2t357n CDC-ure's Part I

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2t357n CDC-ures Part I - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What AFOSH standard includes general safety information applicable to vehiclemaintenance operations?

    • A.

      91–10.

    • B.

      91–20.

    • C.

      91–30.

    • D.

      91–40.

    Correct Answer
    B. 91–20.
    Explanation
    AFOSH standard 91-20 includes general safety information applicable to vehicle maintenance operations. This standard provides guidelines and regulations to ensure the safety of personnel involved in vehicle maintenance activities. It covers various aspects such as hazard identification, personal protective equipment, fire prevention, electrical safety, and vehicle maintenance procedures. By following this standard, organizations can establish a safe working environment and minimize the risk of accidents or injuries during vehicle maintenance operations.

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  • 2. 

    Which PPE is required when working in the tire shop?

    • A.

      Apron

    • B.

      Helmet

    • C.

      Ear Plugs

    • D.

      Rubber Boots

    Correct Answer
    C. Ear Plugs
    Explanation
    When working in a tire shop, there is a high level of noise due to the equipment and machinery used. Therefore, wearing ear plugs is necessary to protect the ears from loud noises and prevent hearing damage. Ear plugs help to reduce the intensity of the noise and provide a barrier between the ears and the loud environment. Wearing an apron, helmet, or rubber boots may be important for other safety reasons in a tire shop, but the primary PPE required in this case is ear plugs.

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  • 3. 

    AFOSH Standard 91–38 defines a hydrocarbon fuel as any substance that vaporizes andburns

    • A.

      At a set temperature.

    • B.

      For 30 seconds or less.

    • C.

      In the presence of oxygen.

    • D.

      In the presence of nitrogen.

    Correct Answer
    C. In the presence of oxygen.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "in the presence of oxygen." This is because AFOSH Standard 91-38 defines a hydrocarbon fuel as a substance that vaporizes and burns in the presence of oxygen. The presence of oxygen is necessary for the combustion process to occur, as it acts as an oxidizer and allows the fuel to undergo a chemical reaction that produces heat and light. Without oxygen, the fuel will not burn.

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  • 4. 

    What kind of gas is released when charging or discharging a lead-acid battery?

    • A.

      Oxygen.

    • B.

      Chlorine.

    • C.

      Nitrogen.

    • D.

      Hydrogen

    Correct Answer
    D. Hydrogen
    Explanation
    When charging or discharging a lead-acid battery, hydrogen gas is released. This is because lead-acid batteries consist of lead plates immersed in a sulfuric acid electrolyte. During the charging process, the electrolysis of water occurs, resulting in the decomposition of water molecules into oxygen and hydrogen gas. The oxygen is released at the positive plate, while the hydrogen gas is released at the negative plate. Similarly, during discharge, the reverse reaction takes place, with hydrogen being released as the battery produces electrical energy.

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  • 5. 

    What is considered the major cause of back injuries on the job?

    • A.

      Improper lifting techniques.

    • B.

      Constant stooping and bending.

    • C.

      Constant handling of heavy loads.

    • D.

      Failure to use back protection devices.

    Correct Answer
    A. Improper lifting techniques.
    Explanation
    Improper lifting techniques are considered the major cause of back injuries on the job. When individuals do not use proper lifting techniques, such as bending at the knees and using their leg muscles instead of their back muscles, they put excessive strain on their backs. This can lead to muscle strains, sprains, herniated discs, and other back injuries. It is important for individuals to receive proper training on how to lift heavy objects safely in order to prevent these types of injuries.

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  • 6. 

    What are the main dangers of painting operations?

    • A.

      Stress reactions.

    • B.

      Flammable vapors.

    • C.

      Explosions and toxic substances.

    • D.

      Asbestos inhalation and asphyxiation.

    Correct Answer
    C. Explosions and toxic substances.
    Explanation
    The main dangers of painting operations include the risk of explosions and exposure to toxic substances. Painting operations often involve the use of flammable materials and chemicals, which can lead to explosions if not handled properly. Additionally, the inhalation or contact with toxic substances present in paints and solvents can cause serious health issues. Therefore, it is crucial to take necessary precautions and follow safety protocols to prevent accidents and protect workers from these dangers.

