3S251: Education And Training Manager Journeyman! Airforce Trivia Quiz

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3S251: Education And Training Manager Journeyman! Airforce Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Below is a 3S251 Education and Training Manager Journeyman Airforce Trivia Quiz. If you hold the position, you will be expected to help people learn more about the duties. They will be performing in the air force and the procedures too. How about you give the quiz a try and see how prepared you are for the finals. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What three parts of the work center mission are defined during the analysis phase? 

    • A.

      Manning, purpose, and products.

    • B.

      Purpose, products, and customers.

    • C.

      Purpose, manning, and customers.

    • D.

      Manning, products, and customers.

    Correct Answer
    B. Purpose, products, and customers.
    Explanation
    During the analysis phase of the work center mission, three parts that are defined are purpose, products, and customers. Purpose refers to the overall objective or goal of the work center. Products refer to the specific goods or services that the work center produces or provides. Customers refer to the individuals or entities who receive or benefit from the products or services of the work center.

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  • 2. 

    What training documents can you research to identify specific tasks for the work center?

    • A.

      CFETP, STS, & AFJQS

    • B.

      JQS, SCR, & MTP

    • C.

      STS

    • D.

      TBA or AFTR

    Correct Answer
    A. CFETP, STS, & AFJQS
    Explanation
    The CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan), STS (Specialty Training Standard), and AFJQS (Air Force Job Qualification Standard) are all training documents that can be researched to identify specific tasks for the work center. These documents outline the required knowledge and skills for a particular job or career field in the Air Force. By referring to these documents, individuals can determine the specific tasks and responsibilities associated with their work center.

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  • 3. 

    When performing a needs assessment you must look at...

    • A.

      Contingency tasks and product tasks.

    • B.

      Additional duties and customer tasks.

    • C.

      Special work requirements, product tasks, and customer tasks.

    • D.

      Additional duties, recurring tasks, contingency tasks, and special work requirements.

    Correct Answer
    D. Additional duties, recurring tasks, contingency tasks, and special work requirements.
    Explanation
    When performing a needs assessment, it is important to consider all aspects of the job requirements. This includes not only the regular tasks and duties that need to be performed (recurring tasks), but also any unexpected or unforeseen tasks that may arise (contingency tasks). Additionally, special work requirements specific to the job or industry should be taken into account, as well as any additional duties that may be assigned. By considering all these factors, the needs assessment can provide a comprehensive understanding of the job requirements and help in identifying any gaps or areas for improvement.

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  • 4. 

    What are the two types of questions you use on a questionnaire?(select/check two boxes for the applicable items)

    • A.

      Selection

    • B.

      Supply

    • C.

      Essay

    • D.

      Multiple Choice

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Selection
    B. Supply
    Explanation
    The two types of questions commonly used on a questionnaire are selection and supply. Selection questions require the respondent to choose from a list of predefined options, while supply questions prompt the respondent to provide their own answer. Both types of questions allow for structured data collection and can provide valuable insights for analysis.

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  • 5. 

    Which source usually provides the best information for identifying work centertasks? 

    • A.

      Interviews.

    • B.

      Several sources.

    • C.

      Questionnaires.

    • D.

      Existing documents.

    Correct Answer
    B. Several sources.
    Explanation
    Several sources usually provide the best information for identifying work center tasks because relying on multiple sources allows for a more comprehensive and accurate understanding of the tasks involved. Interviews, questionnaires, and existing documents can all contribute valuable insights and perspectives, helping to ensure that no important tasks are overlooked. By considering information from multiple sources, a more well-rounded and reliable picture of work center tasks can be obtained.

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  • 6. 

    Although generic in nature, the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) lists mandatory and desirable items for the various... 

    • A.

      Positions in each Air Force specialty code (AFSC).

    • B.

      Subdivisions in each AFSC.

    • C.

      Skill levels in each AFSC.

    • D.

      Assignments in each AFSC.

    Correct Answer
    C. Skill levels in each AFSC.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) contains a list of mandatory and desirable items for the different positions within each Air Force specialty code (AFSC). This suggests that the AFECD provides information about the required skill levels for each AFSC, as skill levels are crucial in determining the qualifications and abilities needed for specific positions. Therefore, the correct answer is "skill levels in each AFSC."

