Final Exam Anatomy 2016

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  • 1/182 Questions

     Hormones often cause a cell to elicit multiple responses; this is because_____.

    • The protein kinases are rapidly metabolized into functional amino acids
    • There are thousands of receptors on the cell membrane
    • The receptors bind to several hormones at the same time
    • During protein kinase activation, enzymes phosphorylate many other enzymes
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Final Exam Anatomy 2016 - Quiz
About This Quiz

FINAL EXAM ANATOMY 2016 assesses knowledge of hormonal functions including gluconeogenesis, protein kinase activation, immune development, and hormone transportation. It evaluates understanding of endocrine system impacts on bones, muscles, and thyroid function, crucial for students in medical and health-related fields.

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  • 2. 

    Normal development of the immune response is due in part to hormones produced by the___.

    • Thyroid gland

    • Adrenal medulla

    • Pancreas

    • Thymus gland

    Correct Answer
    A. Thymus gland
    Explanation
    The thymus gland is responsible for the normal development of the immune response. It produces hormones that play a crucial role in the maturation of T-cells, which are a type of white blood cell involved in immune responses. These hormones help in the selection and development of T-cells that can recognize and respond to foreign antigens, thus contributing to the overall effectiveness of the immune system.

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  • 3. 

    Several hormones are synthesizes in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through the______.

    • Hypophyseal portal system

    • Hepatic portal system

    • General circulatory system

    • Feedback loop

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypophyseal portal system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the hypophyseal portal system. This system allows hormones synthesized in the hypothalamus to be transported directly to the anterior pituitary gland. The hypophyseal portal system consists of a network of blood vessels that connect the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland, enabling the hormones to reach their target organ more efficiently. This specialized transportation mechanism ensures that the hormones produced by the hypothalamus can directly influence the secretion of hormones by the anterior pituitary gland.

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  • 4. 

    The major targets of growth hormone are_____.

    • The blood vessels

    • Bones and skeletal muscles

    • The adrenal glands

    • The liver

    Correct Answer
    A. Bones and skeletal muscles
    Explanation
    Growth hormone primarily targets bones and skeletal muscles. It stimulates the growth and development of these tissues by promoting the production of proteins and increasing the uptake of amino acids. This hormone plays a crucial role in bone growth during childhood and adolescence, as well as in maintaining muscle mass and strength throughout life. It also has indirect effects on other tissues, such as the liver, by stimulating the production of insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), which further contributes to the growth and development of various organs and tissues.

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  • 5. 

    Iodine is an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroxine.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Iodine is indeed an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroxine. Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland, and it plays a crucial role in regulating metabolism and growth. Iodine is necessary for the production of thyroxine, as it is incorporated into the structure of the hormone. Without sufficient iodine, the thyroid gland cannot produce enough thyroxine, leading to a condition called hypothyroidism. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?

    • Polyphagia

    • Polycythemia

    • Polydipsia

    • Polyuria

    Correct Answer
    A. Polycythemia
    Explanation
    Polycythemia is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus. Polycythemia refers to an increased number of red blood cells in the body, which is not directly associated with diabetes. The cardinal signs of diabetes mellitus are polyphagia (increased hunger), polydipsia (increased thirst), and polyuria (increased urination). These symptoms are caused by the body's inability to regulate blood sugar levels properly.

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  • 7. 

    Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP?

    • The kidney

    • The heart

    • The spleen

    • The skin

    Correct Answer
    A. The heart
    Explanation
    The heart is responsible for synthesizing ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide). ANP is a hormone that helps regulate blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. It is primarily produced and released by the cells of the atria (upper chambers) of the heart. When there is an increase in blood volume or pressure, the release of ANP helps to promote vasodilation (widening of blood vessels) and increase sodium and water excretion by the kidneys, thereby reducing blood volume and pressure.

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  • 8. 

    Platelets_______.

    • Have a life span of about 120 days

    • Have multiple nuclei

    • Stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break

    • Are the precursors of leukocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break
    Explanation
    Platelets are small, disc-shaped cells found in the blood that play a crucial role in blood clotting. When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets adhere to the site of injury and form a plug, helping to seal the break and prevent excessive bleeding. This process is known as platelet aggregation. Platelets release various substances that promote clotting, such as clotting factors and chemicals that attract more platelets to the site. This mechanism ensures that the damaged blood vessel is repaired and prevents further blood loss.

