3D152 Ure Volume 1

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| By Marcus Zhou

Marcus Zhou

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 3,632

Questions: 100 | Attempts: 1,717 | Updated: Mar 20, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

(001) Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?
- A.
  
  Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3)
- B.
  
  Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2)
- C.
  
  Spectrum Operations (3D1X4)
- D.
  
  Client Systems (3D1X1)
Correct Answer
A. Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3)

Explanation
The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3). This career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing various types of transmission devices such as wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite systems. This job requires expertise in working with encryption technology and ensuring secure communication.

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2.

(002) Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?
- A.
  
  Transmission Security
- B.
  
  Technical Security
- C.
  
  Emission Security
- D.
  
  Physical Security
Correct Answer
B. Technical Security

Explanation
Technical Security is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems. While Transmission Security, Emission Security, and Physical Security are all important aspects of ensuring secure communication, Technical Security refers to the protection of computer systems and networks from unauthorized access, attacks, and vulnerabilities. It involves implementing measures such as firewalls, encryption, access controls, and regular system updates to safeguard against cyber threats. However, Technical Security is not specifically related to communications security within Cyber Transport Systems.

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3.

(003) What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
- A.
  
  Core duty.
- B.
  
  Core value.
- C.
  
  Core competency.
- D.
  
  Core responsibility.
Correct Answer
C. Core competency.

Explanation
Core competency is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field. It refers to the unique capabilities and strengths that an individual or organization possesses, which sets them apart from others in the same field. Core competencies are essential for achieving competitive advantage and success in a specific industry or profession. They are the foundation for performing tasks, solving problems, and delivering value in a particular area of expertise.

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4.

(003) Which of the following is a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems?
- A.
  
  Fixed cable systems
- B.
  
  Voice network systems
- C.
  
  Application software systems
- D.
  
  Client-server database systems
Correct Answer
B. Voice network systems

Explanation
Voice network systems are a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems because they involve the design, implementation, and management of communication networks that transmit voice signals. These systems enable organizations to establish and maintain reliable voice communication channels, ensuring effective collaboration and information exchange. By specializing in voice network systems, Cyber Transport Systems can provide solutions that optimize voice communication infrastructure, such as VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) systems, PBX (Private Branch Exchange) systems, and call routing technologies. This expertise allows them to meet the communication needs of their clients and ensure seamless and secure voice communication within their networks.

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5.

(004) Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?
- A.
  
  1118
- B.
  
  457
- C.
  
  55
- D.
  
  3
Correct Answer
B. 457

Explanation
AF form 457 is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk. This form is specifically designed for the purpose of reporting such conditions and ensuring that appropriate action is taken to mitigate the risks. It allows personnel to document and communicate any hazards they encounter, ensuring that necessary measures are taken to protect the safety and well-being of Air Force personnel and property.

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6.

(005) Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?
- A.
  
  Biological
- B.
  
  Chemical
- C.
  
  Physical
- D.
  
  Nuclear
Correct Answer
D. Nuclear

Explanation
The four major types of hazards are biological, chemical, physical, and nuclear. Nuclear hazard refers to the potential dangers and risks associated with the release of radioactive materials or the use of nuclear energy. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that nuclear hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards.

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7.

(005) Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?
- A.
  
  Biological
- B.
  
  Chemical
- C.
  
  Physical
- D.
  
  Stress
Correct Answer
D. Stress

Explanation
Stress is caused by various factors such as heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working alone, and conflict with coworkers and employers. These factors can lead to increased pressure and tension, resulting in stress. Stress can have negative effects on both physical and mental health, affecting overall well-being and productivity. Therefore, stress is the hazard caused by these mentioned factors.

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8.

(005) To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?
- A.
  
  25
- B.
  
  50
- C.
  
  75
- D.
  
  100
Correct Answer
A. 25

Explanation
To prevent manual handling hazards, team lifting should be utilized when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This is because lifting heavy objects alone can put excessive strain on the body and increase the risk of injuries such as back strains or sprains. By utilizing team lifting, the weight can be distributed among multiple individuals, reducing the strain on each person and minimizing the risk of accidents or injuries.

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9.

(005) When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observers is normally performed by the
- A.
  
