Fcps 1 Online Demo Test

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  • 1/50 Questions

    A person standing at same place for 1 hour what will be decrease

    • Diemeter of aorta
    • Central venous pressure
    • Renin
    • ADH
Please wait...
About This Quiz

The FCPS 1 Online Demo Test assesses knowledge in medical science, focusing on human anatomy, pharmacology, and specific conditions. It evaluates understanding of metabolic disorders, drug impacts, and anatomical changes post-surgery.

Fcps 1 Online Demo Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Edema of renal origin is most likely due to

    • Albuminuria and sodium retention

    • Decrease water excreation

    • Hypertension

    • Renal stone

    Correct Answer
    A. Albuminuria and sodium retention
    Explanation
    Edema of renal origin is most likely due to albuminuria and sodium retention. Albuminuria refers to the presence of excessive amounts of albumin in the urine, which can occur when the kidneys are not functioning properly. Sodium retention, on the other hand, refers to the kidneys' inability to properly regulate the levels of sodium in the body, leading to fluid retention and edema. When albuminuria and sodium retention occur together, it can result in fluid accumulation in the tissues, leading to edema.

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  • 3. 

    A profuesly bleeding patient devolped hypotension.which one of the following will be immediate mechanism to maintain BP

    • Baroreceptor reflex

    • Chemoreceptor refkex

    • Secreation of ADH

    • ALDOSTERONE

    Correct Answer
    A. Baroreceptor reflex
    Explanation
    The baroreceptor reflex is the immediate mechanism to maintain blood pressure in a profusely bleeding patient who develops hypotension. Baroreceptors are specialized sensory receptors located in the walls of the blood vessels, especially in the carotid sinus and aortic arch. When the blood pressure drops, these receptors detect the change and send signals to the brain, specifically the medulla oblongata, which triggers a series of responses to increase blood pressure. This includes increasing heart rate, constricting blood vessels, and stimulating the release of hormones like adrenaline. The baroreceptor reflex helps to restore blood pressure to normal levels and ensure adequate perfusion to vital organs.

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  • 4. 

    COMMONEST CARCINOGEN OF CARCINOMA CERVIX IS

    • HSV1

    • HPV

    • CHRONIC IRRITATION

    • IUCD

    Correct Answer
    A. HPV
    Explanation
    HPV (Human Papillomavirus) is the commonest carcinogen of carcinoma cervix. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to the development of cervical cancer. It is responsible for almost all cases of cervical cancer worldwide. HPV infects the cells of the cervix and can cause changes in their DNA, leading to the formation of cancerous cells. Regular screening and vaccination against HPV can help prevent cervical cancer.

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  • 5. 

    Asthma predominat cells are

    • Eiosinophil

    • Basophil

    • Monocyte

    • Lymphocyte

    Correct Answer
    A. Eiosinophil
    Explanation
    Eosinophils are the predominant cells in asthma. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response to allergens and parasites. In asthma, eosinophils are often found in high numbers in the airways, leading to inflammation and narrowing of the air passages. This can result in symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Therefore, the presence of eosinophils is a characteristic feature of asthma.

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  • 6. 

    A 15 year gardner with history of chest pain,no other symptom.XRAY show rounded mass which is calcified in lower lobe of lung.diagnosis is?

    • Aspergilosis

    • Sarciadosis

    • Tuberculosis

    • Adenocarcinoma lung

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspergilosis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is aspergilosis. Aspergilosis is a fungal infection caused by the Aspergillus fungus. It commonly affects individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with a history of chest pain. The presence of a rounded calcified mass in the lower lobe of the lung on X-ray is consistent with a fungal infection, specifically aspergilosis. Other options such as sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, and adenocarcinoma lung would present with different symptoms and radiographic findings.

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  • 7. 

    Injury to head of humerous will demage which nerve?

    • Axillary

    • Musculocutenous

    • Radial

    • Ulnar

    Correct Answer
    A. Axillary
    Explanation
    Injury to the head of the humerus can damage the axillary nerve. The axillary nerve is responsible for innervating the deltoid muscle and the skin over the deltoid muscle. It also provides sensory innervation to the shoulder joint. Damage to the axillary nerve can result in weakness or paralysis of the deltoid muscle, leading to difficulty in lifting the arm and loss of sensation in the shoulder region.

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  • 8. 

    Grey baby syndrome is caused by which of the following drug

    • Ciproflaxcacin

    • Vancomycin

    • Chlorampincol

    • Metoclopramide

    Correct Answer
    A. Chlorampincol
    Explanation
    Grey baby syndrome is a rare but serious condition that occurs in newborns when they are exposed to high levels of chloramphenicol, an antibiotic. This drug inhibits the breakdown of chloramphenicol in the baby's body, leading to toxic levels of the drug. Symptoms of grey baby syndrome include a grayish-blue skin color, poor feeding, lethargy, and low body temperature. It can be life-threatening if not promptly treated. Ciprofloxacin, vancomycin, and metoclopramide are not associated with grey baby syndrome.

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  • 9. 

