2s071 Ure Volume 1 Edit Code 07

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| By Mrvbur

Mrvbur

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Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 1,678

Questions: 50 | Attempts: 572 | Updated: Mar 22, 2023

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1.

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2.

Which materiel management unit type code (UTC) identifies the superintendent bare base support?
- A.
  
  JFBAC.
- B.
  
  JFBBS.
- C.
  
  JFBCS.
- D.
  
  JFBCW.
Correct Answer
B. JFBBS.

Explanation
The correct answer is JFBBS. This materiel management unit type code (UTC) identifies the superintendent bare base support.

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3.

Which unit type code (UTC) provides mobility support and (when required) expeditionary theater distribution center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operating base (MOB), forward operating site (FOS), or cooperative security location?
- A.
  
  JFBDC.
- B.
  
  JFBMR.
- C.
  
  JFBCW.
- D.
  
  JFBMM.
Correct Answer
C. JFBCW.

Explanation
JFBCW provides mobility support and expeditionary theater distribution center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operating base (MOB), forward operating site (FOS), or cooperative security location.

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4.

In order to qualify for assignment under the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program, program nominees must meet all of the following, except?
- A.
  
  Have a 2S071 control Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC).
- B.
  
  Be recommended by their wing commander.
- C.
  
  Have less than 15 years time in service.
- D.
  
  Possesses the rank of TSgt or MSgt.
Correct Answer
B. Be recommended by their wing commander.

Explanation
To qualify for assignment under the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program, program nominees must meet all of the following criteria: have a 2S071 control Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC), have less than 15 years time in service, and possess the rank of TSgt or MSgt. The only exception is that they do not need to be recommended by their wing commander.

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5.

Which notifies the individual selected by the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program selection panel, by message not later than 30 days after selection?
- A.
  
  Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center Materiel Management Functional Manager (HQ AFPC/DPAA).
- B.
  
  Air Force Material Command (AFMC) Air Logistics Center (ALC).
- C.
  
  Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4R.
- D.
  
  Major Command (MAJCOM)/A4R.
Correct Answer
C. Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4R.
6.

Which flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property?
- A.
  
  Logistics operations.
- B.
  
  Command and control.
- C.
  
  Materiel management.
- D.
  
  Deployment and distribution.
Correct Answer
D. Deployment and distribution.

Explanation
The flight responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property is the Deployment and distribution flight. This flight is in charge of coordinating and overseeing the movement of resources and personnel during deployments, ensuring that everything is properly distributed and delivered to the designated locations. They play a crucial role in the logistical operations of the organization, ensuring that all necessary supplies and personnel are efficiently deployed and distributed as needed.

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7.

Which specialized center is the hub for integration and management of maintenance and supply chain capabilities?
- A.
  
  AF Integration and Management
- B.
  
  AF Supply and Maintenance
- C.
  
  AF Plans and Scheduling
- D.
  
  AF Sustainment
Correct Answer
D. AF Sustainment

Explanation
AF Sustainment is the specialized center that serves as the hub for integration and management of maintenance and supply chain capabilities. This center is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the maintenance and supply chain activities to ensure efficient and effective operations. It plays a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary resources and support are available to sustain the operations of the Air Force.

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8.

Which supply class includes ammunition?
- A.
  
  II.
- B.
  
  IV.
- C.
  
  V.
- D.
  
  VIII.
Correct Answer
C. V.

Explanation
Supply class V includes ammunition.

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9.

What best describes supply class VII items?
- A.
  
  Major end items.
- B.
  
  Construction.
- C.
  
  Subsistence.
- D.
  
  Ammunition.
Correct Answer
A. Major end items.

Explanation
Supply class VII items are best described as major end items. This means that they are the primary equipment or systems used by the military, such as aircraft, tanks, or ships. These items are typically expensive and have a long lifespan. Construction, subsistence, and ammunition are not classified as supply class VII items as they do not fall under the category of major end items.

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10.

Which supply class includes all repair parts and components to include kits, assemblies, and subassemblies?
- A.
  
  X
- B.
  
  IX
- C.
  
  VIII
- D.
  
  VII
Correct Answer
B. IX

Explanation
Supply class IX includes all repair parts and components, including kits, assemblies, and subassemblies. This class is specifically designated for repair parts and components, making it the correct answer for this question.

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11.

What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure?
- A.
  
