1.
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
Correct Answer
D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
Explanation
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) because AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel. AETC oversees the development and implementation of training programs and ensures that personnel are properly trained for their assigned roles. Therefore, it is logical that TDs, which are involved in training activities, would be assigned to AETC.
2.
The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight(MTF) training course?
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance Orientation
Explanation
The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation course. This course provides an overview of the maintenance organization, policies, procedures, and resources. It familiarizes trainees with the various maintenance functions and their interrelationships. The block training method involves grouping related topics together and delivering them as a comprehensive unit, allowing trainees to gain a thorough understanding of the subject matter. This approach is particularly effective for courses like Maintenance Orientation, which cover a wide range of topics and require a comprehensive understanding of the maintenance organization.
3.
How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent reviewand sign the special certification roster (SCR)?
Correct Answer
B. Semi-annually
Explanation
The Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent must review and sign the special certification roster (SCR) semi-annually. This means that they need to review and sign the roster twice a year. This frequency allows for regular updates and ensures that all necessary certifications are up to date. It also allows for any changes or additions to be made in a timely manner.
4.
In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved bythe maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of
Correct Answer
B. MSgt
Explanation
To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of MSgt (Master Sergeant).
5.
Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
Correct Answer
D. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.
Explanation
The Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that individuals can easily access information about their own qualifications, certifications, and current training progress. This feature allows personnel to stay updated on their training requirements and track their progress towards meeting those requirements. It also helps the Air Force to monitor and manage the training needs of its personnel more efficiently.
6.
In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the “System Messages”board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training updateinformation?
Correct Answer
C. Application problems
Explanation
The "System Messages" board provides notifications about application problems in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information. This means that if there are any issues or glitches with the application, users will be notified through this board. It is important for users to stay updated about any problems with the application to ensure smooth functioning and to be aware of any potential disruptions or difficulties they may face while using the system.
7.
What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow,and maintenance qualification training?
Correct Answer
B. II
Explanation
The correct answer is II because the question asks for the training phase that includes four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training. The only option that includes all four sub-phases is II.
8.
What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses thatcomplement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) andtraining detachment (TD) courses?
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance qualification
Explanation
Continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. This type of training focuses on maintaining and enhancing the skills and knowledge needed for maintenance work. It helps individuals to stay up-to-date with the latest techniques, technologies, and procedures in their field. Maintenance qualification refers to the specific training aimed at achieving and maintaining the necessary qualifications and certifications for performing maintenance tasks effectively and safely.
9.
How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT)briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
Correct Answer
A. Monthly.
Explanation
The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the MTF updates the MXG/CC once every month regarding the training status. This regular briefing allows the MXG/CC to stay informed about the progress and effectiveness of the maintenance training, enabling them to make any necessary adjustments or improvements.
10.
An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, orincapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
Correct Answer
B. 30
Explanation
If an individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have a grace period of 30 days to complete the recertification after they have returned from their TDY, leave, or incapacitation.
11.
Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisorbefore a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
Correct Answer
C. Unit training manager
Explanation
The Unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC).
12.
Manpower authorizations are
Correct Answer
A. Funded
Explanation
Manpower authorizations are funded means that there is a designated budget or funding allocated for the authorized positions. This implies that the organization has the financial resources to support and pay for the required manpower. Having funded authorizations ensures that there is a financial commitment to hiring and maintaining the necessary workforce.
13.
A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held
Correct Answer
B. Monthly
Explanation
The correct answer is monthly because holding a meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) on a monthly basis allows for regular updates and discussions on staffing needs and concerns. This frequency strikes a balance between meeting too frequently and overwhelming participants with information, and meeting too infrequently and not addressing issues in a timely manner. Monthly meetings provide a consistent platform for MXG members to address and resolve manning issues, ensuring that the group remains adequately staffed and efficient in carrying out their responsibilities.
14.
The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without gettingmaintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is
Correct Answer
A. 12 hours
Explanation
The maximum continuous duty time that workers can be scheduled for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is 12 hours. This means that workers can work for a maximum of 12 hours before they need approval from the MXG/CC to continue working.
15.
Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hourshift up to
Correct Answer
C. 16 hours
Explanation
Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for additional time to complete maintenance tasks, the maintenance group commander can grant permission for the shift to be extended up to a maximum of 16 hours. This allows flexibility in scheduling and ensures that necessary maintenance work is completed efficiently and effectively.
16.
Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supplyinterface and resolving supply support problems?
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance supply liaison.
Explanation
The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a bridge between maintenance operations and supply support, ensuring that the necessary supplies are available for maintenance activities and addressing any issues that may arise in the supply chain. This role involves coordinating with various stakeholders, including maintenance personnel, supply organizations, and other relevant parties, to ensure smooth supply operations and timely resolution of supply-related problems.
17.
Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the
Correct Answer
B. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
Explanation
Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). The LRS is responsible for providing logistics support to the maintenance operations of the squadron. They handle the coordination and management of supply chain activities, including the procurement, storage, and distribution of maintenance supplies. By reporting directly to the LRS commander, the maintenance supply liaison personnel ensure effective communication and coordination between the maintenance squadron and the logistics support unit, ensuring timely and efficient supply support for maintenance operations.
18.
Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
Correct Answer
D. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
Explanation
The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty. This duty involves handling and managing valuable assets, which is typically not within the scope of a Maintenance Supply Liaison's responsibilities. Their duties usually include monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.
19.
The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into thehost base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
Correct Answer
B. 30
Explanation
After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account.
20.
Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to anasset before it can be placed in bench stock?
Correct Answer
D. XB3
21.
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
Correct Answer
A. 30
Explanation
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide 30 days of supply. This means that the inventory should be sufficient to cover the organization's needs for a period of 30 days. This ensures that there is an adequate stock of materials or supplies readily available, reducing the risk of running out and causing disruptions to operations. It also allows for better planning and management of inventory levels.
22.
Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect andre-mark with a new expiration date?
Correct Answer
B. II
Explanation
Type II shelf life items are allowed to be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date if they are still serviceable.
23.
Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists tomeet local manufacture requirements?
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
Explanation
The Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements in the maintenance group (MXG). This individual oversees the operations and maintenance activities within the squadron, ensuring that all necessary resources and capabilities are in place to meet the specific manufacturing needs of the local area. They work closely with the MXG Commander, MXG Superintendent, and MXG Deputy Commander to coordinate and execute maintenance operations effectively.
24.
What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineeringdata?
Correct Answer
B. Engineering Data Service Center.
Explanation
The Engineering Data Service Center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing these types of information in a centralized location. The other options listed, such as the Audio Visual Center, AF Primary Standards Laboratory, and Communication and Information System, do not specifically mention their role in managing engineering drawings and data, making them less likely to be the correct answer.
25.
Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
Correct Answer
D. Cloudy water.
Explanation
Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can occur naturally due to sediments, minerals, or organic matter in the water. It does not necessarily indicate the presence of pollutants. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to be direct indicators of pollution, as they are caused by the presence of harmful substances in the environment.
26.
Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan tonotify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
Correct Answer
B. Section supervisor
Explanation
The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. As a supervisor, they have a direct understanding of the specific hazards present in their work area and are responsible for ensuring that their team is aware of these hazards and trained to handle them safely. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may have oversight and input in the development of the plan, but the section supervisor is ultimately responsible for its implementation.
27.
Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
Correct Answer
A. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag
Explanation
The AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag should be used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. This tag is specifically designed to indicate cautionary information about the condition or status of equipment. Using this tag helps ensure that proper procedures have been followed for draining and purging, and alerts others to take necessary precautions when handling the equipment.
28.
Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
Correct Answer
B. Squadron commander
Explanation
The squadron commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This is because the squadron commander is responsible for overseeing the operations and activities of the squadron, including the management and accountability of equipment. By appointing an individual as an equipment account custodian, the squadron commander ensures that there is someone specifically designated to handle and be accountable for the equipment within the squadron.
29.
What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties asa due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
Correct Answer
C. IIB
Explanation
An individual must receive specific block IIB of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor.
30.
What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
Correct Answer
D. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.
Explanation
The correct answer is DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss. This form is used to document all reports of surveys (ROS). It is specifically designed to investigate property loss and determine financial liability. It provides a comprehensive record of the investigation, including details of the loss, responsible parties, and any financial reimbursements or charges. This form is commonly used in the military and government agencies to ensure accountability and proper handling of property loss incidents.
31.
Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverableauthorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
Correct Answer
B. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
Explanation
The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This office is specifically tasked with coordinating and overseeing the maintenance and repair of these assets, ensuring they are properly accounted for and available for use when needed. The other options, such as the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the same level of responsibility or authority over SPRAM assets.
32.
Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purposerecoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?
Correct Answer
C. Mission Support Group (MSG) commander.
Explanation
The Mission Support Group (MSG) commander is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians, unless delegated. This means that the MSG commander is the person who has the authority and responsibility to review and approve or deny SPRAM authorization requests. The other options, such as the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander and the Maintenance Group (MXG) commanders, do not have the specific role of reviewing SPRAM authorizations.
33.
Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains acombination of two or more precious metals?
Correct Answer
B. C
Explanation
PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. The other options (A, G, and P) do not specifically indicate a combination of precious metals.
34.
Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processedduring the day?
Correct Answer
B. D04, Daily Document Register.
Explanation
The Daily Document Register (D04) is the supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document keeps a record of all the documents that have been processed, allowing for easy tracking and monitoring of supply transactions. It provides a comprehensive overview of the documents processed, ensuring that all necessary information is recorded and accessible for reference and analysis.
35.
Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with anurgency of need (UND) code of A?