  Trainer
- B.
  
  Certifier
- C.
  
  Technician
- D.
  
  Supervisor
Correct Answer
D. Supervisor

Explanation
Supervisors typically perform the role of safety observers when working on electrical circuits. They are responsible for overseeing and ensuring the safety of the work being conducted. Supervisors have the authority to enforce safety protocols, monitor the work environment, and intervene if any unsafe practices or conditions are observed. Their role is crucial in preventing accidents and ensuring that all safety measures are followed during electrical circuit work.

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10.

(005) When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if
- A.
  
  The circuit is energized.
- B.
  
  You have a valid prescription.
- C.
  
  They are certified for high voltage.
- D.
  
  They are secured with a nonmetallic cord.
Correct Answer
D. They are secured with a nonmetallic cord.

Explanation
When working on electrical circuits, wearing metal framed eyeglasses can pose a safety risk as they can conduct electricity. However, if the eyeglasses are secured with a nonmetallic cord, it ensures that they cannot fall off and come into contact with the circuit, reducing the risk of electrical shocks or short circuits.

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11.

(006) To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?
- A.
  
  All personnel.
- B.
  
  Only safety personnel.
- C.
  
  Only civilian personnel.
- D.
  
  Only medical personnel.
Correct Answer
A. All personnel.

Explanation
The risk management (RM) process applies to all personnel. This means that every individual within an organization, regardless of their role or department, is responsible for identifying, assessing, and managing risks. This ensures that everyone is actively involved in maintaining a safe and secure environment, making informed decisions, and minimizing potential hazards or threats. By involving all personnel in the RM process, organizations can effectively mitigate risks and promote a culture of safety and risk awareness throughout the entire workforce.

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12.

(006) What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risks?
- A.
  
  Risk control
- B.
  
  Safety control
- C.
  
  Risk management
- D.
  
  Safety management
Correct Answer
C. Risk management

Explanation
Risk management is a simple, systematic process that allows commanders to maximize combat capability while limiting risks. It involves identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks, as well as implementing measures to mitigate or eliminate them. By effectively managing risks, commanders can make informed decisions that optimize their combat capability while minimizing potential hazards and vulnerabilities. This process ensures that the necessary precautions are taken to protect personnel, equipment, and mission success.

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13.

(007) Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?
- A.
  
  Accept unnecessary risk.
- B.
  
  Apply the RM process continuously.
- C.
  
  Train and adhere to safety guidelines.
- D.
  
  Make risk decisions at the lowest level.
Correct Answer
B. Apply the RM process continuously.

Explanation
The principle of risk management (RM) is to apply the RM process continuously. This means that risk management should not be a one-time activity, but rather an ongoing process that is integrated into the daily operations of an organization. By continuously applying the RM process, organizations can identify and assess risks, develop strategies to mitigate them, and monitor and review the effectiveness of these strategies. This helps to ensure that risks are properly managed and that the organization is prepared to respond to any potential threats or hazards.

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14.

(007) How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?
- A.
  
  Four
- B.
  
  Five
- C.
  
  Six
- D.
  
  Seven
Correct Answer
B. Five

Explanation
The correct answer is "Five" because the risk management process typically consists of five steps: risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, and risk communication. These steps are essential in identifying potential risks, evaluating their impact, implementing measures to reduce or eliminate risks, continuously monitoring the effectiveness of risk management strategies, and communicating any changes or updates to stakeholders.

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15.

(008) An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having what category of vulnerability?
- A.
  
  I
- B.
  
  II
- C.
  
  III
- D.
  
  IV
Correct Answer
A. I

Explanation
An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having a vulnerability in Category I. This means that the enclave lacks the necessary security measures to protect against unauthorized access and potential attacks. Without a firewall, the enclave is more susceptible to network-based threats, while the absence of an IDS leaves it vulnerable to detecting and responding to intrusion attempts. Overall, Category I vulnerabilities pose a significant risk to the security and integrity of the enclave's systems and data.

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16.

(008) How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Center (INOSC) does the Air Force have?
- A.
  
  One.
- B.
  
  Two.
- C.
  
  Three.
- D.
  
  Four.
Correct Answer
B. Two.