  Supply-chain operations reference.
- B.
  
  Air Expeditionary Forces.
- C.
  
  Unit type code.
- D.
  
  Operation plan.
Correct Answer
A. Supply-chain operations reference.

Explanation
The correct answer is Supply-chain operations reference. The supply-chain operations reference provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure. It helps organizations to align their supply chain processes with industry standards and benchmarks, improving efficiency and effectiveness. This framework allows companies to identify areas for improvement, implement best practices, and measure their performance against industry standards.

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12.

Users can query the materiel management computer system consolidated transaction history (CTH) records as far back as ?
- A.
  
  One month.
- B.
  
  Three months.
- C.
  
  Six months.
- D.
  
  One year.
Correct Answer
D. One year.

Explanation
The correct answer is one year. This means that users can query the consolidated transaction history (CTH) records of the material management computer system for a period of up to one year. This allows them to access and retrieve transaction data that occurred within the past twelve months.

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13.

Which releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?
- A.
  
  C
- B.
  
  D
- C.
  
  F
- D.
  
  R
Correct Answer
D. R

Explanation
The correct answer is R. The "R" flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry to provide a summary of information about a given stock number. This flag indicates that the inquiry is requesting information related to the requirements of the stock number, such as the quantity needed, the due date, and any outstanding orders or backorders. This flag helps to streamline the inquiry process and provide a concise summary of the stock number's requirements.

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14.

In Discoverer, what is a logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to a specific data requirements?
- A.
  
  Joins
- B.
  
  Sorts
- C.
  
  Reports
- D.
  
  Business areas
Correct Answer
D. Business areas

Explanation
A logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to a specific data requirement is referred to as a "business area" in Discoverer. This allows users to easily access and analyze the relevant data for their specific needs. Business areas provide a way to organize and structure the database tables and views, making it easier for users to navigate and find the information they need.

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15.

What type of Join is based on a one-to-one, one-to-many, or one-to-none relationship?
- A.
  
  Multiple
- B.
  
  Cross
- C.
  
  Outer
- D.
  
  Inner
Correct Answer
C. Outer

Explanation
Outer join is based on a one-to-one, one-to-many, or one-to-none relationship. It includes all the rows from one table and the matching rows from the other table(s), and also includes the unmatched rows from one or both tables. In other words, it returns all the rows from one table and the matching rows from the other table(s), and if there is no match, it includes NULL values in the result set.

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16.

What is the tool called when given the ability to track the identity, status, and location of Department of Defense units, and non-unit cargo (excluding bulk petroleum, oils, and lubricants) and passengers; medical patients; and personal property from origin to consignee or destination across the range of military operations?
- A.
  
  In-transit visibility (ITV).
- B.
  
  Global Transportation Network (GTN).
- C.
  
  Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).
- D.
  
  Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).
Correct Answer
A. In-transit visibility (ITV).

Explanation
In-transit visibility (ITV) is the correct answer because it accurately describes the tool that provides the ability to track the identity, status, and location of Department of Defense units, non-unit cargo, passengers, medical patients, and personal property from origin to consignee or destination across military operations. The other options, Global Transportation Network (GTN), Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS), and Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES), do not encompass all the mentioned aspects of tracking and visibility.

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17.

What is identified as a web-based automated command and control information system that supports the family of transportation users and providers—both DOD and commercial, by providing an integrated system of in-transit visibility information and command and control capabilities?
- A.
  
  Global Transportation Network (GTN).
- B.
  
  Global Decision Support System (GDSS).
- C.
  
  Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).
- D.
  
  Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).
Correct Answer
A. Global Transportation Network (GTN).

Explanation
The correct answer is Global Transportation Network (GTN). GTN is a web-based automated command and control information system that supports transportation users and providers, both military (DOD) and commercial. It provides an integrated system of in-transit visibility information and command and control capabilities.

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18.

What Air Mobility Command (AMC) force level command and control (C2) system supports Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management?
- A.
  
  Global Transportation Network (GTN).
- B.
  
  Global Decision Support System (GDSS).
- C.
  
  Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).
- D.
  
  Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).
Correct Answer
B. Global Decision Support System (GDSS).