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  • 9. 

    What is the average normal pH range of blood?

    • 8.35-8.45

    • 4.65-4.75

    • 7.75-7.85

    • 7.35-7.45

    Correct Answer
    A. 7.35-7.45
    Explanation
    The average normal pH range of blood is 7.35-7.45. This range is slightly acidic, as a pH value below 7 is considered acidic. The pH of blood is tightly regulated by the body's homeostatic mechanisms to maintain proper functioning of various physiological processes. Any deviation from this range can lead to health issues, such as acidosis or alkalosis.

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  • 10. 

    Which blood type is generally called the universal donor?

    • AB

    • A

    • B

    • O

    Correct Answer
    A. O
    Explanation
    Blood type O is generally called the universal donor because it does not have any antigens on its red blood cells. This means that it can be safely transfused to individuals with any blood type without causing an immune reaction. On the other hand, individuals with blood type O can only receive blood from other type O donors.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is not a cause of bleeding disorders?

    • Vitamin K deficiency

    • A defect in the clotting cascade

    • Thrombocytopenia, a condition of decreased circulating platelets

    • Excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)

    Correct Answer
    A. Excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
    Explanation
    Excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) is not a cause of bleeding disorders. Bleeding disorders are typically caused by factors that impair the clotting process, such as vitamin K deficiency, defects in the clotting cascade, and thrombocytopenia (a decrease in circulating platelets). PDGF is a growth factor involved in cell growth and proliferation, and its excess secretion does not directly impact the clotting process or cause bleeding disorders.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is not a function characteristic of WBC's?

    • Granulosis

    • Diapedesis

    • Ameboid motion

    • Positive chemotaxis

    Correct Answer
    A. Granulosis
    Explanation
    Granulosis is not a function characteristic of WBC's. WBC's are known for their ability to perform diapedesis, which is the process of squeezing through blood vessel walls to reach the site of infection or injury. They also exhibit ameboid motion, which allows them to move and engulf pathogens. Positive chemotaxis is another function characteristic of WBC's, where they are attracted to and move towards chemical signals released by damaged tissues. However, granulosis is not a recognized function of WBC's.

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  • 13. 

    Hemorrhagic anemia result from blood loss.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hemorrhagic anemia occurs when there is excessive blood loss from the body. This can happen due to various reasons such as trauma, injury, or bleeding disorders. The loss of blood leads to a decrease in the total volume of blood in the body, which in turn reduces the number of red blood cells available to carry oxygen. As a result, the individual experiences symptoms of anemia, such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Therefore, the statement "Hemorrhagic anemia results from blood loss" is true.

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  • 14. 

    Select the correct statement about the heart valves.

    • The mitral valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle

    • The tricuspid valve divided the left atrium from the left ventricle

    • The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occ.

    • Aortic and pulmonary valves control the flow of blood into the heart.

    Correct Answer
    A. The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occ.
    Explanation
    The statement that the AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur is correct. The chordae tendineae are fibrous cords that attach the AV valves to the papillary muscles in the ventricles. They prevent the valves from prolapsing or flipping into the atria when the ventricles contract, ensuring that blood flows in the correct direction and does not leak back into the atria.

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  • 15. 

    The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ______.

    • Pump blood through a smaller valve

    • Accommodate a greater volume of blood

    • Expand the thoracic cage during diastole

    • Pump blood with greater pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Pump blood with greater pressure
    Explanation
    The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to pump blood with greater pressure. The left ventricle is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body, while the right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs. Since the left ventricle has to pump blood to the entire body, it needs to generate a higher pressure to overcome the resistance of the systemic circulation. The thicker wall allows the left ventricle to contract more forcefully, resulting in the pumping of blood with greater pressure.

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  • 16. 

    Tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replaced by connective tissue.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, occurs when there is a blockage in the blood flow to the heart, leading to tissue damage. During the healing process, the damaged cardiac muscle tissue is replaced by connective tissue, which forms scar tissue. This scar tissue helps to maintain the structural integrity of the heart, but it does not have the same functional properties as the original cardiac muscle tissue. Therefore, the statement that tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replaced by connective tissue is true.

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  • 17. 

    A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem.

    • A hormone made in the adenohypophysis cannot influence fertility.

    • FSH stimulates estrogen secretion by ovarian cells; therefore it is not synthesizes by males.

    • The man must be producing progesterone, which inhibits the syntheses of FSH

    • FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.