    A patient on ATT devloped joint pain in the right big toe. the toe was swollen erythamtous and tender the most likely culprit drug is

    • Ethambutol

    • Pyrizinamide

    • Isoniazid

    • Streptomycin

    Correct Answer
    A. Pyrizinamide
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of joint pain, swelling, redness, and tenderness are consistent with gout, which is a known side effect of pyrazinamide. Gout is a type of arthritis that occurs when urate crystals accumulate in the joints, causing inflammation and pain. Pyrazinamide can increase uric acid levels in the body, leading to the development of gout. Ethambutol, isoniazid, and streptomycin are not typically associated with gout as a side effect.

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  • 10. 

    Which among the following is greater resistance vessel

    • Arterioles

    • Vein

    • Cappillaries

    • Venule

    Correct Answer
    A. Arterioles
    Explanation
    Arterioles are considered greater resistance vessels compared to veins, capillaries, and venules. This is because arterioles have a smaller diameter and thicker muscular walls, allowing them to regulate blood flow and control resistance to the flow of blood. Veins, on the other hand, have larger diameters and thinner walls, allowing them to store and transport blood back to the heart. Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels and have thin walls to facilitate the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the blood and tissues. Venules are small veins that receive blood from capillaries and transport it back to larger veins.

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  • 11. 

    Intermittent pain of small intestine is felt at

    • Just above pubic symphsis

    • Back

    • Umblicus

    • Eigastric riegon

    Correct Answer
    A. Umblicus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "umbilicus." Intermittent pain of the small intestine is felt at the umbilicus, which is the area around the belly button. This is because the small intestine is located in the abdominal cavity, and the umbilicus is a central point in the abdomen. Pain in this region could indicate issues with the small intestine, such as inflammation or obstruction.

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  • 12. 

    Right border of heart is mainly formed by

    • Right artium

    • Right ventricle

    • Left artium

    • Left venticle

    Correct Answer
    A. Right artium
    Explanation
    The right border of the heart is mainly formed by the right atrium. The right atrium is one of the four chambers of the heart and is located on the right side. It receives deoxygenated blood from the body and pumps it into the right ventricle, which then pumps the blood to the lungs for oxygenation. The left atrium and left ventricle are not involved in forming the right border of the heart.

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  • 13. 

    A patient died of CRF .Which tissue will be seen hypertrophied on autopsy

    • Parathyriod

    • Thyriod

    • Adrenal cortex

    • Adrenal medulla

    Correct Answer
    A. Parathyriod
    Explanation
    In patients with chronic renal failure (CRF), the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products from the blood. This leads to an imbalance of calcium and phosphate levels in the body, resulting in secondary hyperparathyroidism. The parathyroid glands, which regulate calcium metabolism, respond to the low levels of calcium by becoming hypertrophied. Therefore, on autopsy, hypertrophied parathyroid tissue would be observed in a patient who died of CRF.

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  • 14. 

    Which one of the following bone ossify ist ?

    • Clevicle

    • Scapula

    • Wrist bones

    • Sternum

    Correct Answer
    A. Clevicle
    Explanation
    The correct answer is clavicle. The clavicle is the bone that ossifies first in the human body. Ossification is the process by which bones are formed and hardened. The clavicle, also known as the collarbone, is a long bone located between the shoulder and the sternum. It plays an important role in supporting the shoulder and allowing for arm movement.

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  • 15. 

    IF Heart rate double during excercise cardiac cycle will complete in

    • 0.2 sec

    • 0.4 sec

    • 0.16 sec

    • 0.8seconds

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.4 sec
    Explanation
    During exercise, the heart rate increases to meet the increased demand for oxygen and nutrients in the body. This increased heart rate is known as tachycardia. As the heart rate doubles, it means that the heart is beating twice as fast as it normally would. Therefore, the time taken for one complete cardiac cycle, which includes both systole (contraction) and diastole (relaxation) phases, would be halved. Since the normal cardiac cycle duration is around 0.8 seconds, when the heart rate doubles, the cardiac cycle would complete in 0.4 seconds.

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  • 16. 

    A 60 year old patient was evaluated by a doctor .his blood pressure was 185/130.lab results reveal increase in plasma renin activity,plasma aldosterone level and left renal vein renin level are high and right renal renin level is decreased most likely diagnosis is

    • Pheochromocytoma

    • Lefft renal artery stenosis

    • Right renal artery stenosis

    • Aldosterone secreating tumor

    Correct Answer
    A. Lefft renal artery stenosis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is left renal artery stenosis. This diagnosis is supported by the high blood pressure reading, increased plasma renin activity, and elevated levels of plasma aldosterone and left renal vein renin. Left renal artery stenosis refers to the narrowing of the artery that supplies blood to the left kidney, leading to increased renin release and aldosterone production. This can result in hypertension.

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  • 17. 

    PNEUMONIA CAUSE WHICH TYPE OF RESPIRATORY FAILURE

    • TYPE 1

    • TYPE 2

    • MIXED

    • ALL OF THE ABOVE

    Correct Answer
    A. TYPE 1
    Explanation
    Pneumonia can cause type 1 respiratory failure. Type 1 respiratory failure is characterized by low oxygen levels (hypoxemia) due to impaired gas exchange in the lungs. Pneumonia, an infection that causes inflammation in the lungs, can lead to the accumulation of fluid and debris in the alveoli, reducing their ability to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide effectively. This results in decreased oxygen levels in the blood and subsequent hypoxemia, which is a characteristic feature of type 1 respiratory failure.