Explanation
The Global Decision Support System (GDSS) supports the Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management. GDSS is a command and control (C2) system within the Air Mobility Command (AMC) force level that provides decision support tools and capabilities for planning, scheduling, and executing airlift missions. It enables TACC to effectively manage and control the movement of cargo and personnel by providing real-time information, situational awareness, and analysis tools. GDSS helps optimize the allocation of resources, enhances mission planning, and improves overall mission execution for the AMC.

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19.

What system provides hazardous materiel managers oversight of orders placed in the materiel management system to ensure only minimum amounts of material required are ordered and that material ordered is used only for its authorized purpose?
- A.
  
  Asset Visibility.
- B.
  
  Air Force Hazardous Material.
- C.
  
  Hazardous Material Information Resource.
- D.
  
  Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information.
Correct Answer
D. Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information.

Explanation
The correct answer is Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information. This system provides hazardous material managers with oversight of orders placed in the materiel management system to ensure that only minimum amounts of material required are ordered and that the material ordered is used only for its authorized purpose. It helps in maintaining safety and occupational health standards by monitoring and controlling the use of hazardous materials.

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20.

What organization is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty report?
- A.
  
  Receiving Element.
- B.
  
  Customer Support Element.
- C.
  
  Equipment Management Element.
- D.
  
  AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity.
Correct Answer
D. AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity.

Explanation
The AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty reports. This organization ensures that any issues or problems with equipment or processes are reported and addressed in a timely manner. They play a crucial role in maintaining the quality and reliability of the organization's operations by monitoring and resolving difficulties as they arise.

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21.

Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating?
- A.
  
  I
- B.
  
  II
- C.
  
  III
- D.
  
  IV
Correct Answer
A. I

Explanation
The correct answer is I. In this category, problems related to system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating are addressed. This category is specifically assigned to address these types of issues.

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22.

Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records?
- A.
  
  I
- B.
  
  II
- C.
  
  III
- D.
  
  IV
Correct Answer
B. II

Explanation
Category II is assigned when a problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records. This means that the computer is unable to continue its normal operations due to the problem, but it does not result in any major data loss or corruption. This category indicates a significant issue that needs to be addressed, but it is not as severe as Category III or IV.

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23.

A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and is corrected ?
- A.
  
  Over the telephone with the materiel management system control center.
- B.
  
  On an Air Force suggestion form.
- C.
  
  In the next scheduled release.
- D.
  
  As workload permits.
Correct Answer
C. In the next scheduled release.

Explanation
A category III difficulty report (DIREP) is a report that identifies a non-critical issue or problem with a system or equipment. These reports do not require immediate action and can be addressed in the next scheduled release. This means that the correction for the reported problem will be included in the next update or release of the system or equipment. It indicates that the issue will be resolved in a timely manner, but not immediately or on-demand.

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24.

Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when there are misspelled words and other minor program deficiencies?
- A.
  
  I
- B.
  
  II
- C.
  
  III
- D.
  
  IV
Correct Answer
D. IV

Explanation
Category IV is assigned when there are misspelled words and other minor program deficiencies. This category is used for issues that do not significantly impact the functionality or usability of the program, but still need to be addressed. These minor deficiencies may include spelling errors, small formatting issues, or other minor bugs that do not affect the overall performance of the program. Category IV is typically used for low-priority issues that can be easily fixed and do not require immediate attention.

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25.

Where do you start your research before you conduct a surveillance visit of a function?
- A.
  
  Base supply reports and records
- B.
  
  Function’s last surveillance report
- C.
  
  Function’s unit manning document
- D.
  
  Directives that apply to the function
Correct Answer
D. Directives that apply to the function

Explanation
Before conducting a surveillance visit of a function, it is important to start the research by reviewing the directives that apply to the function. This is because directives provide specific instructions and guidelines that need to be followed during the surveillance visit. By understanding and familiarizing oneself with the applicable directives, one can ensure that the visit is conducted in accordance with the established procedures and requirements. This will help in effectively assessing the function and identifying any areas that may require improvement or corrective action.

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26.

Which is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable office function?
- A.
  
  Check in and out with the flight chief.
- B.
  
  Submit a written report within 15 workdays of the exit briefing.
- C.
  
  Follow the standard Air Force directive for conducting such a visit.
- D.
  
  Bypass areas that have not had deficiencies within the past three years.
Correct Answer
A. Check in and out with the flight chief.

Explanation
The correct answer is "Check in and out with the flight chief." This is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable office function because checking in and out with the flight chief ensures that the visit is properly documented and that the necessary permissions and protocols are followed. It also helps in maintaining accountability and coordination with the responsible authority during the visit.