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  • 7. 

    The specialty training standard (STS) is part of the...

    • A.

      AF Form 623A, On-the-Job Training Record.

    • B.

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • C.

      Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    • D.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    Correct Answer
    D. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). The CFETP is a comprehensive document that outlines the education and training requirements for a specific career field in the Air Force. It provides detailed information on the knowledge, skills, and abilities required for each job within the career field. The CFETP serves as a guide for individuals seeking to progress in their career and for supervisors and trainers to ensure that training is standardized and meets the needs of the career field. It is a crucial tool for career development and training management in the Air Force.

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  • 8. 

    What qualifications are needed for a person to be considered a subject matter expert(SME)? 

    • A.

      Field expertise and recent job experience.

    • B.

      Time in grade and supervisory experience.

    • C.

      Field expertise and familiarity with the training systems being used.

    • D.

      Recent job experience and trainer skills.

    Correct Answer
    A. Field expertise and recent job experience.
    Explanation
    To be considered a subject matter expert (SME), a person needs to have field expertise and recent job experience. Field expertise ensures that the person has in-depth knowledge and understanding of the subject matter, while recent job experience ensures that the person is up-to-date with the latest developments and practices in the field. This combination of field expertise and recent job experience allows the person to provide valuable insights and guidance in their area of expertise.

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  • 9. 

    When preparing for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, your first step is to review the... 

    • A.

      Applicable training standards.

    • B.

      Unit’s mission statements.

    • C.

      Unit’s training folders.

    • D.

      Management engineering team surveys.

    Correct Answer
    B. Unit’s mission statements.
    Explanation
    When preparing for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, reviewing the unit's mission statements is the first step. This is because the mission statements provide a clear understanding of the goals, objectives, and purpose of the unit. By reviewing the mission statements, the interviewer can gain insights into the specific areas of expertise required for the SME role and tailor the interview questions accordingly. Additionally, understanding the mission statements helps the interviewer assess the candidate's alignment with the unit's objectives and their ability to contribute effectively to the organization's overall mission.

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  • 10. 

    When you develop an MTL, what do you use it to identify?

    • A.

      All 5- & 7-level core tasks

    • B.

      All tasks completed in the work center

    • C.

      Qualification training tasks

    • D.

      Tasks specific to AFSC

    Correct Answer
    B. All tasks completed in the work center
    Explanation
    An MTL (Master Task List) is used to identify all tasks completed in the work center. This means that the MTL includes a comprehensive list of all the tasks that need to be completed within the work center, ensuring that nothing is overlooked or forgotten. It serves as a reference guide for personnel to understand their responsibilities and helps to maintain consistency and efficiency in task completion.

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  • 11. 

    What type of training standard can you use to develop an MTL?

    • A.

      CFETP

    • B.

      AFJQS

    • C.

      AF Form 797

    • D.

      All items listed are correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. All items listed are correct.
    Explanation
    All the options listed (CFETP, AFJQS, AF Form 797) can be used as training standards to develop a Master Task List (MTL). A CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan) is a comprehensive document that outlines the training requirements and career progression for a specific career field. An AFJQS (Air Force Job Qualification Standard) is a document that defines the knowledge and skills required to perform a specific job in the Air Force. An AF Form 797 is a form used to document individual training accomplishments. Therefore, all the options listed are valid training standards that can be used to develop an MTL.

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  • 12. 

    What are the three characteristics of a task?(select/check three boxes for the applicable items)

    • A.

      Observable

    • B.

      Measurable

    • C.

      Achievable

    • D.

      Definite beginning and end

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Observable
    B. Measurable
    D. Definite beginning and end
    Explanation
    The three characteristics of a task are observable, measurable, and having a definite beginning and end. Observable means that the task can be seen or witnessed by others, allowing for accountability and assessment. Measurable means that the task can be quantified or evaluated to determine its progress or completion. Having a definite beginning and end means that the task has clear boundaries and can be marked as started and finished. Achievable is not mentioned as one of the characteristics in the given options.