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  • 7. 

    What is one of the biggest mistakes made by shop personnel when they repair a tire?

    • A.

      Not having the right size replacement tire.

    • B.

      Fail to remove the valve core to deflate tire.

    • C.

      Stripping lug nuts while removing tire from vehicle.

    • D.

      Not making sure another vehicle operator is present to help.

    Correct Answer
    B. Fail to remove the valve core to deflate tire.
    Explanation
    One of the biggest mistakes made by shop personnel when they repair a tire is failing to remove the valve core to deflate the tire. This is an important step in the repair process as it allows the tire to be easily removed from the vehicle and prevents any potential damage or injury. By not deflating the tire properly, the shop personnel may struggle to remove the tire or cause damage to the valve stem. Therefore, it is crucial for them to remember to remove the valve core before attempting to repair the tire.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following air pressure setting is safe for approved cleaning operations?

    • A.

      29 psi

    • B.

      32 psi

    • C.

      35 psi.

    • D.

      39 psi.

    Correct Answer
    A. 29 psi
    Explanation
    Lower air pressure settings are generally safer for cleaning operations as they reduce the risk of causing damage to delicate surfaces or equipment. Therefore, 29 psi is the safest option for approved cleaning operations.

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  • 9. 

    What is the minimum distance (in feet) individuals must be from the refueling shop beforethey are permitted to smoke?

    • A.

      25.

    • B.

      50.

    • C.

      75.

    • D.

      100.

    Correct Answer
    B. 50.
    Explanation
    The minimum distance individuals must be from the refueling shop before they are permitted to smoke is 50 feet. This distance is likely determined for safety reasons, as smoking near a refueling shop could potentially ignite flammable materials and cause a fire or explosion. By enforcing a minimum distance of 50 feet, the risk of accidents and injuries is reduced.

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  • 10. 

    Before entering a refueling shop, what must you do to release static electricity from yourbody?

    • A.

      Ground yourself.

    • B.

      Wear rubber boots.

    • C.

      Wear eye protection.

    • D.

      Wear rubber gloves.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ground yourself.
    Explanation
    To release static electricity from your body before entering a refueling shop, you must ground yourself. This is important because static electricity can potentially ignite fuel vapors, leading to a fire or explosion. Grounding yourself allows any built-up static charge to safely dissipate into the ground, reducing the risk of a spark. This can be done by touching a grounded metal object, such as a metal part of the vehicle or a grounding strap provided at the refueling station. Wearing rubber boots, eye protection, or rubber gloves are not effective methods for releasing static electricity.

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  • 11. 

    Which is the best solution to the increasing volume of solid waste?

    • A.

      Ensure timely collection.

    • B.

      Buy products in returnable containers.

    • C.

      Use disposable things as much as possible.

    • D.

      Reduce source of consumption and recycle.

    Correct Answer
    D. Reduce source of consumption and recycle.
    Explanation
    The best solution to the increasing volume of solid waste is to reduce the source of consumption and recycle. By reducing the amount of waste produced in the first place, we can minimize the impact on the environment. This can be achieved by practicing conscious consumption, opting for sustainable alternatives, and minimizing the use of disposable items. Additionally, recycling plays a crucial role in diverting waste from landfills and conserving resources. By recycling materials, we can give them a new life and reduce the need for raw materials, ultimately reducing the overall volume of solid waste.

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  • 12. 

    Vehicle management is most likely to generate which hazardous waste?

    • A.

      Cyanide.

    • B.

      Mercury.

    • C.

      Creosote.

    • D.

      Degreasers.