Explanation
The correct answer is Two. This means that the Air Force has two Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSCs). These centers are responsible for ensuring the security and operation of the Air Force's integrated network systems. Having two INOSCs suggests that the Air Force has implemented redundancy and distributed its security operations across multiple locations, which can help enhance the overall security and resilience of its network infrastructure.

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17.

(008) The Integrated Network Operation and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibility except
- A.
  
  Maintain sole administrative privileges on the firewall.
- B.
  
  Standardize, configure, back up, and otherwise maintain the firewall.
- C.
  
  Maintain a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices.
- D.
  
  Install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).
Correct Answer
D. Install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).

Explanation
The Integrated Network Operation and Security Centers (INOSC) is responsible for several tasks, including maintaining sole administrative privileges on the firewall, standardizing, configuring, backing up, and maintaining the firewall, and maintaining a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices. However, they are not responsible for installing patches or performing any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).

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18.

(009) Which term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP)?
- A.
  
  IP telephony
- B.
  
  Network telephony
- C.
  
  Voice protection system
- D.
  
  Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)
Correct Answer
A. IP telepHony

Explanation
IP telephony is the correct answer because it accurately describes the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP). IP telephony refers to the use of IP networks, such as the internet, to transmit voice calls, allowing for more efficient and cost-effective communication compared to traditional telephony systems. It utilizes the internet protocol (IP) to convert voice signals into digital packets that can be transmitted over the network.

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19.

(009) You should implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except
- A.
  
  Enabling access control lists (ACL) on firewalls, routers, and switches
- B.
  
  Deploying protection from dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) spoofing
- C.
  
  Consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area network (VLAN)
- D.
  
  Enabling port security access to only allow the required devices needed by the client
Correct Answer
C. Consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area network (VLAN)

Explanation
The other three options are valid security features that can help defend IP telephony systems from attackers. Enabling access control lists (ACL) on firewalls, routers, and switches allows you to control and restrict access to the network. Deploying protection from DHCP spoofing helps prevent attackers from impersonating legitimate devices on the network. Enabling port security access to only allow the required devices needed by the client ensures that unauthorized devices cannot connect to the network. However, consolidating voice with data using VLAN does not directly contribute to the security of IP telephony systems. VLANs are primarily used for network segmentation and traffic management purposes, rather than security.

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20.

(009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter gateway operate at?
- A.
  
  2
- B.
  
  3
- C.
  
  4
- D.
  
  5
Correct Answer
B. 3

Explanation
A packet filter gateway operates at the third layer of the OSI model, which is the network layer. This layer is responsible for routing packets across different networks and ensuring they reach their intended destination. The packet filter gateway examines the headers of incoming and outgoing packets and makes decisions based on predefined rules, such as allowing or blocking certain types of traffic. By operating at the network layer, the packet filter gateway can effectively filter and control network traffic.

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21.

(009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a circuit layer gateway operate?
- A.
  
  3
- B.
  
  4
- C.
  
  5
- D.
  
  6
Correct Answer
B. 4

Explanation
A circuit layer gateway operates at the fourth layer of the OSI model, which is the transport layer. This layer is responsible for establishing and managing end-to-end connections between hosts, ensuring reliable and efficient data transfer. Circuit layer gateways specifically handle the establishment and maintenance of virtual circuits, which are logical connections between two endpoints. By operating at this layer, circuit layer gateways can provide additional security and control over the flow of data between networks.

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22.

At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?
- A.
  
  4
- B.
  
  5
- C.
  
  6
- D.
  
  7
Correct Answer
D. 7

Explanation
An application-level firewall operates at the seventh layer of the OSI model, which is the application layer. This layer is responsible for managing communication between applications and providing services such as file transfer, email, and web browsing. By operating at this layer, an application-level firewall can monitor and control the traffic based on specific application protocols, allowing or blocking certain types of traffic based on predefined rules. This provides an additional layer of security by inspecting the content and behavior of the applications.

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23.

(009) The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it
- A.
  
  Can analyze any encrypted data if it is decrypted before reaching the target host
- B.
  
  Consume resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down
- C.
  
  Monitors log files for inadvisable settings or passwords
- D.
  