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  • 13. 

    The publication that contains information about organizations and their mission is the...

    • A.

      Air Force index (AFIND).

    • B.

      Air Force mission directive (AFMD).

    • C.

      Air Force manual (AFMAN).

    • D.

      Air Force instruction (AFI).

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force mission directive (AFMD).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force mission directive (AFMD). This publication is likely to contain information about organizations and their mission since it specifically focuses on the mission of the Air Force. The other options, such as the Air Force index (AFIND), Air Force manual (AFMAN), and Air Force instruction (AFI), may contain information about various topics related to the Air Force, but they may not specifically focus on organizations and their mission.

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  • 14. 

    When you do research for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, the easiest tasksto identify are the...

    • A.

      Normal day-to-day requirements.

    • B.

      Contingency requirements.

    • C.

      Ancillary requirements.

    • D.

      Unique requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal day-to-day requirements.
    Explanation
    When conducting research for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, the easiest tasks to identify are the normal day-to-day requirements. These are the tasks or responsibilities that the SME regularly performs as part of their job. They are the most common and routine aspects of their work, making them easier to identify and understand. In contrast, contingency requirements are tasks that may arise in unexpected situations, ancillary requirements are additional tasks that support the main responsibilities, and unique requirements are specific and distinct tasks that are not commonly encountered.

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  • 15. 

    In researching for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, which form identifiesthe duties required for civilian personnel?

    • A.

      AF Form 1378, Civilian Personnel Position Description.

    • B.

      AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record.

    • C.

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • D.

      AF Form 125, Application for Extended Active Duty with the United States Air Force.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 1378, Civilian Personnel Position Description.
    Explanation
    The AF Form 1378, Civilian Personnel Position Description, is the form that identifies the duties required for civilian personnel. This form outlines the specific responsibilities and tasks that are expected of individuals in a particular position within the civilian workforce. It is used to provide a clear understanding of the job requirements and to ensure that the right individuals are selected for the role. The other forms listed in the options do not pertain to identifying the duties required for civilian personnel.

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  • 16. 

    Questions developed for a subject matter expert (SME) interview should be...

    • A.

      Multiple choice only.

    • B.

      Specific and pertinent to the subject.

    • C.

      Yes and no answer-type only.

    • D.

      Pertinent to the idea and random.

    Correct Answer
    B. Specific and pertinent to the subject.
    Explanation
    Questions developed for a subject matter expert (SME) interview should be specific and pertinent to the subject because this ensures that the interview focuses on relevant and in-depth knowledge. By asking specific and pertinent questions, the interviewer can assess the candidate's expertise and understanding of the subject matter accurately. This approach helps to gather valuable insights and information from the SME, making the interview more effective in evaluating their proficiency and suitability for the role.

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  • 17. 

    When conducting a subject matter expert (SME) interview, you shouldcommunicate on a level which...

    • A.

      Promotes mutual respect.

    • B.

      Signifies the interviewee is inferior.

    • C.

      Implies that the interviewer is superior to the interviewee.

    • D.

      Recognizes the interviewee as a superior.

    Correct Answer
    A. Promotes mutual respect.
    Explanation
    When conducting a subject matter expert (SME) interview, it is important to communicate on a level that promotes mutual respect. This means treating the interviewee as an equal and valuing their expertise and knowledge. It is crucial to create an environment where both parties feel comfortable and respected, fostering open and productive communication. This approach helps to establish a positive relationship between the interviewer and interviewee, ensuring a successful and fruitful interview process.

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  • 18. 

    When asking questions during a subject matter expert interview (SME), speak...

    • A.

      Distinctly and with the correct pitch.

    • B.

      Forcibly and distinctly.

    • C.

      Distinctly and clearly.

    • D.

      Clearly and forcibly.

    Correct Answer
    C. Distinctly and clearly.
    Explanation
    During a subject matter expert interview (SME), it is important to speak distinctly and clearly. This ensures that the information being conveyed is easily understood by the interviewer and any other individuals present. Speaking with the correct pitch may also be important to maintain a professional and engaging tone, but it is not explicitly mentioned in the question. Therefore, the most accurate answer is "distinctly and clearly."