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27.

A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within how many days of the date on the surveillance report?
- A.
  
  7
- B.
  
  10
- C.
  
  15
- D.
  
  30
Correct Answer
C. 15

Explanation
A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within 15 days of the date on the surveillance report. This time frame allows for a reasonable amount of time for the function to review the report and provide a response. It ensures that any necessary actions or follow-ups can be taken in a timely manner.

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28.

What organization is the primary point of contact for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander?
- A.
  
  Quality assurance
- B.
  
  Customer service
- C.
  
  Computer operations
- D.
  
  Receiving section
Correct Answer
A. Quality assurance

Explanation
Quality assurance is the organization that serves as the primary point of contact for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander. They are responsible for ensuring that products and services meet the required standards and specifications. They assess and monitor the quality of processes, procedures, and products to identify any deficiencies and recommend improvements. By being the primary point of contact, quality assurance can effectively address any special topics or concerns related to materiel management or logistics readiness.

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29.

An effective analysis program must be based on ?
- A.
  
  Mission requirements
- B.
  
  Management seminars
- C.
  
  Organizational objectives
- D.
  
  The analysis of operating instructions
Correct Answer
C. Organizational objectives

Explanation
An effective analysis program must be based on organizational objectives. This means that the program should align with the goals and targets set by the organization. By focusing on organizational objectives, the analysis program can ensure that it addresses the specific needs and priorities of the organization, leading to more relevant and impactful results. It allows the program to be tailored to the organization's unique circumstances and requirements, ultimately enhancing its effectiveness in driving desired outcomes.

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30.

What type of analysis identifies favorable or unfavorable deviations when compared to established factors, standards, and norms?
- A.
  
  Trend
- B.
  
  Problem
- C.
  
  Important
- D.
  
  Performance
Correct Answer
A. Trend

Explanation
Trend analysis involves comparing current data with established factors, standards, and norms to identify favorable or unfavorable deviations. This type of analysis helps to track patterns and identify any significant changes or trends over time. By analyzing trends, organizations can gain insights into their performance and make informed decisions to improve their operations. Therefore, trend analysis is the most suitable option for identifying favorable or unfavorable deviations when compared to established factors, standards, and norms.

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31.

What item(s) are needed by quality assurance to perform an analysis?
- A.
  
  Inquiry results.
- B.
  
  Difficulty reports.
- C.
  
  Problem and trend analysis.
- D.
  
  Statistics and source documents.
Correct Answer
D. Statistics and source documents.

Explanation
Quality assurance needs statistics and source documents to perform an analysis. These documents provide the necessary data and information for the analysis process. Statistics help in quantifying and analyzing the performance and quality metrics, while source documents provide the relevant information and context for understanding the analysis. By using statistics and source documents, quality assurance can identify trends, patterns, and potential problems, and make informed decisions to improve the quality of products or services.

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32.

Which is a common material management indicator?
- A.
  
  Warehouse refusal.
- B.
  
  Accountablity officer refusal.
- C.
  
  Percentage of maintenance part failures.
- D.
  
  Percentage of maintenance part replacements without failures.
Correct Answer
A. Warehouse refusal.

Explanation
A common material management indicator is warehouse refusal. This refers to the situation where a warehouse refuses to accept or store certain materials due to various reasons such as lack of space, improper packaging, or unsuitability for storage. This indicator helps in identifying issues with material handling, storage, and inventory management within the warehouse, allowing for improvements to be made to ensure efficient material management.

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33.

In addition to management reports, what other sources of information can help in identifying problems when gathering data after the management indicators have been selected?
- A.
  
  Training reports.
- B.
  
  Part purchasing reports.
- C.
  
  Base supply systems down time.
- D.
  
  Top 5 percent of items purchased through base supply system.
Correct Answer
A. Training reports.

Explanation
Training reports can help in identifying problems when gathering data after the management indicators have been selected because they provide insights into the effectiveness of training programs and the performance of employees. By analyzing training reports, management can identify any gaps in employee knowledge or skills that may be contributing to problems or issues within the organization. This information can then be used to make informed decisions and implement targeted training initiatives to address these problems.

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34.

What are the keys to deficiency identification?
- A.
  
  Personal visits and audits.
- B.
  