  Monitors traffic on the host on which it is installed
Correct Answer
B. Consume resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down

Explanation
A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows down the device. This is a disadvantage because it can impact the performance and efficiency of the host system. The HIDS needs to constantly monitor and analyze the activities on the host, which requires processing power and memory resources. As a result, the host may experience decreased speed and responsiveness.

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24.

(010) One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it
- A.
  
  Can decrypt data.
- B.
  
  Uses very few network resources.
- C.
  
  Monitors logs for policy violations.
- D.
  
  Can analyze encrypted network traffic.
Correct Answer
B. Uses very few network resources.

Explanation
A network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is designed to monitor network traffic and detect any unauthorized or malicious activity. One advantage of a NIDS is that it uses very few network resources. This means that it does not significantly impact the performance or bandwidth of the network it is monitoring. By efficiently utilizing network resources, a NIDS can effectively detect and respond to potential threats without causing any disruptions or slowdowns in the network operations.

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25.

(010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?
- A.
  
  Active.
- B.
  
  Passive.
- C.
  
  Host-based.
- D.
  
  Network-based.
Correct Answer
C. Host-based.

Explanation
Host-based intrusion detection systems (IDS) use software sensors to monitor and analyze activity on a specific host or endpoint. These sensors are installed on individual systems and collect data regarding system logs, file integrity, user activity, and network connections. By analyzing this data, host-based IDS can detect and alert on suspicious or malicious activity occurring on the host. This makes them effective in detecting attacks that may evade network-based IDS, as they focus on the activity within a specific host rather than monitoring network traffic.

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26.

(010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?
- A.
  
  Active.
- B.
  
  Passive.
- C.
  
  Host-based.
- D.
  
  Network-based.
Correct Answer
D. Network-based.

Explanation
A network-based intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures. This means that it analyzes network traffic to detect any abnormal behavior or patterns that may indicate a potential intrusion or attack. It also compares the packets against a database of known virus signatures to identify any malicious activity. This type of IDS operates at the network level, allowing it to monitor all traffic passing through a network and provide a comprehensive view of the network's security posture.

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27.

(010) Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are
- A.
  
  Active only.
- B.
  
  Passive only.
- C.
  
  Passive and active.
- D.
  
  Neither passive and active.
Correct Answer
C. Passive and active.

Explanation
Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are capable of both passive and active detection. Passive detection involves monitoring and analyzing system logs, network traffic, and other data to identify potential intrusions. Active detection, on the other hand, involves actively scanning the system for signs of unauthorized activity or vulnerabilities. HIDS can perform both these functions, making them versatile and effective in detecting and preventing intrusions on a host system.

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28.

(010) Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are
- A.
  
  Active only.
- B.
  
  Passive only.
- C.
  
  Passive and active.
- D.
  
  Neither passive nor active.
Correct Answer
B. Passive only.

Explanation
Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are designed to monitor and analyze network traffic for any signs of unauthorized or malicious activity. They operate in a passive manner by observing the network traffic and analyzing it for potential threats. NIDS do not actively intervene or take action to prevent or stop intrusions; instead, they generate alerts or notifications for further investigation and response by security personnel. Therefore, the correct answer is "passive only."

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29.

(011) What security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied?
- A.
  
  Default deny.
- B.
  
  Default allow.
- C.
  
  Close.
- D.
  
  Open.
Correct Answer
D. Open.

Explanation
The correct answer is "Default allow." This security posture allows everything unless it is specifically denied. In other words, there are no restrictions or limitations in place by default, and all actions or requests are permitted unless explicitly blocked or denied. This can potentially pose a higher security risk as it allows for greater access and potential vulnerabilities if not properly managed and monitored.

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30.

(012) What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?
- A.
  
  Digital.
- B.
  
  Biometric.
- C.
  
  Encryption.
- D.
  
  E-mail signing.
Correct Answer
A. Digital.

Explanation
A digital certificate is a type of certificate that authenticates the identity of the user. It is a digital document that contains information about the user and is issued by a trusted third party called a certificate authority. This certificate is used to verify the identity of the user in online transactions and communications. It ensures that the user is who they claim to be and provides a secure means of authentication.

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31.