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  • 19. 

    After asking a question during a subject matter expert (SME) interview, what shouldyou do to show you care about the response?

    • A.

      Proceed directly to the next question.

    • B.

      Mentally formulate another question.

    • C.

      Listen to the reply.

    • D.

      Establish good eye contact.

    Correct Answer
    C. Listen to the reply.
    Explanation
    To show that you care about the response during a subject matter expert (SME) interview, you should listen to the reply. This means actively paying attention to what the expert is saying, showing interest and engagement in their response. By listening attentively, you demonstrate respect for their expertise and value their input, which can help build rapport and foster a productive interview environment.

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  • 20. 

    What are the three sections of a questionnaire?

    • A.

      Identification, task listing, and questions.

    • B.

      Identification, task listing, and background.

    • C.

      Instructions, background, and additional comments.

    • D.

      Instructions, background, and questions.

    Correct Answer
    D. Instructions, background, and questions.
    Explanation
    The three sections of a questionnaire are instructions, background, and questions. Instructions provide guidance on how to complete the questionnaire, ensuring that respondents understand what is expected of them. The background section provides context and relevant information about the purpose of the questionnaire, helping respondents to understand the significance of their responses. The questions section is where the actual survey questions are presented, allowing respondents to provide their answers and opinions. This structure ensures that respondents are properly informed and can provide accurate and meaningful responses to the questionnaire.

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  • 21. 

    Once you write the instructions for a questionnaire, what is the next step?

    • A.

      Proof read the instructions yourself.

    • B.

      Rewrite the instructions as necessary.

    • C.

      Include the instructions in the questionnaire.

    • D.

      Have someone else read the instructions and provide input.

    Correct Answer
    D. Have someone else read the instructions and provide input.
    Explanation
    The next step after writing the instructions for a questionnaire is to have someone else read the instructions and provide input. This is important because having a fresh set of eyes can help identify any unclear or confusing parts in the instructions. It also allows for feedback and suggestions on how to improve the clarity and effectiveness of the instructions. Proofreading and rewriting the instructions may still be necessary, but getting input from someone else is a crucial step in ensuring the quality of the questionnaire instructions.

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  • 22. 

    When used on a questionnaire, a closed-ended question...

    • A.

      Allows for additional comments.

    • B.

      Allows for a wide range of answers.

    • C.

      Limits the choice of possible responses.

    • D.

      Requires the respondents to use their own words to describe a task.

    Correct Answer
    C. Limits the choice of possible responses.
    Explanation
    A closed-ended question restricts the possible responses that the respondents can choose from. It typically provides a list of predetermined options or a scale for respondents to select their answer from. This type of question is designed to gather specific and standardized information, making it easier to analyze and compare responses. By limiting the choice of possible responses, closed-ended questions help maintain consistency and ensure that the data collected is easily quantifiable and interpretable.

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  • 23. 

    When developing a master task listing (MTL), to keep it useful, you shouldremember to...

    • A.

      Keep it as simple as possible.

    • B.

      Use it to the advantage of the designer.

    • C.

      Place it in a computer system.

    • D.

      Make it complex and technically accurate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep it as simple as possible.
    Explanation
    When developing a master task listing (MTL), it is important to keep it as simple as possible. This ensures that the MTL remains easy to understand and navigate for all users. A simple MTL allows for efficient task management and minimizes confusion or errors that may arise from a complex or convoluted listing. By keeping the MTL simple, it can serve as a practical and effective tool for organizing and prioritizing tasks.

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  • 24. 

    Which training document shows tasks that are applicable to an entire career fieldand can be part of a master task listing (MTL)?

    • A.

      Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    • B.

      AF Form 623A, On-the-Job Training Record–Continuation Sheet.

    • C.

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • D.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    Correct Answer
    D. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
    Explanation
    The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is a training document that shows tasks applicable to an entire career field and can be part of a master task listing (MTL). It provides a comprehensive overview of the knowledge and skills required for a particular career field and serves as a guide for training and development. The CFETP outlines the training objectives, career progression, and recommended training courses for individuals in a specific career field. It is a valuable resource for career planning and professional development within the Air Force.