    Correct Answer
    A. FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.
    Explanation
    FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes. This statement explains the problem because if the man is not synthesizing enough FSH, it means that his testes are not receiving enough stimulation to produce sperm. FSH is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the development of sperm cells, so a deficiency in FSH can lead to infertility in men.

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  • 18. 

    Type 2 diabetics may reflect declining receptor sensitivity to insulin rather than decreased insulin production. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    This statement is true because in type 2 diabetes, the body's cells become resistant to the effects of insulin, leading to a decrease in receptor sensitivity. This means that even though the pancreas may still produce insulin, the body is unable to use it effectively. This is different from type 1 diabetes, where there is a lack of insulin production altogether.

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  • 19. 
    Using the Figure 16.2, math the following hypothalamic hormones with the pituitary hormone targets: Thyroid stimulating hormones - ProProfs

    Using the Figure 16.2, math the following hypothalamic hormones with the pituitary hormone targets: Thyroid stimulating hormones

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. D
  • 20. 

    Regulating hormones from the hypothalamus_______.

    • First enter into the hypophyseal portal system

    • Enter the hepatic portal system, which feeds the pituitary

    • Enter venous circulation and travel to the hear, which pumps the hormone-containing blood to the pituitary

    • Travel by arteries to the pituitary

    Correct Answer
    A. First enter into the hypophyseal portal system
  • 21. 

    Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of ______.

    • Secretin

    • Aldosterone

    • Cortisol

    • Insulin

    Correct Answer
    A. Cortisol
    Explanation
    Cortisol is the correct answer because it is a hormone secreted by the adrenal glands that stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver. Gluconeogenesis is the process of synthesizing glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, such as amino acids and fatty acids. Cortisol promotes this process by increasing the breakdown of proteins and fats, providing substrates for glucose production. Therefore, cortisol plays a crucial role in maintaining blood glucose levels during periods of fasting or stress.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is nor a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?

    • Polyuria

    • Polycythemia

    • Polyphagia

    • Poludipsia

    Correct Answer
    A. Polycythemia
    Explanation
    Polycythemia is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus. Polycythemia refers to an increase in the number of red blood cells in the bloodstream, which is not directly related to diabetes. The cardinal signs of diabetes mellitus include polyuria (excessive urination), polyphagia (excessive hunger), and polydipsia (excessive thirst). These symptoms are commonly observed in individuals with diabetes due to the body's inability to regulate blood sugar levels effectively.

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  • 23. 

    The major targets of growth hormone are _______.

    • Bones and skeletal muscles

    • The liver

    • The adrenal glands

    • The blood vessels

    Correct Answer
    A. Bones and skeletal muscles
    Explanation
    Growth hormone primarily targets bones and skeletal muscles. This hormone stimulates the growth of these tissues by promoting cell division and protein synthesis. It stimulates the production of insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) in the liver, which further promotes bone and muscle growth. Growth hormone also has indirect effects on other tissues, such as the liver, adrenal glands, and blood vessels, but its main targets are bones and skeletal muscles.

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  • 24. 

    When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight-or-flight response, a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome is _____.

    • Renin

    • Angiotensinogen

    • Estrogen

    • Epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Epinephrine
    Explanation
    Epinephrine is the correct answer because it is a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome. This hormone is responsible for activating the fight-or-flight response in the body, which prepares an individual to either confront a threat or flee from it. Epinephrine increases heart rate, blood pressure, and blood flow to the muscles, providing the body with the necessary energy and alertness to respond to a stressful situation.

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  • 25. 

    The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is ______.

    • Hemoglobin A

    • Hemoglobin F

    • Hemoglobin S

    • Hemoglobin B

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemoglobin F
    Explanation
    Hemoglobin F is the correct answer because it is the special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells. Hemoglobin F is different from the adult form of hemoglobin, Hemoglobin A, and is necessary for the fetus to efficiently obtain oxygen from the mother's blood through the placenta. Hemoglobin F has a higher affinity for oxygen than Hemoglobin A, allowing it to extract oxygen from the maternal blood supply more effectively.

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  • 26. 

    When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly happen in the cold of an Rh negative mother?