    Correct Answer
    D. Degreasers.
    Explanation
    Vehicle management involves the use of various chemicals and substances for cleaning and maintenance purposes. Degreasers are commonly used in vehicle management to remove grease, oil, and dirt from engine parts and other components. These degreasers often contain hazardous chemicals that can be harmful to human health and the environment if not properly managed. Therefore, degreasers are most likely to generate hazardous waste in vehicle management. Cyanide and mercury are hazardous substances, but they are not commonly associated with vehicle management. Creosote is a hazardous substance used in wood preservation, but it is not directly related to vehicle management.

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  • 13. 

    Which office requires businesses to maintain files of Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)for all hazardous material?

    • A.

      Wing Environmental and Safety Office.

    • B.

      Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

    • C.

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

    • D.

      AF Occupational Safety and Health (ASOSH) Administration.

    Correct Answer
    C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
    Explanation
    The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) requires businesses to maintain files of Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) for all hazardous material. OSHA is responsible for setting and enforcing workplace safety and health standards in the United States. The MSDS contains important information about the potential hazards of a substance, as well as instructions on how to handle and store it safely. By requiring businesses to maintain these files, OSHA aims to ensure that workers have access to necessary safety information and can protect themselves from potential dangers.

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  • 14. 

    The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) contains information regarding

    • A.

      Federal regulations.

    • B.

      Authorized personnel.

    • C.

      Base hazardous waste program.

    • D.

      Physical and chemical characteristics.

    Correct Answer
    D. pHysical and chemical characteristics.
    Explanation
    The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) provides information about the physical and chemical characteristics of a substance. This includes details such as its appearance, odor, boiling point, melting point, and reactivity. Knowing these characteristics is crucial for handling and storing the substance safely, as it helps to understand its potential hazards and how to mitigate them. The MSDS also includes information about the substance's health effects, first aid measures, and proper disposal procedures, making it an essential resource for anyone working with hazardous materials.

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  • 15. 

      You should not fill hazardous waste containers more than what percentage?

    • A.

      75.

    • B.

      80

    • C.

      85

    • D.

      90

    Correct Answer
    D. 90
    Explanation
    Hazardous waste containers should not be filled more than 90% because leaving some space at the top allows for expansion of the waste due to heat or other factors, preventing any potential leaks or spills. Overfilling the containers can lead to safety hazards, such as the containers bursting or leaking, which can result in environmental contamination and potential harm to individuals handling the waste.

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  • 16. 

    Why are containers of hazardous waste placed on pallets?

    • A.

      To reduce corrosion.

    • B.

      To easily mark labels.

    • C.

      For easier ground collection.

    • D.

      To expedite ground pick-up.

    Correct Answer
    A. To reduce corrosion.
    Explanation
    Containers of hazardous waste are placed on pallets to reduce corrosion. By elevating the containers off the ground, they are less likely to come into contact with moisture or other corrosive substances that could cause damage. This helps to protect the integrity of the containers and prevent leaks or spills that could further contaminate the environment. Additionally, placing the containers on pallets also allows for easier inspection and maintenance, as well as providing a stable and organized storage system.

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  • 17. 

    How many gallons of hazardous waste may be stored at the satellite accumulation site?

    • A.

      55

    • B.

      75

    • C.

      100

    • D.

      110

    Correct Answer
    A. 55
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 55 because according to hazardous waste regulations, a maximum of 55 gallons of hazardous waste can be stored at a satellite accumulation site. This limit ensures that the amount of hazardous waste stored is kept to a manageable level and reduces the risk of accidents or spills.

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  • 18. 

    Cumulative fines for violating environmental laws can be as high per day as

    • A.

      $30,000

    • B.

      $50,000

    • C.

      $70,000

    • D.

      $90,000

    Correct Answer
    B. $50,000
    Explanation
    The cumulative fines for violating environmental laws can be as high as $50,000 per day. This means that if someone continues to violate these laws for multiple days, the fines can accumulate up to $50,000 for each day of violation. This serves as a strong deterrent to discourage individuals or organizations from engaging in activities that harm the environment.

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  • 19. 

    On what does the success of the environmental and pollution prevention program depend?

    • A.

      Command policy.

    • B.

      Squadron policy.

    • C.

      All personnel.