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  • 25. 

    Which training document is prepared by Air Force career field managers (AFCFM)and describes a particular duty position?

    • A.

      AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record–Continuation Sheet.

    • B.

      Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    • C.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • D.

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS). This document is prepared by Air Force career field managers (AFCFM) and it describes a particular duty position. The AFJQS outlines the knowledge and skills required for a specific job in the Air Force, as well as the training and education needed to qualify for that position. It serves as a guide for career field managers and individuals seeking to understand the requirements and qualifications for a specific job within the Air Force.

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  • 26. 

    When completing a local training standard, what is an observable and measurableunit of work?

    • A.

      Duty.

    • B.

      Task.

    • C.

      Subtask.

    • D.

      Procedural skill.

    Correct Answer
    B. Task.
    Explanation
    In the context of completing a local training standard, a task is an observable and measurable unit of work. A task refers to a specific action or assignment that needs to be accomplished within a given timeframe. It is something that can be clearly defined, observed, and evaluated to determine if it has been successfully completed. Tasks are often broken down into smaller subtasks or steps to make them more manageable and easier to measure progress. In contrast, duty refers to a broader responsibility or role, while a subtask is a smaller component of a larger task. Procedural skill refers to the ability to perform a specific procedure or technique.

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  • 27. 

    When determining training capability, at what level is the first attempt to resolve alack of training capability made?

    • A.

      Work center.

    • B.

      Unit training.

    • C.

      Base training.

    • D.

      Major command.

    Correct Answer
    A. Work center.
    Explanation
    The first attempt to resolve a lack of training capability is made at the work center level. This means that the responsibility lies with the specific work center to address any deficiencies in training capability. They are expected to take the necessary actions to improve training and ensure that all personnel are adequately trained for their roles and responsibilities. This approach allows for a more targeted and efficient resolution of training issues, as it is addressed at the lowest level possible.

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  • 28. 

    When a question of training capability arises, what base-level tool is available todetermine if there are any local personnel who hold the Air Force specialty code (AFSC)?

    • A.

      Military Personnel data system (MILPDS).

    • B.

      Core automated maintenance system (CAMS).

    • C.

      Training folders.

    • D.

      Personnel records.

    Correct Answer
    A. Military Personnel data system (MILPDS).
    Explanation
    The Military Personnel data system (MILPDS) is the correct answer because it is a base-level tool that can be used to determine if there are any local personnel who hold the Air Force specialty code (AFSC). MILPDS is a comprehensive database that contains information on all active duty, reserve, and guard personnel in the Air Force. It includes details such as rank, job specialty, training records, and other personnel information. By accessing MILPDS, training personnel can easily identify individuals with the required AFSC for specific training purposes.

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  • 29. 

    What training status code (TSC) is used when a training capability problem preventsa trainee from progressing in training?

    • A.

      M.

    • B.

      P.

    • C.

      R.

    • D.

      T.

    Correct Answer
    B. P.
    Explanation
    The training status code (TSC) P is used when a training capability problem prevents a trainee from progressing in training. This means that there is an issue with the trainee's ability to continue with the training, which could be due to various factors such as lack of skills or knowledge, physical limitations, or other obstacles that hinder their progress.

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  • 30. 

    If a training capability issue cannot be resolved at the base level, how do you forward the problem to MAJCOM?

    • A.

      AF Form 2096

    • B.

      AF Form 101

    • C.

      AF Form 623a

    • D.

      AF Form 797

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 2096
    Explanation
    When a training capability issue cannot be resolved at the base level, it needs to be forwarded to the Major Command (MAJCOM) for further resolution. The AF Form 2096 is the appropriate form to use for this purpose. It is used to document and track training deficiencies, and to communicate them to higher levels of command for appropriate action. By using the AF Form 2096, the issue can be properly escalated to the MAJCOM for their attention and resolution.

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  • 31. 

    Who can authorize automation of a specialty training standard (STS)?

    • A.

      Major command (MAJCOM) training manager.

    • B.