    • If the child is Rh+

    • If the father is Rh -

    • If the father is Rh+

    • If the child is type O positive

    Correct Answer
    A. If the father is Rh -
    Explanation
    Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when a Rh-negative mother is sensitized to Rh-positive blood during pregnancy, leading to the destruction of the fetus's red blood cells. This can happen if the father of the child is Rh-positive, as the fetus may inherit the Rh antigen from the father. However, if the father is Rh-negative, there is no possibility of the fetus inheriting the Rh antigen, and therefore erythroblastosis fetalis cannot occur in this case.

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  • 27. 

    During the period of ventricular filling______.

    • Blood flows mostly passively through the atria and the open AV valve into the ventricles

    • The atria remain in diastole

    • Pressure in the heart is at its peak

    • It it represented by the P wave on the ECG

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood flows mostly passively through the atria and the open AV valve into the ventricles
    Explanation
    During the period of ventricular filling, blood flows mostly passively through the atria and the open AV valve into the ventricles. This is because the atria are relaxed (in diastole) and the pressure in the heart is not at its peak. The P wave on the ECG represents atrial depolarization, which occurs before ventricular filling.

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  • 28. 

    Tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replace by connective tissue.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    After a myocardial infarction (heart attack), the heart muscle tissue is damaged due to a lack of blood flow and oxygen. As a part of the healing process, the damaged heart tissue is replaced with connective tissue, which forms scar tissue. This scar tissue helps to maintain the structural integrity of the heart but does not have the same functional capabilities as the original heart muscle. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is likely during vigorous exercise?

    • Capillaries of the native useless will be engorged with blood

    • The skin will be cold and clammy

    • Blood will be diverted to the digestive organs

    • Blood flow to the kidneys increases

    Correct Answer
    A. Capillaries of the native useless will be engorged with blood
    Explanation
    During vigorous exercise, the body requires more oxygen and nutrients to meet the increased demand of the muscles. To ensure an adequate supply, the capillaries, which are tiny blood vessels, in the active muscles dilate and become engorged with blood. This increased blood flow helps deliver more oxygen and nutrients to the muscles, enabling them to work efficiently. Therefore, the statement that capillaries of the native useless will be engorged with blood is likely true during vigorous exercise.

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  • 30. 

    Whereas diffusion is more important for solute exchange between plasma and interstitial fluid, bulk flow is more important for regulation of the relative volumes of blood and interstitial fluid. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Diffusion is the process by which solutes move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration, while bulk flow is the movement of fluid due to a pressure gradient. In the context of solute exchange between plasma and interstitial fluid, diffusion is more important because it allows for the movement of solutes across the concentration gradient. On the other hand, bulk flow is more important for regulating the relative volumes of blood and interstitial fluid, as it helps to maintain the balance between the two fluid compartments. Therefore, the statement that diffusion is more important for solute exchange and bulk flow is more important for volume regulation is true.

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  • 31. 

    Chyle is delivered to the blood via the lymphatic system

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Chyle, which is a milky fluid containing fats and lymph, is indeed delivered to the blood via the lymphatic system. The lymphatic system is responsible for transporting chyle from the small intestine, where it is produced during the digestion of fats, to the bloodstream. This allows for the absorption and utilization of the fats by the body. Therefore, the statement "Chyle is delivered to the blood via the lymphatic system" is true.

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  • 32. 

    Lymphocytes reside temporarily in lymphoid tissue, then move to other parts of the body. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system. They are produced in the bone marrow and initially reside in lymphoid tissues such as the lymph nodes, spleen, and tonsils. From there, they can circulate throughout the body via the lymphatic system and blood vessels to reach other parts of the body where they are needed to fight infection or respond to foreign substances. Therefore, it is true that lymphocytes reside temporarily in lymphoid tissue and then move to other parts of the body.

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  • 33. 

    When tissues are inflames, lymphatic capillaries develop openings that permit uptake of large particles such as cell debris, pathogens, and caner cells. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When tissues are inflamed, lymphatic capillaries develop openings that allow them to take in large particles such as cell debris, pathogens, and cancer cells. This is a true statement. Inflammation is a response to injury or infection, and during this process, the lymphatic system plays a crucial role in removing waste material and foreign substances from the affected area. The development of openings in lymphatic capillaries facilitates the uptake of these large particles, aiding in the clearance of harmful materials and promoting tissue healing.

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  • 34. 

    Cancer cells are virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by______.