    • D.

      Vehicle fleet manager/superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    C. All personnel.
    Explanation
    The success of the environmental and pollution prevention program depends on the involvement and commitment of all personnel. This means that every individual within the organization, regardless of their position or rank, has a role to play in ensuring the program's success. Each person must understand the importance of environmental protection and pollution prevention, and actively contribute towards implementing and following the necessary policies and procedures. It is not solely the responsibility of command or squadron policy, or the vehicle fleet manager/superintendent, but rather a collective effort from all members of the organization.

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  • 20. 

    What is the best reason for enforcing waste minimization?

    • A.

      Law says so.

    • B.

      Avoid stiff penalties.

    • C.

      Limited landfill space.

    • D.

      For the preservation of human kind.

    Correct Answer
    D. For the preservation of human kind.
    Explanation
    Enforcing waste minimization is best for the preservation of human kind because excessive waste generation and improper disposal can have detrimental effects on the environment and human health. It can lead to pollution of air, water, and soil, causing various diseases and health issues. Additionally, waste can release harmful greenhouse gases, contributing to climate change. By minimizing waste, we can reduce pollution, conserve resources, and create a healthier and more sustainable future for humanity.

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  • 21. 

    What is the best practice you can follow to help reduce air pollution?

    • A.

      Use nuclear energy for home heating.

    • B.

      Drive early to work to avoid traffic jams.

    • C.

      Use public transportation when practical.

    • D.

      Ride a motorcycle to avoid traffic jams.

    Correct Answer
    C. Use public transportation when practical.
    Explanation
    Using public transportation when practical is the best practice to help reduce air pollution. Public transportation, such as buses or trains, can carry a large number of people at once, reducing the number of individual cars on the road. This leads to fewer emissions from vehicles, which contributes to a decrease in air pollution. Additionally, public transportation systems are often designed to be more environmentally friendly, using cleaner fuels or electric power. Therefore, opting for public transportation can have a significant positive impact on air quality and help combat pollution.

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  • 22. 

    What is considered the key to reducing energy dependency?

    • A.

      Recycling.

    • B.

      Rationing.

    • C.

      Raise prices.

    • D.

      Conservation.

    Correct Answer
    D. Conservation.
    Explanation
    Conservation is considered the key to reducing energy dependency because it involves using energy resources more efficiently and responsibly. By conserving energy, individuals and industries can reduce their overall energy consumption, thereby decreasing their reliance on external sources of energy. This can be achieved through various measures such as improving energy efficiency, adopting renewable energy sources, and implementing sustainable practices. Conservation not only helps in reducing energy dependency but also contributes to environmental sustainability by minimizing the negative impacts of energy production and consumption.

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  • 23. 

    Who assists the LRS commander in overseeing the daily operations of the squadron?

    • A.

      Operations officer.

    • B.

      Logistics manager.

    • C.

      First Sergeant.

    • D.

      Squadron superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations officer.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Operations officer. The Operations officer assists the LRS commander in overseeing the daily operations of the squadron. They are responsible for coordinating and executing operational plans, managing resources, and ensuring the smooth functioning of the squadron. The Operations officer plays a crucial role in maintaining operational readiness and efficiency within the squadron.

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  • 24. 

    What se tion provides oversight of squadron compliance, training, resources, accountabilityand analysis?

    • A.

      Readiness.

    • B.

      Distribution.

    • C.

      Contingency Planning.

    • D.

      Operations Compliance.

    Correct Answer
    D. Operations Compliance.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Operations Compliance because this section is responsible for overseeing squadron compliance, training, resources, accountability, and analysis. They ensure that all operations are in line with regulations and standards, monitor training programs, manage available resources, and maintain accountability within the squadron. Additionally, they analyze data and performance to identify areas for improvement and ensure operational readiness.

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  • 25. 

    What process serves as unit facilities manager?

    • A.

      Customer service.

    • B.

      Systems management.

    • C.

      Resource management.

    • D.

      Procedures and accountability.