(014) What Air Force Systems Security Intrusion (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?
- A.
  
  2000.
- B.
  
  3000.
- C.
  
  7000.
- D.
  
  8500.
Correct Answer
C. 7000.

Explanation
The correct answer is 7000. The Air Force Systems Security Intrusion (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC). This means that AFSSI 7000 specifically addresses the measures and protocols in place to protect against unauthorized access or interception of electromagnetic emissions from Air Force systems.

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32.

(012) What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?
- A.
  
  Set a login ID and password combination for access.
- B.
  
  Install biometrics and encryption certificates.
- C.
  
  Place a lock on computer.
- D.
  
  Store in locked case.
Correct Answer
A. Set a login ID and password combination for access.

Explanation
The first line of defense in securing laptops is to set a login ID and password combination for access. This ensures that only authorized individuals can gain access to the laptop and its data. By requiring a unique login ID and a strong password, the laptop is protected from unauthorized users. This is a basic security measure that helps prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information and protects the laptop from potential threats.

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33.

(013) The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is
- A.
  
  Having information ready when needed.
- B.
  
  Not being able to deny who performed network actions.
- C.
  
  The protection of the network from those not authorized access.
- D.
  
  The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.
Correct Answer
D. The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

Explanation
The correct answer is "the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission." Integrity in the context of identification, authentication, and encryption refers to the guarantee that information remains unchanged and unaltered, and that no unauthorized modifications or destruction have occurred. This ensures the reliability and trustworthiness of the data and protects it from unauthorized access or tampering.

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34.

(015) Which AF System Security Intrusion (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of DOD's TEMPEST program?
- A.
  
  7700.
- B.
  
  7701.
- C.
  
  7702.
- D.
  
  7703.
Correct Answer
A. 7700.

Explanation
AFSSI 7700 provides the overall implementation of DOD's TEMPEST program. TEMPEST is a program that ensures the security of electronic information by preventing unauthorized access to compromising emanations from electronic equipment. AFSSI 7700 specifically focuses on the implementation of TEMPEST within the Air Force Systems Security Program.

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35.

(015) Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility and equipment testing?
- A.
  
  Zoning.
- B.
  
  Shielding.
- C.
  
  Suppression.
- D.
  
  Profile matching.
Correct Answer
A. Zoning.

Explanation
Zoning is the method of containing radiated emanations that requires both facility and equipment testing. This involves dividing the facility into different zones based on their levels of sensitivity to radiated emanations. Each zone is then tested to ensure that the appropriate level of protection is in place. This method ensures that sensitive equipment or areas are adequately shielded from radiated emanations, minimizing the risk of interference or unauthorized access to information. Shielding, suppression, and profile matching are other methods of containing radiated emanations, but they do not necessarily require facility and equipment testing.

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36.

(015) A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone
- A.
  
  A.
- B.
  
  B.
- C.
  
  C.
- D.
  
  D.
Correct Answer
B. B.

Explanation
A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone. This means that the facility falls within a specific area or zone that is designated for inspection purposes.

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37.

(015) Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone
- A.
  
  A.
- B.
  
  B.
- C.
  
  C.
- D.
  
  D.
Correct Answer
C. C.

Explanation
Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in the equipment zone. This means that the equipment is located within a specific area where the electromagnetic radiation it emits can potentially be intercepted and exploited by attackers. The equipment zone is a designated area where extra security measures are implemented to protect against TEMPEST attacks.

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38.

(015) Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?
- A.
  
  It requires Department of Defense (DOD) approval.
- B.
  
  It requires certification.
- C.
  
  It is time consuming.
- D.
  
  It is expensive.
Correct Answer
D. It is expensive.

Explanation
The use of TEMPEST-certified equipment must be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST Technical Authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space because it is expensive. This suggests that there are costs associated with the validation process, which may include the expertise and resources required to conduct the validation. By requiring validation, the authorities ensure that the equipment meets the necessary standards and can effectively protect against electromagnetic emissions that could potentially be intercepted by unauthorized individuals.

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39.

(015) What plays a major role in a conductor's ability to minimizing compromising emanations?
- A.
  
  Distance and angle.
- B.
  
  Distance and separation.
- C.
  