    • T lymphocytes

    • Pinocytosis

    • Natural killer cells

    • B lymphocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Natural killer cells
    Explanation
    Natural killer cells are a type of immune cell that can recognize and kill virus-infected cells, including cancer cells, before the activation of adaptive immunity. Unlike T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes, which are part of the adaptive immune response and require prior exposure to the virus or cancer cells, natural killer cells have the ability to directly identify and destroy infected cells without prior sensitization. Therefore, natural killer cells are the correct answer for killing virus-infected body cells before the activation of adaptive immunity.

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  • 35. 

    Fever______.

    • Causes the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication

    • Production is regulated by chemical that reset body's thermostat to a higher setting

    • Is a higher-than-norma body temperature that is always dangerous

    • Decreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserver energy

    Correct Answer
    A. Production is regulated by chemical that reset body's thermostat to a higher setting
    Explanation
    Fever is the body's natural response to infection or illness. It is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting, causing the body temperature to increase. This higher temperature helps to create an unfavorable environment for bacteria and viruses, as they thrive at normal body temperature. By increasing the body temperature, the production of fever helps to inhibit bacterial replication and enhance the immune response to fight off the infection.

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  • 36. 

    The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by______.

    • Phagocyte mobilization

    • Vasodilation

    • Vasoconstriction

    • Complement production

    Correct Answer
    A. Vasodilation
    Explanation
    The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by vasodilation. When an area becomes inflamed, the blood vessels in that area widen, allowing more blood to flow to the affected area. This increased blood flow leads to redness and heat as more blood is brought to the area. Vasodilation is the widening of blood vessels, which allows for increased blood flow and is a common response to inflammation.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in phagocytosis?

    • Chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing

    • Ingestion, adherence, chemotaxis, digestion, killing

    • Chemotaxis, ingestion, digestion, adherence, killing

    • Adherence, digestion, killing, ingestion, chemotaxis

    Correct Answer
    A. Chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing
  • 38. 

    Factors that aid venous return include all except 

    • Urinary output

    • Activity of skeletal muscles

    • Venous valves

    • Pressure changes in the thorn

    Correct Answer
    A. Urinary output
    Explanation
    Venous return refers to the blood flow back to the heart from the veins. Factors that aid venous return include the activity of skeletal muscles, venous valves, and pressure changes in the thorax. These factors help in pushing the blood back towards the heart. Urinary output, on the other hand, refers to the amount of urine produced by the kidneys and does not directly affect venous return. Therefore, urinary output is not a factor that aids venous return.

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  • 39. 

    The adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements at any point in time is termed autoregulation.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Autoregulation refers to the ability of the body to adjust blood flow to different tissues based on their specific needs at any given time. This means that blood flow is regulated in a way that ensures each tissue receives the appropriate amount of blood supply required for its functioning. Therefore, the statement that the adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements is termed autoregulation is true.

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  • 40. 

    Functions of the spleen include all of those below except 

    • Storage of iron

    • Storage of blood platelets

    • Forming crypts that trap bacteria

    • Removal of old or defective blood cells from the blood

    Correct Answer
    A. Forming crypts that trap bacteria
    Explanation
    The spleen performs several important functions in the body, including the storage of iron, the storage of blood platelets, and the removal of old or defective blood cells from the blood. However, it does not form crypts that trap bacteria. This function is not associated with the spleen.

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  • 41. 

    Lymph leaves a lymph node via ______.

    • The subcapsular sins

    • Efferent lymphatic vessels

    • The cortical sinus

    • Afferent lymphatic vessels

    Correct Answer
    A. Efferent lymphatic vessels
    Explanation
    Lymph leaves a lymph node via efferent lymphatic vessels. These vessels are responsible for carrying the filtered lymph away from the lymph node and returning it back into the bloodstream. Unlike afferent lymphatic vessels, which bring lymph into the lymph node, efferent lymphatic vessels allow the lymph to exit the lymph node. This ensures that the lymph, which contains waste materials, pathogens, and immune cells, can be transported to other parts of the body for further processing and elimination. Therefore, efferent lymphatic vessels play a crucial role in maintaining the overall function of the lymphatic system.

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  • 42. 

    Chyle is believed to the blood via the lymphatic system

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Chyle is a milky fluid that is formed in the small intestine during the digestion of fats. It is then transported through the lymphatic system, specifically through the lacteals, which are specialized lymphatic vessels in the small intestine. The lymphatic system eventually drains into the bloodstream, allowing the chyle to enter the blood circulation. Therefore, it is correct to say that chyle is believed to enter the blood via the lymphatic system.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following cells is the most critical cell in immunity?