    Correct Answer
    C. Resource management.
    Explanation
    Resource management serves as the process that serves as unit facilities manager. This involves effectively managing and allocating resources such as manpower, equipment, and materials to ensure the smooth operation and maintenance of facilities. It includes tasks like budgeting, scheduling, procurement, and coordination to optimize resource utilization and achieve organizational goals. This role requires overseeing the availability, distribution, and maintenance of resources, as well as ensuring their proper utilization and cost-effectiveness.

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  • 26. 

    Who administers the unit awards program?

    • A.

      First Sergeant.

    • B.

      LRS commander.

    • C.

      Operations officer.

    • D.

      Commander”s support staff.

    Correct Answer
    A. First Sergeant.
    Explanation
    The first sergeant is responsible for administering the unit awards program. This role involves coordinating and overseeing the process of recognizing and honoring individuals or groups within the unit for their exceptional performance or achievements. The first sergeant plays a crucial role in ensuring that the awards program is fair, transparent, and in line with the unit's objectives and values. They work closely with the commander and other staff members to identify deserving recipients, gather necessary documentation, and facilitate the awarding process.

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  • 27. 

    This person is aligned under the squadron commander and functions as a key advisor on abroad range of operational, readiness, and enlisted human resource concerns.

    • A.

      First Sergeant.

    • B.

      Operations officer.

    • C.

      Logistics manager.

    • D.

      Squadron superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    D. Squadron superintendent.
    Explanation
    The person described in the question is aligned under the squadron commander and serves as a key advisor on various operational, readiness, and enlisted human resource matters. The most suitable role that fits this description is the Squadron Superintendent. This position is responsible for providing guidance and advice to the commander on a wide range of issues related to operations, readiness, and enlisted personnel. They play a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of the squadron and addressing any concerns that may arise.

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  • 28. 

    This flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and ex cutionof all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal

    • A.

      LGRD

    • B.

      LGRF

    • C.

      LGRM

    • D.

      LGRV

    Correct Answer
    A. LGRD
    Explanation
    LGRD is the correct answer because it stands for "Logistics Readiness Squadron Deployment." This flight is responsible for overseeing and managing all aspects of wing deployment operations, including command and control, planning, and execution. They also handle the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personnel during deployment.

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  • 29. 

    Who is responsible for the effective use of military taxi vehicles?

    • A.

      Taxi operator.

    • B.

      Dispatch Operations.

    • C.

      Operations supervision.

    • D.

      Vehicle Operations manager.

    Correct Answer
    B. Dispatch Operations.
    Explanation
    Dispatch Operations is responsible for the effective use of military taxi vehicles. They are in charge of coordinating and managing the deployment of vehicles, ensuring that they are utilized efficiently and effectively. Dispatch Operations is responsible for assigning vehicles to specific tasks or missions, optimizing routes and schedules, and coordinating with drivers and other relevant personnel. They play a crucial role in ensuring that military taxi vehicles are used in a way that supports the overall operational objectives and requirements.

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  • 30. 

    This section in the Vehicle Operations element coordinates and maintains vehicle masterlesson plans.

    • A.

      Dispatch Support.

    • B.

      Training/Validation.

    • C.

      Dispatch Operations.

    • D.

      Operator Records and Licensing.

    Correct Answer
    D. Operator Records and Licensing.
    Explanation
    This section in the Vehicle Operations element is responsible for coordinating and maintaining vehicle master lesson plans. Operator Records and Licensing is the correct answer because it aligns with the task of managing and maintaining records related to operators and their licensing. This includes keeping track of operator certifications, licenses, and other relevant documentation.

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  • 31. 

    What two sections make up the Cargo Movement element?

    • A.

      Inbound and Storage.

    • B.

      Outbound and Storage.

    • C.

      Storage and Aircraft Parts Store.

    • D.

      Cargo Inbound and Cargo Outbound.