  Source documents and reports
- C.
  
  Training and cross feed reports
- D.
  
  Analysis and special analysis program
Correct Answer
D. Analysis and special analysis program

Explanation
The keys to deficiency identification are analysis and special analysis program. This means that by conducting a thorough analysis of various factors, such as source documents, reports, training, and cross feed reports, one can identify deficiencies. Additionally, the use of a special analysis program can further enhance the identification process by providing a systematic and comprehensive approach to identifying and addressing deficiencies.

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35.

Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?
- A.
  
  Logistics readiness squadron commander (LRS/CC).
- B.
  
  All Air Force members and employees.
- C.
  
  Management and systems flight.
- D.
  
  Maintenance officer.
Correct Answer
B. All Air Force members and employees.

Explanation
All Air Force members and employees will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use. This means that every individual working in the Air Force is responsible for taking care of government property and can be held accountable if any harm is caused due to their actions or negligence. It emphasizes the collective responsibility of all members and employees to ensure the proper handling and protection of government property.

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36.

Within how many hours must the receiving activity submit a supply discrepancy report for a shortage of a controlled item?
- A.
  
  12
- B.
  
  24
- C.
  
  36
- D.
  
  48
Correct Answer
B. 24

Explanation
The receiving activity must submit a supply discrepancy report for a shortage of a controlled item within 24 hours. This ensures that any discrepancies in the supply of controlled items are promptly reported and addressed, allowing for timely resolution and preventing any potential disruptions in the supply chain.

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37.

Where are all supply discrepancy report (SDR) suspense copies kept?
- A.
  
  Logistics readiness squadron.
- B.
  
  Customer support.
- C.
  
  Receiving.
- D.
  
  Inspection.
Correct Answer
B. Customer support.

Explanation
The correct answer is "Customer support." In the context of supply discrepancy reports (SDR), customer support is responsible for keeping all the suspense copies. This suggests that customer support plays a crucial role in handling and managing SDRs, ensuring that all relevant documentation is properly maintained and organized. This responsibility may involve tracking and resolving any discrepancies in the supply chain, ensuring smooth logistics operations.

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38.

How many days after the first follow-up is a second follow-up sent to an action activity that has not replied to a supply discrepancy report (SDR)?
- A.
  
  15
- B.
  
  30
- C.
  
  45
- D.
  
  60
Correct Answer
C. 45

Explanation
After the first follow-up, if an action activity has not replied to a supply discrepancy report (SDR), a second follow-up is sent 45 days later.

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39.

How many days after the initial submission of the supply discrepancy report (SDR) will the discrepancy details appear on the SDR listing?
- A.
  
  10 to 20.
- B.
  
  25 to 35.
- C.
  
  55 to 109.
- D.
  
  70 to 125.
Correct Answer
C. 55 to 109.

Explanation
After the initial submission of the supply discrepancy report (SDR), it will take anywhere between 55 to 109 days for the discrepancy details to appear on the SDR listing.

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40.

What system prepares supply data reports for off-base distribution?
- A.
  
  Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS).
- B.
  
  Supply Interface System (SIFS).
- C.
  
  ADRSS II.
- D.
  
  SIFS outside.
Correct Answer
A. Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS).

Explanation
The correct answer is Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS). This system is responsible for preparing supply data reports for off-base distribution. It automates the process of submitting reports, ensuring accuracy and efficiency in the supply chain. The other options, Supply Interface System (SIFS), ADRSS II, and SIFS outside, are not mentioned as systems that prepare supply data reports for off-base distribution.

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41.

Storing all supply interface system (SIFS) images for the purpose of backup into a local user file is a duplication of effort and an abuse of system resources because ?
- A.
  
  Local user files are purged monthly.
- B.
  
  SIFS has built-in recovery and contingency procedures.
- C.
  
  SIFS images are stored on the Supply Management System computer.
- D.
  
  The Air Force Equipment Management System receives and stores duplicate images.
Correct Answer
B. SIFS has built-in recovery and contingency procedures.

Explanation
Storing all SIFS images for backup into a local user file is considered a duplication of effort and an abuse of system resources because SIFS already has its own built-in recovery and contingency procedures. This means that in case of any system failure or data loss, SIFS is capable of restoring the images without the need for additional backups stored in a local user file. Therefore, duplicating the backup process by storing images locally is unnecessary and wasteful of system resources.