  Induction and grounding.
- D.
  
  Induction and impedance.
Correct Answer
A. Distance and angle.

Explanation
Distance and angle play a major role in a conductor's ability to minimize compromising emanations. By increasing the distance between the conductor and potential sources of interference, the chances of electromagnetic radiation or interference decreases. Additionally, the angle at which the conductor is positioned can also affect the amount of emanations that are produced. By positioning the conductor at an angle that minimizes the exposure to potential sources of interference, the conductor's ability to minimize compromising emanations is enhanced.

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40.

(016) Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in electronic or electrical form. What equipment should be designated as RED?
- A.
  
  Equipment processing clear-text confidential information.
- B.
  
  Equipment processing clear-text unclassified information.
- C.
  
  Equipment processing encrypted classified information.
- D.
  
  Equipment processing clear-text classified information.
Correct Answer
D. Equipment processing clear-text classified information.

Explanation
The equipment that should be designated as RED is the equipment processing clear-text classified information. This is because RED is used to classify information that is deemed highly sensitive and requires the highest level of security. Clear-text refers to information that is not encrypted or encoded, and classified information refers to information that has been classified and labeled with a specific level of sensitivity. Therefore, the equipment processing clear-text classified information would require the highest level of security measures to ensure the protection of the sensitive information.

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41.

(016) What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?
- A.
  
  Equipment processing unencrypted classified information.
- B.
  
  Equipment processing encrypted classified information.
- C.
  
  Equipment processing clear-text classified information.
- D.
  
  Equipment processing plain-text classified information.
Correct Answer
B. Equipment processing encrypted classified information.

Explanation
The equipment that should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts is the one processing encrypted classified information. This designation is necessary to ensure the security and protection of sensitive information. Encrypting classified information adds an additional layer of security by converting the information into a code that can only be deciphered with the appropriate decryption key. This helps to prevent unauthorized access and ensures that the information remains confidential.

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42.

(016) Which type of separation ensures that every signal conductor from RED device routes to another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device?
- A.
  
  Physical.
- B.
  
  Electrical.
- C.
  
  Equipment.
- D.
  
  Mechanical.
Correct Answer
B. Electrical.

Explanation
Electrical separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device either routes to another RED device or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device. This type of separation involves using electrical means, such as filters or transformers, to isolate and protect the signals from unauthorized access or interference. It helps to prevent the leakage of sensitive information and ensures the integrity and confidentiality of the data being transmitted.

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43.

(017) What is the grounding resistance goal for military communication electronics (C-E) facilities?
- A.
  
  100 ohms or less.
- B.
  
  50 ohms or less.
- C.
  
  20 ohms or less.
- D.
  
  10 ohms or less.
Correct Answer
D. 10 ohms or less.

Explanation
The grounding resistance goal for military communication electronics (C-E) facilities is 10 ohms or less. This means that the resistance between the ground and the facility should be 10 ohms or lower. A lower grounding resistance helps to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the electronics by providing a stable reference point for electrical currents.

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44.

(017) Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?
- A.
  
  Earth electrode.
- B.
  
  Fault protection.
- C.
  
  Signal reference.
- D.
  
  Lightning protection.
Correct Answer
D. Lightning protection.

Explanation
The correct answer is Lightning protection. Surge arrestors are used in the lightning protection subsystem to protect the facility from power surges caused by lightning strikes. These surge arrestors are designed to divert the excess electrical energy from the lightning strike away from the facility, preventing damage to the equipment and ensuring the safety of the facility and its occupants.

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45.

(017) Which facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?
- A.
  
  Earth electrode.
- B.
  
  Fault protection.
- C.
  
  Signal reference.
- D.
  
  Lightning protection.
Correct Answer
B. Fault protection.

Explanation
The facility ground subsystem that is also referred to as the safety ground is fault protection. Fault protection is responsible for detecting and mitigating any faults or abnormalities in the electrical system to ensure the safety of the facility. This subsystem includes protective devices such as circuit breakers and ground fault interrupters that quickly disconnect the power in the event of a fault, preventing potential electrical hazards and ensuring the safety of the users and equipment.

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46.