      MAJCOM functional manager.

    • C.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    • D.

      Base training manager.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the individual who has the authority to authorize automation of a specialty training standard (STS). This means that they have the power to approve the use of automated systems or processes in relation to the training standard for a specific career field in the Air Force. The base training manager, major command (MAJCOM) training manager, and MAJCOM functional manager do not have the same level of authority as the AFCFM in this matter.

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  • 32. 

    When conducting an initial evaluation on a recent technical school graduate, youshould base the evaluation on the tasks listed in the...

    • A.

      Report of Task Evaluations.

    • B.

      Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    • C.

      Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • D.

      Career field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    Correct Answer
    D. Career field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
    Explanation
    The Career field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is the most appropriate document to base the evaluation on for a recent technical school graduate. CFETP provides a comprehensive overview of the education and training requirements for a specific career field, outlining the tasks, knowledge, and skills necessary for successful performance. It serves as a guide for career development and helps in assessing the proficiency of individuals in their respective career fields. The other options, such as Report of Task Evaluations, Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS), and Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS, may provide additional information but do not provide a holistic view of the education and training requirements for the career field.

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  • 33. 

    When conducting an initial evaluation on a reassigned individual, you determine ifthe individual is still qualified on work center tasks by...

    • A.

      Using only the specialty training standard (STS) to conduct the evaluation.

    • B.

      Matching the individual’s qualifications to the work center requirements.

    • C.

      Evaluating only the individual’s knowledge of the tasks required for the assigned duty position.

    • D.

      Evaluating the individual’s ability to do the task based on the proficiency levels listed in the appropriate training standard.

    Correct Answer
    B. Matching the individual’s qualifications to the work center requirements.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is matching the individual's qualifications to the work center requirements because this ensures that the individual has the necessary skills and knowledge to perform the tasks required for the assigned duty position. By comparing the individual's qualifications to the specific requirements of the work center, you can determine if they are still qualified for the tasks. This evaluation takes into account not only the individual's knowledge of the tasks but also their overall qualifications and suitability for the position.

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  • 34. 

    Unit review exercise (URE) questions are designed to be answered by whichmethod?

    • A.

      Open book.

    • B.

      Closed book.

    • C.

      Open forum.

    • D.

      Group study.

    Correct Answer
    A. Open book.
    Explanation
    URE questions are designed to be answered using the open book method. This means that students are allowed to refer to their textbooks, notes, or any other study materials while answering the questions. This approach encourages students to focus on understanding and applying the concepts rather than memorizing information. By allowing open book assessments, students have the opportunity to demonstrate their comprehension and critical thinking skills rather than solely relying on memorization.

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  • 35. 

    Who normally receives initial evaluations?

    • A.

      PCA & PCS Personnel

    • B.

      PCA & Reassigned Personnel

    • C.

      Initial Formal School Graduates & Reassigned Personnel

    • D.

      Initial Formal School Graduates & Retraining Graduates

    Correct Answer
    C. Initial Formal School Graduates & Reassigned Personnel
    Explanation
    Initial evaluations are typically received by two groups of individuals: Initial Formal School Graduates and Reassigned Personnel. These evaluations are likely conducted to assess the performance, skills, and knowledge of these individuals as they begin their new roles or assignments. It is important to evaluate these individuals at the beginning to ensure they are well-prepared and capable of fulfilling their responsibilities effectively.

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  • 36. 

    Where does the UTM look to confirm the required CDC for each AFSC?

    • A.

      AFECD

    • B.

      AU/A6 "list of AFSCs with CDCs"

    • C.

      CDC catalog

    • D.

      CFETP

    Correct Answer
    B. AU/A6 "list of AFSCs with CDCs"
    Explanation
    The UTM looks to the AU/A6 "list of AFSCs with CDCs" to confirm the required CDC for each AFSC. This list provides a comprehensive record of all Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) that have Career Development Courses (CDCs) associated with them. By referring to this list, the UTM can ensure that the appropriate CDCs are assigned and completed by individuals in their respective AFSCs.

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  • 37. 

    What website allows UTMs to check CDC enrollment date at Extension Course Program (ECP)?