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42.

Which type of Supply Interface System (SIFS) files are designed to ensure any inbound or outbound images that could not be identified or dispatched are cleared in a timely manner?
- A.
  
  User.
- B.
  
  Control.
- C.
  
  Residue.
- D.
  
  Non-processed.
Correct Answer
C. Residue.

Explanation
Residue type of Supply Interface System (SIFS) files are designed to ensure that any inbound or outbound images that could not be identified or dispatched are cleared in a timely manner. These files contain images that have not been processed or have been partially processed, and they need to be addressed to prevent any delays or issues in the supply chain. The residue files help in identifying and resolving any outstanding or unresolved items, ensuring smooth operations and timely clearance of images.

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43.

Who must review the residue portion of the Supply Interface System end-of-day report to ensure users clear residue images in a timely manner?
- A.
  
  Accountable officer.
- B.
  
  Individual flight chiefs.
- C.
  
  Quality assurance element.
- D.
  
  Functional systems management section.
Correct Answer
D. Functional systems management section.

Explanation
The functional systems management section is responsible for reviewing the residue portion of the Supply Interface System end-of-day report to ensure that users clear residue images in a timely manner. This section is in charge of managing and maintaining the functionality of the system, including monitoring and addressing any issues or discrepancies. They play a crucial role in ensuring the smooth operation of the system and the timely resolution of any outstanding residue images.

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44.

Edits made to the NARRATIVE file will ?
- A.
  
  Corrupt it.
- B.
  
  Generate an edit report.
- C.
  
  Correct any outdated data.
- D.
  
  Cause requisition images to reject in the base supply system.
Correct Answer
A. Corrupt it.

Explanation
Edits made to the NARRATIVE file will corrupt it. This means that any changes or modifications made to the file will result in its data becoming damaged or unusable. The word "corrupt" implies that the integrity of the file will be compromised, potentially rendering it unreadable or causing errors when accessed.

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45.

What is the term used to define the steps a base takes when the materiel management system is temporarily inoperative or when other circumstances impose significant limitations on normal processing capabilities?
- A.
  
  Computer outage.
- B.
  
  Degraded operation.
- C.
  
  Limited operations.
- D.
  
  Limited management and system operation.
Correct Answer
B. Degraded operation.

Explanation
Degraded operation refers to the steps a base takes when the materiel management system is temporarily inoperative or when other circumstances impose significant limitations on normal processing capabilities. This term implies that the system is still functioning but at a reduced capacity or capability. It suggests that there may be limitations or restrictions in place, but the system is still operational to some extent.

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46.

How often are supply inventories completed?
- A.
  
  Every six months.
- B.
  
  Once per fiscal year.
- C.
  
  Once per calendar year.
- D.
  
  Once every eighteen months.
Correct Answer
B. Once per fiscal year.

Explanation
Supply inventories are completed once per fiscal year. A fiscal year is a financial year that may not necessarily align with the calendar year. This means that the frequency of completing supply inventories is based on the organization's financial cycle rather than the traditional calendar year.

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47.

What do deployed kit personnel rely on to prevent confusion and maintain normal operations?
- A.
  
  R43 list accuracy.
- B.
  
  M14 list accuracy.
- C.
  
  Deployed item list.
- D.
  
  Mobility shipment list.
Correct Answer
A. R43 list accuracy.

Explanation
Deployed kit personnel rely on the accuracy of the R43 list to prevent confusion and maintain normal operations. This list provides them with the necessary information about the items that have been deployed, ensuring that they have the correct equipment and supplies. By relying on the R43 list accuracy, personnel can ensure that they have the right resources available to them, minimizing confusion and allowing them to carry out their duties effectively.

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48.

Which program in the Materiel Management System takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction?
- A.
  
  Reject.
- B.
  
  Inquiry.
- C.
  
  Management notice.
- D.
  
  Management support.
Correct Answer
A. Reject.

Explanation
The program in the Materiel Management System that takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction is the "Reject" program. This program is designed to identify and handle errors by stopping the processing of the transaction and providing appropriate feedback or notifications to the user. It ensures that erroneous transactions are not processed further, preventing any potential negative impact on the system or data integrity.

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49.

What supply management listing reflects all accountable rejects and the number of times reprocessing was attempted for each reject?
- A.
  
  D818
- B.
  