Correct Answer
A. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
Explanation
The correct answer is D18, Priority Monitor Report. This document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. The Priority Monitor Report allows for efficient tracking of supplies by providing a comprehensive list of back-ordered parts that require immediate attention. It helps prioritize the allocation of resources and ensures that urgent needs are addressed promptly.
36.
Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue andbench stock supply support?
Correct Answer
C. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
Explanation
The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) is the supply tracking document that provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This report helps in evaluating the effectiveness of the organization's supply support by monitoring the issue and availability of supplies. It allows management to track and analyze the supply chain performance and make necessary adjustments to ensure efficient supply support.
37.
Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo securitycages and alarmed rooms?
Correct Answer
B. Host installation commander.
Explanation
The host installation commander is responsible for authorizing the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This individual has the authority and oversight to ensure that the proper security measures are in place to protect the classified material during transit. The aircraft commander, operations group commander, and mission support group commander may have other roles and responsibilities within the transportation process, but the ultimate authorization lies with the host installation commander.
38.
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret orconfidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplishedevery
Correct Answer
C. 3 hours
Explanation
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, they must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure the safety and protection of the aircraft and its classified equipment. Regular security checks help to prevent unauthorized access or tampering with the confidential equipment, reducing the risk of potential security breaches. By conducting these checks every 3 hours, the aircraft owner or user can maintain a high level of security and protect the sensitive information or technology onboard the aircraft.
39.
Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functionalcheck, calibration, or operational flight programming?
Correct Answer
C. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector
Explanation
The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. They have the responsibility to ensure that all supply assets are properly maintained and meet operational requirements. As the Chief Inspector, they have the necessary knowledge and expertise to make informed decisions regarding the functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming of these assets. They work closely with the Flight commander/Chief, Maintenance Group commander, and MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) to ensure the proper maintenance and functionality of the supply assets.
40.
Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?
Correct Answer
A. Customer
Explanation
The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. As the one who needs the parts, the customer is in the best position to assess the urgency and importance of the request. They can provide information on the impact of the delay and any critical timelines that need to be met. Therefore, the customer plays a crucial role in determining the supply delivery priority.
41.
Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
Correct Answer
B. AR or BR
Explanation
The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.
42.
Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?
Correct Answer
D. LRS material management element
Explanation
Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area. The LRS material management element is responsible for managing and distributing materials and supplies, so it makes sense that maintenance would need to coordinate with them to ensure that the necessary supplies are available at the designated location.
43.
Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?
Correct Answer
B. Semiannually
Explanation
Supply point accounts must be reconciled semiannually by the workcenter supply point monitor. This means that the reconciliation process should be done twice a year. Reconciling the accounts involves comparing the records of supplies received and issued with the physical inventory to ensure accuracy and identify any discrepancies. By conducting this process semiannually, the workcenter can maintain an updated and accurate account of their supplies, enabling them to effectively manage and replenish their inventory as needed.
44.
When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance operations center
Explanation
When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), the Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for being notified. The Maintenance Operations Center is the central hub for coordinating and managing all maintenance activities. They are responsible for tracking and monitoring the availability of parts, scheduling maintenance tasks, and ensuring that the necessary resources are allocated. Therefore, it is logical that they would be notified when a MICAP part is issued and placed in the TNB, as they need to be aware of any changes or updates to the maintenance requirements of the aircraft.
45.
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?
Correct Answer
B. Supply discrepancy report
Explanation
A supply discrepancy report is submitted when the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange. This report is used to document any discrepancies or discrepancies in the supply chain, such as incorrect or missing items, damaged goods, or incorrect quantities. It helps to identify and rectify any issues in the supply chain and ensures that the correct items are delivered to the customer.
46.
Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group?
Correct Answer
D. Originating point
Explanation
The originating point is responsible for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and coordinating the entire process of managing deficiency reports within their organization or group. They are responsible for ensuring that all necessary actions are taken to address and resolve any reported deficiencies.
47.
Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?
Correct Answer
B. Action point
Explanation
The correct answer is "Action point". The action point acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization. This means that the action point is responsible for coordinating and communicating between the two parties involved in the Deficiency Report process. They ensure that the report is properly addressed and resolved by the support point, and they also provide updates and feedback to the submitting organization.
48.
Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within
Correct Answer
C. 24 hours
Explanation
A Category I deficiency is considered to be a severe or critical issue that requires immediate attention. Therefore, it is crucial to report this deficiency as soon as possible to ensure prompt action can be taken to address and rectify the problem. Submitting a deficiency report within 24 hours allows for a reasonable timeframe to assess and document the deficiency while still ensuring that it is reported in a timely manner. This timeframe strikes a balance between urgency and allowing for a thorough investigation and reporting process.
49.
Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?
Correct Answer
A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.
50.
What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?
Correct Answer
D. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation
Explanation
The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies. This section is in charge of planning and scheduling maintenance operations, as well as maintaining accurate documentation of maintenance activities. They are responsible for ensuring that TCTOs are properly documented and managed to ensure compliance with maintenance requirements.