(017) Which facility ground subsystems is also called the "signal ground" and controls electrical noise and static in a facility?
- A.
  
  Earth electrode.
- B.
  
  Fault protection.
- C.
  
  Signal reference.
- D.
  
  Lightning protection.
Correct Answer
C. Signal reference.

Explanation
The facility ground subsystem that is also called the "signal ground" is the signal reference. This subsystem is responsible for controlling electrical noise and static in a facility. It ensures that all signals have a common reference point and helps to maintain signal integrity by minimizing interference and noise. Earth electrode, fault protection, and lightning protection are not specifically related to controlling electrical noise and static in a facility, making them incorrect answers.

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47.

(018) Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of
- A.
  
  1 milliohm.
- B.
  
  2 milliohms.
- C.
  
  5 milliohms.
- D.
  
  10 milliohms.
Correct Answer
A. 1 milliohm.

Explanation
The correct answer is 1 milliohm. In the earth electrode subsystem, bonds are typically direct and permanent. These bonds are crucial for ensuring a low resistance path for electrical current to flow into the earth. A resistance of 1 milliohm or lower is desired for effective grounding and to minimize the risk of electrical hazards. Higher resistance values can lead to poor grounding and potential safety issues.

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48.

(018) What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?
- A.
  
  None
- B.
  
  Brazing.
- C.
  
  Welding.
- D.
  
  Mechanical.
Correct Answer
D. Mechanical.

Explanation
Signal reference bonds are typically applied using mechanical bonding. This involves physically connecting the signal reference points using screws, clamps, or other mechanical fasteners. This method ensures a secure and reliable connection between the bonded components, allowing for effective signal transmission and minimizing any potential interference or noise. Brazing and welding, on the other hand, involve using heat to melt and fuse materials together, which may not be suitable for delicate signal reference bonds.

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49.

(019) What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?
- A.
  
  Bonding.
- B.
  
  Shielding.
- C.
  
  Annealing.
- D.
  
  Grounding.
Correct Answer
B. Shielding.

Explanation
Shielding is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect them from the effects of interference propagated by other devices. Shielding involves using conductive materials or coatings to create a barrier that blocks or absorbs electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). It helps to isolate sensitive components and signals from external sources of interference, ensuring proper functioning and minimizing disruptions in electronic systems.

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50.

(019) Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?
- A.
  
  Cable.
- B.
  
  Circuit.
- C.
  
  Facility.
- D.
  
  Equipment.
Correct Answer
A. Cable.

Explanation
The correct answer is cable. Shielding in cables is done using braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit, or twisted wire around a conductor. This shielding helps to protect the signal from external electromagnetic interference and ensures better signal integrity.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

Current Version
Mar 20, 2023

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
May 16, 2016

Quiz Created by
Marcus Zhou

3D152 Ure Volume 1

(001) Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?

(002) Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?

(003) What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

(003) Which of the following is a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems?

(004) Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

(005) Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?

(005) Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

(005) To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

(005) When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observers is normally performed by the

(005) When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if

(006) To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?

(006) What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risks?

(007) Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?

(007) How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

(008) An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having what category of vulnerability?

(008) How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Center (INOSC) does the Air Force have?

(008) The Integrated Network Operation and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibility except

(009) Which term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP)?

(009) You should implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except

(009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter gateway operate at?

(009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a circuit layer gateway operate?

At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?

(009) The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

(010) One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it

(010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?

(010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?

(010) Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are

(010) Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are

(011) What security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied?

(012) What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?

(014) What Air Force Systems Security Intrusion (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?

(012) What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?

(013) The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

(015) Which AF System Security Intrusion (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of DOD's TEMPEST program?

(015) Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility and equipment testing?

(015) A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone

(015) Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone

(015) Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?

(015) What plays a major role in a conductor's ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

(016) Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in electronic or electrical form. What equipment should be designated as RED?

(016) What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?

(016) Which type of separation ensures that every signal conductor from RED device routes to another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device?

(017) What is the grounding resistance goal for military communication electronics (C-E) facilities?

(017) Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?

(017) Which facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?

(017) Which facility ground subsystems is also called the "signal ground" and controls electrical noise and static in a facility?

(018) Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of

(018) What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

(019) What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?

(019) Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?