    • Cytotoxic T cell

    • B cell

    • APC

    • Helper T cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Helper T cell
    Explanation
    The helper T cell is the most critical cell in immunity because it plays a central role in coordinating and regulating the immune response. It helps activate and stimulate other immune cells, such as cytotoxic T cells and B cells, by releasing chemical signals called cytokines. These cytokines help to enhance the immune response against pathogens and promote the production of antibodies by B cells. Without helper T cells, the immune system would not be able to mount an effective and coordinated response against infections.

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  • 44. 

    Anaphylactic shock can result from an immediate hypersensitivity where the allergen enters the blood.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Anaphylactic shock is a severe allergic reaction that can occur when an allergen, such as peanuts or bee venom, enters the bloodstream. This immediate hypersensitivity triggers a rapid release of histamine and other chemicals, causing a systemic response that can be life-threatening. The allergen does not need to be ingested or inhaled; it can also enter the bloodstream through injection or direct contact with the skin. Therefore, it is true that anaphylactic shock can result from an immediate hypersensitivity where the allergen enters the blood.

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  • 45. 

    Respiratory control centers are located in the ______.

    • Upper spinal cord and medulla

    • Medulla and pons

    • Pons and midbrain

    • Midbrain and medulla

    Correct Answer
    A. Medulla and pons
    Explanation
    The respiratory control centers are located in the medulla and pons. These regions of the brainstem play a crucial role in regulating breathing. The medulla contains the primary respiratory center, which sets the basic rhythm of breathing. It sends signals to the muscles involved in respiration, such as the diaphragm and intercostal muscles. The pons, on the other hand, helps regulate the rate and depth of breathing by modifying the signals from the medulla. Together, the medulla and pons ensure the proper control and coordination of the respiratory system.

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  • 46. 

    Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ______.

    • Interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid

    • Protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations

    • Warming the air before it enters

    • Humidifying the air before it enters

    Correct Answer
    A. Interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
    Explanation
    Surfactant is a substance that reduces the surface tension of a liquid. In the case of alveoli, surfactant interferes with the cohesiveness of water molecules, reducing the surface tension of the alveolar fluid. This reduction in surface tension helps to prevent the collapse of the alveoli during expiration. Without surfactant, the surface tension of the alveolar fluid would be high, causing the alveoli to collapse and making it difficult for gas exchange to occur effectively in the lungs.

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  • 47. 

    The loudness of a person's voice depends on the _____.

    • Thickness of vestibular folds

    • Length of the vocal folds

    • Strength of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles

    • Force with which air rushes across the vocal folds.

    Correct Answer
    A. Force with which air rushes across the vocal folds.
    Explanation
    The loudness of a person's voice depends on the force with which air rushes across the vocal folds. When air is forced out of the lungs and passes through the vocal folds, it causes them to vibrate, producing sound. The force with which the air rushes across the vocal folds determines the amplitude or intensity of the sound waves produced, resulting in a louder or softer voice. The other options, such as the thickness of vestibular folds, length of the vocal folds, and strength of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles, may have an impact on voice quality or pitch, but they do not directly affect the loudness of the voice.

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  • 48. 

    The main site of gas exchange is the ______.

    • Alveolar sacs

    • Respiratory bronchiole

    • Alveolar duct

    • Alveoli

    Correct Answer
    A. Alveoli
    Explanation
    The alveoli are tiny air sacs in the lungs where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place. They are surrounded by capillaries, allowing for efficient gas exchange between the air in the alveoli and the bloodstream. The alveoli have thin walls and a large surface area, which enhances the diffusion of gases. Therefore, the alveoli are considered the main site of gas exchange in the respiratory system.

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  • 49. 

    The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ______.

    • Alkalosis

    • Increase of carbon dioxide

    • Loss of oxygen in tissues

    • Acidosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase of carbon dioxide
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "increase of carbon dioxide." In a healthy person, the level of carbon dioxide in the blood is the primary respiratory stimulus for breathing. When carbon dioxide levels rise, it triggers the respiratory centers in the brain to increase the rate and depth of breathing, allowing the body to eliminate excess carbon dioxide and maintain proper oxygen levels. This mechanism helps to ensure the balance of gases in the body and maintain overall respiratory function.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 02, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Victoria09

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