    Correct Answer
    D. Cargo Inbound and Cargo Outbound.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Cargo Inbound and Cargo Outbound. These two sections make up the Cargo Movement element. The Cargo Inbound section involves the movement of cargo coming into a particular location, while the Cargo Outbound section involves the movement of cargo leaving that location. This division allows for efficient tracking and management of cargo throughout its journey.

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  • 32. 

    Which Personal Property section element is responsible for authorizing personal property tobe placed in storage?

    • A.

      Inbound.

    • B.

      Outbound.

    • C.

      Quality Control.

    • D.

      Non-temporary Storage.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inbound.
    Explanation
    The Inbound section element is responsible for authorizing personal property to be placed in storage. This section deals with the process of receiving and accepting personal property into storage. It ensures that the property meets the necessary requirements and is properly documented before being placed in storage.

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  • 33. 

    Which Personal Property section element determines members’ personal property shipmententitlements?

    • A.

      Inbound.

    • B.

      Outbound.

    • C.

      Quality Control.

    • D.

      Non-temporary Storage.

    Correct Answer
    B. Outbound.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Outbound. The Outbound section element determines members' personal property shipment entitlements. This section is responsible for managing the movement of personal property out of a location, including the determination of what items can be shipped and the entitlements for each member. It ensures that members receive their personal property in a timely and efficient manner when they are relocating to a new destination.

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  • 34. 

    Which Personal Property section element is responsible for extensions of personal propertystorage entitlements?

    • A.

      Inbound.

    • B.

      Outbound.

    • C.

      Quality Control.

    • D.

      Non-temporary Storage.

    Correct Answer
    D. Non-temporary Storage.
    Explanation
    The Non-temporary Storage section element is responsible for extensions of personal property storage entitlements. This means that when individuals need to store their personal property for an extended period of time, the Non-temporary Storage section will handle the necessary arrangements and extensions. It ensures that individuals have the necessary entitlements and permissions to store their personal property for longer durations.

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  • 35. 

    Which Personal Property section element manages the Government Owned ContainerProgram?

    • A.

      Inbound.

    • B.

      Outbound.

    • C.

      Quality Control.

    • D.

      Non-temporary Storage.

    Correct Answer
    C. Quality Control.
    Explanation
    The Quality Control section element manages the Government Owned Container Program. This section is responsible for ensuring that the containers meet the required quality standards and are in good condition. They conduct inspections, perform maintenance, and handle any necessary repairs or replacements. By managing the quality control of the containers, this section ensures that the Government Owned Container Program operates efficiently and effectively.

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  • 36. 

    Which element stores and issues weapon system spares?

    • A.

      Storage

    • B.

      Hazmat

    • C.

      APS

    • D.

      PSC

    Correct Answer
    C. APS
    Explanation
    APS stands for Automated Parts System, which is a computerized system used to store and issue weapon system spares. It efficiently manages inventory, tracks spare parts, and ensures timely availability of spares for weapon systems. APS plays a crucial role in the maintenance and readiness of weapon systems by providing a centralized and automated solution for storing and issuing spares.

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  • 37. 

    Which element is a decentralized center that solely supports flight line activities onestablishing and managing supply points?

    • A.

      Storage

    • B.

      Cargo Inbound

    • C.

      Material Management

    • D.

      FSC

    Correct Answer
    D. FSC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FSC. FSC stands for Flight Service Center, which is a decentralized center that solely supports flight line activities on establishing and managing supply points. FSC is responsible for ensuring that the necessary supplies and materials are available for flight line operations. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the efficiency and effectiveness of flight line activities.

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  • 38. 

    Which flight is the single authority and source for maintenance and management of aninstallation’s entire motor vehicle fleet?

    • A.

      Vehicle Operations.

    • B.

      Vehicle Management.

    • C.

      Fleet Management Operations.

    • D.

      Vehicle Management & Analysis.

    Correct Answer
    B. Vehicle Management.
    Explanation
    Vehicle Management is the correct answer because it refers to the single authority and source for maintenance and management of an installation's entire motor vehicle fleet. This implies that Vehicle Management is responsible for overseeing all aspects of the fleet, including maintenance, repairs, and overall management. It is the central entity that ensures the vehicles are properly maintained and managed to support the installation's operations efficiently.