    • A.

      Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD)

    • B.

      Career Development/Student Assistance/Registrar (CDSAR)

    • C.

      Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS)

    • D.

      Training Manager(s) SharePoint

    Correct Answer
    B. Career Development/Student Assistance/Registrar (CDSAR)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Career Development/Student Assistance/Registrar (CDSAR). This website allows UTMs (Unit Training Managers) to check CDC (Career Development Course) enrollment dates at the Extension Course Program (ECP). It is a platform that provides assistance and guidance to students in their career development and registration processes.

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  • 38. 

    Who determines the CDC volume completion order?

    • A.

      UTM

    • B.

      Commander

    • C.

      Trainee

    • D.

      Supervisor

    Correct Answer
    D. Supervisor
    Explanation
    The supervisor determines the CDC volume completion order. The supervisor is responsible for overseeing the trainees and ensuring that they complete their CDC volumes in the correct order. They have the authority to assign specific volumes to each trainee based on their training needs and progress. The supervisor plays a crucial role in coordinating and managing the training process to ensure that trainees complete their CDC volumes efficiently and effectively.

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  • 39. 

    At what month in the CDC enrollment should you request an extension for a trainee?

    • A.

      9

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      11

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    B. 10
    Explanation
    In the CDC enrollment, requesting an extension for a trainee should be done in the month of October (10). This implies that the trainee requires more time to complete their training or project beyond the initial enrollment period. By requesting an extension in October, it allows for proper planning and adjustments to be made to accommodate the trainee's extended timeline.

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  • 40. 

    Requests for CDC reactivations beyond 90 days require what level of approval?

    • A.

      BTM

    • B.

      Squadron Commander

    • C.

      Group Commander

    • D.

      MAJCOM

    Correct Answer
    C. Group Commander
    Explanation
    Requests for CDC reactivations beyond 90 days require approval from the Group Commander. This means that the Group Commander has the authority to grant permission for CDC reactivations that exceed the 90-day limit. The other options, MAJCOM, BTM, and Squadron Commander, do not have the necessary level of authority to approve these requests. Therefore, the Group Commander is the correct answer in this case.

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  • 41. 

    When a unit training manager (UTM) interviews prospective candidates retraininginto Air Force specialty code 3S2X1, what are the two essential qualities the UTM musthave in order to conduct a successful interview?

    • A.

      Common sense and fair judgment.

    • B.

      Technical writing skills and diplomacy.

    • C.

      Experience and at least an Associate’s degree.

    • D.

      The ability to work with people and communicate effectively.

    Correct Answer
    D. The ability to work with people and communicate effectively.
    Explanation
    The UTM must have the ability to work with people and communicate effectively in order to conduct a successful interview. This is because they need to be able to establish rapport with the candidates and create a comfortable environment for them to express themselves. Additionally, effective communication skills are necessary to ask relevant questions, listen actively, and provide clear information about the retraining process. These qualities are essential for the UTM to gather accurate information about the candidates and make informed decisions regarding their suitability for the Air Force specialty code 3S2X1.

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  • 42. 

    Where does an individual apply to retrain into another career field?

    • A.

      Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)

    • B.

      Recruiter Office

    • C.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF)

    • D.

      Virtual Personnel Center (vPC)

    Correct Answer
    C. Virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF)
    Explanation
    An individual applies to retrain into another career field through the Virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF). This platform is specifically designed for military personnel to manage their career and personnel information. It allows individuals to access and update their records, apply for retraining, and explore different career options within the military. By using vMPF, individuals can submit their retraining applications and receive updates on the status of their request. This centralized system streamlines the process and ensures that all necessary information is accurately recorded and processed.

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  • 43. 

    For 3S2X1, who reviews the retraining request application to make sure all mandatory requirements are met?

    • A.

      BTM

    • B.

      HQ AFPC

    • C.

      MAJCOM TM

    • D.

      Recruiter Office

    Correct Answer
    B. HQ AFPC
    Explanation
    HQ AFPC is responsible for reviewing the retraining request application to ensure that all mandatory requirements are met.

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  • 44. 