  D20
- C.
  
  D11
- D.
  
  D04
Correct Answer
A. D818

Explanation
D818 is the correct answer because it is the supply management listing that reflects all accountable rejects and the number of times reprocessing was attempted for each reject. The other options (D20, D11, and D04) do not provide the same information as D818.

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50.

Who may force-delete rejects using the reject processor program?
- A.
  
  Accountable officer.
- B.
  
  Reject monitors.
- C.
  
  Quality assurance personnel.
- D.
  
  Management and system officer.
Correct Answer
B. Reject monitors.

Explanation
Reject monitors may force-delete rejects using the reject processor program. They are responsible for monitoring and managing rejected items or materials in a system. As part of their role, they have the authority to delete rejects using the reject processor program to ensure that the system remains accurate and up to date. The other options mentioned, such as the accountable officer, quality assurance personnel, and management and system officer, may have different roles and responsibilities within the system but do not specifically have the authority to force-delete rejects using the reject processor program.

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Current Version
Mar 22, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Aug 24, 2016

Quiz Created by
Mrvbur

2s071 Ure Volume 1 Edit Code 07

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Which materiel management unit type code (UTC) identifies the superintendent bare base support?

Which unit type code (UTC) provides mobility support and (when required) expeditionary theater distribution center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operating base (MOB), forward operating site (FOS), or cooperative security location?

In order to qualify for assignment under the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program, program nominees must meet all of the following, except?

Which notifies the individual selected by the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program selection panel, by message not later than 30 days after selection?

Which flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property?

Which specialized center is the hub for integration and management of maintenance and supply chain capabilities?

Which supply class includes ammunition?

What best describes supply class VII items?

Which supply class includes all repair parts and components to include kits, assemblies, and subassemblies?

What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure?

Users can query the materiel management computer system consolidated transaction history (CTH) records as far back as ?

Which releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?

In Discoverer, what is a logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to a specific data requirements?

What type of Join is based on a one-to-one, one-to-many, or one-to-none relationship?

What is identified as a web-based automated command and control information system that supports the family of transportation users and providers—both DOD and commercial, by providing an integrated system of in-transit visibility information and command and control capabilities?

What Air Mobility Command (AMC) force level command and control (C2) system supports Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management?

What system provides hazardous materiel managers oversight of orders placed in the materiel management system to ensure only minimum amounts of material required are ordered and that material ordered is used only for its authorized purpose?

What organization is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty report?

Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating?

Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records?

A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and is corrected ?

Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when there are misspelled words and other minor program deficiencies?

Where do you start your research before you conduct a surveillance visit of a function?

Which is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable office function?

A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within how many days of the date on the surveillance report?

What organization is the primary point of contact for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander?

An effective analysis program must be based on ?

What type of analysis identifies favorable or unfavorable deviations when compared to established factors, standards, and norms?

What item(s) are needed by quality assurance to perform an analysis?

Which is a common material management indicator?

In addition to management reports, what other sources of information can help in identifying problems when gathering data after the management indicators have been selected?

What are the keys to deficiency identification?

Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?

Within how many hours must the receiving activity submit a supply discrepancy report for a shortage of a controlled item?

Where are all supply discrepancy report (SDR) suspense copies kept?

How many days after the first follow-up is a second follow-up sent to an action activity that has not replied to a supply discrepancy report (SDR)?

How many days after the initial submission of the supply discrepancy report (SDR) will the discrepancy details appear on the SDR listing?

What system prepares supply data reports for off-base distribution?

Storing all supply interface system (SIFS) images for the purpose of backup into a local user file is a duplication of effort and an abuse of system resources because ?

Which type of Supply Interface System (SIFS) files are designed to ensure any inbound or outbound images that could not be identified or dispatched are cleared in a timely manner?

Who must review the residue portion of the Supply Interface System end-of-day report to ensure users clear residue images in a timely manner?

Edits made to the NARRATIVE file will ?

What is the term used to define the steps a base takes when the materiel management system is temporarily inoperative or when other circumstances impose significant limitations on normal processing capabilities?

How often are supply inventories completed?

What do deployed kit personnel rely on to prevent confusion and maintain normal operations?

Which program in the Materiel Management System takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction?

What supply management listing reflects all accountable rejects and the number of times reprocessing was attempted for each reject?

Who may force-delete rejects using the reject processor program?