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  • 39. 

    Ho is responsible for the overall management and maintenance of the wing’s vehiclefleet?

    • A.

      LGRV

    • B.

      LGRR

    • C.

      LGRT

    • D.

      LGRD

    Correct Answer
    A. LGRV
    Explanation
    LGRV is responsible for the overall management and maintenance of the wing's vehicle fleet.

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  • 40. 

    Which section in the LGRF is responsible for fuels distribution, storage, and cryogenic andpropellant storage functions?

    • A.

      Fuels Operations.

    • B.

      Fuels Information Service Center.

    • C.

      Cryogenic Production.

    • D.

      Compliance and Environmental.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuels Operations.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Fuels Operations. This section in the LGRF is responsible for handling the distribution, storage, and management of fuels, as well as the storage of cryogenic and propellant substances. They oversee the logistical aspects of fuel supply, ensuring that it is available when and where it is needed. They also maintain the proper storage conditions for cryogenic and propellant substances to ensure their safety and effectiveness.

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  • 41. 

    Which s ction in the LGRF performs waste fuel management and leak detection measuresfor the flight?

    • A.

      Fuels Operations.

    • B.

      Cryogenic Production

    • C.

      Compliance and Environmental

    • D.

      Fuels Information Service Center

    Correct Answer
    C. Compliance and Environmental
    Explanation
    The Compliance and Environmental section in the LGRF performs waste fuel management and leak detection measures for the flight. This section is responsible for ensuring that all fuel operations are in compliance with environmental regulations and standards. They oversee the proper management of waste fuel and implement measures to detect and address any fuel leaks during the flight.

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  • 42. 

    Where can you find specific duties and responsibilities of Vehicle Maintenance?

    • A.

      AFI 24–302 and TO 36–1–191.

    • B.

      AFI 24–302 and AFMAN 36–191.

    • C.

      AFI 24–302, AFI 24–307, and AFI 36–191.

    • D.

      AFI 24–302, AFI 24–303, and AFI 24–310.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 24–302 and TO 36–1–191.
    Explanation
    The specific duties and responsibilities of Vehicle Maintenance can be found in AFI 24–302 and TO 36–1–191.

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  • 43. 

    Who is the focal point for all registered vehicle matters on an installation?

    • A.

      Vehicle Operations.

    • B.

      Operations Supervision element.

    • C.

      Maintenance Work Center element.

    • D.

      Vehicle Management & Analysis element.

    Correct Answer
    D. Vehicle Management & Analysis element.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Vehicle Management & Analysis element. This element is responsible for handling all registered vehicle matters on an installation. They oversee the management, analysis, and maintenance of the vehicles, ensuring that they are properly registered and maintained. They are the central point of contact for any issues or concerns related to registered vehicles on the installation.

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  • 44. 

    The primary responsibility of Vehicle Maintenance is to maintain all vehicles that

    • A.

      Cost over $10,000.

    • B.

      Are assigned to the installation.

    • C.

      Are non-appropriated fund motor vehicles.

    • D.

      Bear USAF/AFEMS registration number regardless of cost.

    Correct Answer
    D. Bear USAF/AFEMS registration number regardless of cost.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "bear USAF/AFEMS registration number regardless of cost." This means that the primary responsibility of Vehicle Maintenance is to maintain all vehicles that have a USAF/AFEMS registration number, regardless of their cost. This implies that the focus is on maintaining vehicles that are registered under the USAF/AFEMS system, rather than vehicles that are assigned to the installation or are non-appropriated fund motor vehicles.

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  • 45. 

    What action should you take when accomplishing recurring maintenance on a non-registered asset that vehicle management has assistance responsibility?

    • A.

      Inform the unit to purchase a contracted maintenance policy.

    • B.

      Load the records in the Automated Fleet Information System.

    • C.

      Load the records in the Registered Equipment Management System.

    • D.

