated emissions and conducting tests to ensure that the emissions are contained within acceptable limits. This method ensures that sensitive equipment and facilities are protected from the harmful effects of radiated emanations. Shielding, suppression, and profile matching are other methods of containing radiated emanations, but they do not necessarily require facility and equipment testing.

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36.

A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone
- A.
  
  A
- B.
  
  B
- C.
  
  C
- D.
  
  D
Correct Answer
B. B

Explanation
A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone.

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37.

Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone
- A.
  
  A
- B.
  
  B
- C.
  
  C
- D.
  
  D
Correct Answer
C. C

Explanation
Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in the equipment zone C. This means that the equipment is within the range where it can potentially emit electromagnetic radiation that could be intercepted and exploited by an adversary. It is important to be aware of this zone and take appropriate measures to protect sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access or eavesdropping.

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38.

Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?
- A.
  
  It requires Department of Defense (DOD) approval
- B.
  
  It requires certification
- C.
  
  It is time consuming
- D.
  
  It is expensive
Correct Answer
D. It is expensive

Explanation
The use of TEMPEST-certified equipment must be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space because it is expensive. This suggests that there are costs associated with the validation process, which may include the certification of the equipment and any additional expenses required to ensure compliance with TEMPEST standards. This validation process helps to ensure that the equipment meets the necessary security requirements and is therefore worth the investment.

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39.

What plays a major role in a conductor's ability to minimizing compromising emanations?
- A.
  
  Distance and angle
- B.
  
  Distance and separation
- C.
  
  Induction and grounding
- D.
  
  Induction and impedance
Correct Answer
A. Distance and angle

Explanation
The ability to minimize compromising emanations in a conductor is influenced by both distance and angle. Distance refers to the physical separation between the conductor and potential sources of interference, while angle refers to the orientation or direction of the conductor in relation to these sources. By increasing the distance and adjusting the angle appropriately, the conductor can reduce the likelihood of electromagnetic interference and maintain better signal integrity.

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40.

Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in electronic or electrical form. What equipment should be designated as RED?
- A.
  
  Equipment processing clear-text confidential information
- B.
  
  Equipment processing clear-text unclassified information
- C.
  
  Equipment processing encrypted classified information
- D.
  
  Equipment processing clear-text classified information
Correct Answer
D. Equipment processing clear-text classified information

Explanation
Equipment that processes clear-text classified information should be designated as RED. This means that the equipment is involved in handling sensitive information that is not encrypted and is classified as confidential.

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41.

What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?
- A.
  
  Equipment processing unencrypted classified information
- B.
  
  Equipment processing encrypted classified information
- C.
  
  Equipment processing clear-text classified information
- D.
  
  Equipment processing plaintext classified information
Correct Answer
B. Equipment processing encrypted classified information

Explanation
The equipment that should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts is the one processing encrypted classified information. This is because BLACK is typically used to represent equipment that handles sensitive and classified information, and encryption is a crucial aspect of protecting classified data from unauthorized access or interception.

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42.

Which type of separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device?
- A.
  
  Physical
- B.
  
  Electrical
- C.
  
  Equipment
- D.
  
  Mechanical
Correct Answer
B. Electrical

Explanation
Electrical separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device. This means that the electrical signals are isolated and protected from unauthorized access or interference when transitioning between the two types of devices. By implementing electrical separation, the integrity and confidentiality of the signals are maintained, enhancing the security of the system.

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43.

What is the grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities?
- A.
  
  100 ohms or less
- B.
  
  50 ohms or less
- C.
  
  20 ohms or less
- D.
  
  10 ohms or less
Correct Answer
D. 10 ohms or less

Explanation
The grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities is 10 ohms or less. This means that the resistance between the grounding system and earth should be kept below 10 ohms to ensure efficient and effective grounding. This low resistance helps to minimize the risk of electrical shock, reduce electromagnetic interference, and provide a stable reference point for electrical systems. By maintaining a grounding resistance of 10 ohms or less, military communications electronics facilities can ensure the safety and reliability of their equipment and operations.

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44.

Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?
- A.
  
  Earth electrode
- B.
  
  Fault protection
- C.
  
  Signal reference
- D.
  
  Lightning protection
Correct Answer
D. Lightning protection

Explanation
The facility ground subsystem that uses surge arrestors is lightning protection. Surge arrestors are devices designed to protect electrical systems from voltage spikes caused by lightning strikes. By diverting excess current to the ground, surge arrestors prevent damage to equipment and ensure the safety of the facility.