    Who conducts an interview with the prospective retrainee who wants to enter the education and training career field?

    • A.

      BTM

    • B.

      The Base 3S2X1 FM

    • C.

      Group Commander

    • D.

      MAJCOM FM

    Correct Answer
    B. The Base 3S2X1 FM
    Explanation
    The Base 3S2X1 FM conducts an interview with the prospective retrainee who wants to enter the education and training career field.

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  • 45. 

    What reference is used for the mandatory knowledge and training requirements for an individual wanting to retrain into another AFSC?

    • A.

      AFECD

    • B.

      CFETP

    • C.

      VMPF

    • D.

      PRDA

    Correct Answer
    A. AFECD
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFECD. AFECD stands for Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory. It is a reference that outlines the mandatory knowledge and training requirements for individuals who want to retrain into another Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). It provides detailed information about the qualifications, education, and training needed for each AFSC, helping individuals understand the requirements and prepare for their desired career path within the Air Force.

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  • 46. 

    For required training that is not offered at your base, who authorizes temporary duty(TDY) to personnel to help develop and provide initial training at your base?

    • A.

      Education services.

    • B.

      Unit education and training.

    • C.

      Higher headquarters.

    • D.

      Headquarters, Air Education and Training Command.

    Correct Answer
    C. Higher headquarters.
    Explanation
    Higher headquarters authorizes temporary duty (TDY) to personnel to help develop and provide initial training at your base. Higher headquarters refers to the command or organization that is above the base level and has the authority to make decisions and provide resources to subordinate units. In this case, they are responsible for approving the TDY assignment for training purposes when the required training is not available at the base.

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  • 47. 

    As the base education and training expert, which is not a training program area whereyou provide advice and assistance?

    • A.

      Resolving a unit’s lack of training capability.

    • B.

      Resolving scheduling conflicts between units and training providers.

    • C.

      Clarifying and explaining unit training manager (UGM) problem areas.

    • D.

      Resolving career development course (CDC) problems by scheduling one-on-one study sessions with the trainee.

    Correct Answer
    D. Resolving career development course (CDC) problems by scheduling one-on-one study sessions with the trainee.
  • 48. 

    The two systems of Air Force publications are...

    • A.

      Directive and nondirective.

    • B.

      Directive and standard.

    • C.

      Standard and nondirective.

    • D.

      Standard and specialized.

    Correct Answer
    D. Standard and specialized.
    Explanation
    The two systems of Air Force publications are standard and specialized. Standard publications are those that provide general guidance and procedures applicable to a wide range of Air Force activities. They are designed to ensure consistency and standardization across the organization. On the other hand, specialized publications are tailored to specific areas or functions within the Air Force. They provide detailed instructions and procedures for specialized tasks or operations. Both systems work together to provide comprehensive guidance and support for Air Force personnel.

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  • 49. 

    Which document is considered a specialized publication?

    • A.

      Air Force pamphlet.

    • B.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • C.

      Periodical.

    • D.

      Standard publication.

    Correct Answer
    B. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
    Explanation
    The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is considered a specialized publication because it provides specific education and training guidance for a particular career field. It is designed to outline the required knowledge and skills for individuals in that field, and it serves as a comprehensive resource for training and development within that career field. Unlike standard publications, Air Force pamphlets, or periodicals, the CFETP focuses specifically on the education and training needs of a particular career field, making it a specialized publication.

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  • 50. 

    Which type of publication is directive in nature?

    • A.

      Periodical.

    • B.

      Operating instructions.

    • C.

      Non-recurring pamphlets.

    • D.

      Miscellaneous publication.

    Correct Answer
    B. Operating instructions.
    Explanation
    Operating instructions are considered directive in nature because they provide specific guidance and instructions on how to operate or use a particular product or equipment. These publications are designed to give users step-by-step directions and information on safety precautions, maintenance, troubleshooting, and other necessary details. Unlike periodicals, which are typically informative or entertaining, operating instructions have a clear purpose of providing direct guidance to the users. Non-recurring pamphlets and miscellaneous publications may contain various types of information, but they may not necessarily be directive in nature.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 18, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Makrel321
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