      Load the records in the On-line Vehicle Interactive Management System.

    Correct Answer
    D. Load the records in the On-line Vehicle Interactive Management System.
    Explanation
    When accomplishing recurring maintenance on a non-registered asset that vehicle management has assistance responsibility, the appropriate action to take is to load the records in the On-line Vehicle Interactive Management System. This system is likely used to keep track of maintenance records and manage the maintenance of vehicles. By loading the records in this system, vehicle management can ensure that all necessary information is documented and easily accessible for future reference and assistance.

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  • 46. 

    Vehicles not authorized for services in Vehicle Management are

    • A.

      Non-appropriated fund vehicles.

    • B.

      Those costing less than $10,000.

    • C.

      Assigned to tenant organizations.

    • D.

      Those in allowance source code 048.

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-appropriated fund vehicles.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is non-appropriated fund vehicles. This means that vehicles that are not authorized for services in Vehicle Management are non-appropriated fund vehicles. Non-appropriated fund vehicles are vehicles that are not funded by the government and are instead funded by sources such as fees, charges, or donations. These vehicles are typically used for recreational or welfare purposes and are not authorized for regular services within the Vehicle Management system.

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  • 47. 

    Which statement best describes a Vehicle Maintenance function in support of the UnitedStates Air Force WMP?

    • A.

      Provide manning and training.

    • B.

      Develop mobility and contingency plans.

    • C.

      Determine suitable vehicles for deployment.

    • D.

      Develop the LRS annex to the base mobility plan.

    Correct Answer
    C. Determine suitable vehicles for deployment.
    Explanation
    The Vehicle Maintenance function in support of the United States Air Force WMP involves determining suitable vehicles for deployment. This means that the function is responsible for assessing the requirements of different missions and selecting the appropriate vehicles that meet those needs. This could include considering factors such as the terrain, distance, and specific equipment or capabilities required for the mission. By determining suitable vehicles for deployment, the Vehicle Maintenance function ensures that the Air Force has the necessary resources to carry out its operations effectively and efficiently.

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  • 48. 

    ) An immediate, temporary repair of a battle-damaged vehicle during post attack recoveryoperations is called

    • A.

      Triage maintenance.

    • B.

      Quick reaction maintenance.

    • C.

      Organizational maintenance.

    • D.

      Post attack vehicle operability.

    Correct Answer
    A. Triage maintenance.
    Explanation
    Triage maintenance refers to the immediate and temporary repair of a battle-damaged vehicle during post attack recovery operations. This type of maintenance is focused on quickly assessing the damage and making necessary repairs to restore the vehicle's operability. It is a critical step in ensuring that damaged vehicles can be quickly brought back into service, allowing for continued operations.

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  • 49. 

    Who has overall base level responsibility to ensure the readiness of assigned WRM?

    • A.

      VFM.

    • B.

      LRS commander.

    • C.

      Group commander.

    • D.

      Installation commander.

    Correct Answer
    D. Installation commander.
    Explanation
    The installation commander is responsible for ensuring the readiness of assigned WRM (War Reserve Material). They have the overall base level responsibility to ensure that the WRM is prepared and available for use when needed. This includes managing inventory, maintenance, and ensuring that the WRM meets all necessary standards and requirements. The installation commander plays a crucial role in ensuring the readiness of the assigned WRM and is accountable for its availability and functionality.

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  • 50. 

    In r gard to Vehicle Maintenance, on-scene repair is the goal of which maintenanceconcept?

    • A.

      Minor.

    • B.

      Triage.

    • C.

      Organizational.

    • D.

      Expanded mobile.

    Correct Answer
    D. Expanded mobile.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Expanded mobile." In vehicle maintenance, on-scene repair is the goal of the expanded mobile maintenance concept. This concept focuses on providing immediate repair and maintenance services at the location where the vehicle is stationed or deployed, minimizing downtime and ensuring that the vehicle is quickly back in service. This approach is particularly useful for mobile units or vehicles that need to be operational at all times.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Feb 22, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 13, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    2T357N
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