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45.

Which facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?
- A.
  
  Earth electrode
- B.
  
  Fault protection
- C.
  
  Signal reference
- D.
  
  Lightning protection
Correct Answer
B. Fault protection

Explanation
Fault protection is also called the safety ground because it is responsible for protecting electrical systems from faults and ensuring the safety of individuals and equipment. The fault protection system detects and isolates faults, such as short circuits or overcurrents, to prevent damage and minimize the risk of electrical hazards. By grounding the faulty current, the fault protection system redirects it away from sensitive equipment and provides a safe path for the current to flow, protecting both the system and the people using it.

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46.

Which facility ground subsystem is also called the "signal ground" and controls electrical noise and static in a facility?
- A.
  
  Earth electrode
- B.
  
  Fault protection
- C.
  
  Signal reference
- D.
  
  Lightning protection
Correct Answer
C. Signal reference

Explanation
The facility ground subsystem that is also called the "signal ground" is the signal reference. This subsystem is responsible for controlling electrical noise and static in a facility. It provides a reference point for all the signals within the facility, ensuring that they are stable and free from interference.

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47.

Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of
- A.
  
  1 milliohm
- B.
  
  2 milliohms
- C.
  
  5 milliohms
- D.
  
  10 milliohms
Correct Answer
A. 1 milliohm

Explanation
The earth electrode subsystem is designed to provide a low-resistance path for electrical currents to flow into the ground. To ensure effective grounding, the bonds in this subsystem should be direct and permanent, meaning they should have a very low resistance. A resistance of 1 milliohm is considered acceptable for these bonds, as it allows for efficient dissipation of electrical currents into the ground. Higher resistances, such as 2 milliohms, 5 milliohms, or 10 milliohms, would result in less effective grounding and potentially pose safety risks.

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48.

What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?
- A.
  
  None
- B.
  
  Brazing
- C.
  
  Welding
- D.
  
  Mechanical
Correct Answer
D. Mechanical

Explanation
Signal reference bonds are typically applied using mechanical bonding. Mechanical bonding involves physically joining two materials together without the use of heat or adhesives. This type of bond is commonly used in electrical and electronic systems to ensure a reliable and low-resistance connection between components. Mechanical bonding methods include clamping, screwing, or using specialized connectors to create a secure and stable bond. This type of bond is preferred for signal reference bonds as it provides a strong and consistent electrical connection.

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49.

What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?
- A.
  
  Bonding
- B.
  
  Shielding
- C.
  
  Annealing
- D.
  
  Grounding
Correct Answer
B. Shielding

Explanation
Shielding is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices. Shielding involves the use of materials or structures that can block or absorb electromagnetic radiation, preventing it from interfering with the operation of electronic equipment. This can include the use of metal enclosures, conductive coatings, or shielding cables to minimize the impact of external electromagnetic fields and prevent interference from affecting sensitive electronic components.

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50.

Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?
- A.
  
  Cable
- B.
  
  Circuit
- C.
  
  Facility
- D.
  
  Equipment
Correct Answer
A. Cable

Explanation
Cable is the correct answer because it is the type of shielding that utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit, or twisted wire around a conductor. Shielding is used to protect the conductor from external electromagnetic interference.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

Current Version
Mar 21, 2023

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Feb 19, 2016

Quiz Created by
Samattes

Z3d152 Volume 1 UREs

Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?

Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?

What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

Which of the following is a core competency of Core Transport Systems?

Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?

Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

When working on electrical circuits, the role of the safety observer is normally performed by the

When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if

To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?

What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?

Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?

How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having what category of vulnerability?

How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC) does the Air Force have?

The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibilities except

Which term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP)?

You should implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except

At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter gateway operate at?

At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a circuit layer gateway operate?

At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?

The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it

Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?

Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?

Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are

Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are

What security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied?

What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?

What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?

The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?

Which AF System Security Instruction (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of DOD's TEMPEST program?

Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility and equipment testing?

A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone

Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone

Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?

What plays a major role in a conductor's ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in electronic or electrical form. What equipment should be designated as RED?

What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?

Which type of separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device?

What is the grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities?

Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?

Which facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?

Which facility ground subsystem is also called the "signal ground" and controls electrical noise and static in a facility?

Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of

What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?

Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?