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  • 18. 

    Spheniod is an example of

    • Irregular bone

    • Pnuematic bone

    • Short bone

    • Flat bone

    Correct Answer
    A. Pnuematic bone
    Explanation
    The sphenoid bone is an example of a pneumatic bone. Pneumatic bones are characterized by having air-filled spaces within them, which help to reduce their weight without compromising their strength. The sphenoid bone contains several air-filled cavities called sinuses, which make it lighter and more efficient for its functions in the skull. These sinuses also provide resonance for the voice and help to regulate pressure within the skull. Therefore, the sphenoid bone fits the description of a pneumatic bone.

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  • 19. 

    After 15 days of c section due to obstructed labour patient devolped urinary incontinece what is the most likely cause?

    • Vesico veginal fistula

    • Vesico uternine fistula

    • Rectovesical fistula

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Vesico veginal fistula
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of urinary incontinence after a c-section due to obstructed labor is a vesicovaginal fistula. This is a condition where there is an abnormal connection between the bladder and the vagina, leading to leakage of urine. A vesicouterine fistula is a connection between the bladder and the uterus, which is less likely to occur after a c-section. A rectovesical fistula is a connection between the rectum and the bladder, which is also less likely in this scenario. Therefore, the most likely cause is a vesicovaginal fistula.

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  • 20. 

    Greatest pressure drop in arteriole is because of

    • High resistance in arteriole

    • Decrease resistance

    • Highest cross sectional area

    • Highest flow rate

    Correct Answer
    A. High resistance in arteriole
    Explanation
    The greatest pressure drop in the arteriole is due to high resistance. Resistance refers to the opposition that blood encounters as it flows through the blood vessels. Arterioles have smaller diameters compared to other blood vessels, which leads to increased resistance. This increased resistance causes a significant drop in pressure as blood flows through the arterioles. Therefore, the high resistance in the arterioles is the primary reason for the greatest pressure drop in this particular blood vessel.

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  • 21. 

     A patient is diagnose as hemophilia B .Factor IX is not avilable what is the next best choice?

    • WHOLE BLOOD

    • CRYOPRECIPITATE

    • FRESH FROZEN PLASMA

    • DESMOPRESSIN

    Correct Answer
    A. FRESH FROZEN PLASMA
    Explanation
    Fresh frozen plasma is the next best choice for a patient diagnosed with hemophilia B when Factor IX is not available. Fresh frozen plasma contains various clotting factors, including Factor IX, which can help to control bleeding in patients with hemophilia B. It can be transfused to replace the deficient clotting factors and prevent or treat bleeding episodes. While cryoprecipitate and desmopressin can also be used in certain situations, fresh frozen plasma is generally the preferred choice for immediate management of bleeding in patients with hemophilia B. Whole blood is not typically used in the treatment of hemophilia B.

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  • 22. 

    Which one of the following will lead to increase insulin release?

    • Iv glucose

    • I/M glucose

    • Oral glucose

    • infusion of glucose

    Correct Answer
    A. Oral glucose
    Explanation
    Oral glucose is absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract and enters the bloodstream gradually. This gradual increase in blood glucose levels triggers the release of insulin from the pancreas. Insulin is responsible for lowering blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells. Therefore, oral glucose intake leads to an increase in insulin release.

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  • 23. 

    Factor vIII is produced by

    • Endothelial cell

    • Liver

    • Plattelete

    • Macrophages

    Correct Answer
    A. Endothelial cell
    Explanation
    Factor VIII is a protein that plays a crucial role in blood clotting. It is primarily produced by endothelial cells, which line the blood vessels. These cells release factor VIII into the bloodstream where it interacts with other clotting factors to form blood clots and prevent excessive bleeding. The liver also produces factor VIII, but endothelial cells are the main source. Platelets and macrophages do not produce factor VIII.

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  • 24. 

    Posterior belly of diagastric muscle is derivites of

    • Ist branchial arch

    • 2nd bronchial arch

    • 3rd branchial arch

    • 4th branchial arch

    Correct Answer
    A. 2nd bronchial arch
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2nd bronchial arch. The posterior belly of the digastric muscle is derived from the 2nd bronchial arch. The digastric muscle is a muscle located under the jaw that helps with opening the mouth and swallowing. During embryonic development, the muscles of the face and neck are derived from the branchial arches, which are a series of arches that form in the early stages of development. The posterior belly of the digastric muscle specifically arises from the 2nd bronchial arch.

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  • 25. 

    The charcteristic feature of mesothelioma is?

    • Pleural plaque

    • Pleural effusion

    • Carbon soot

    • Granuloma

    Correct Answer
    A. Pleural plaque
    Explanation
    Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that primarily affects the lining of the lungs, known as the pleura. One of the characteristic features of mesothelioma is the presence of pleural plaques, which are areas of thickening and scarring on the pleura. These plaques are typically caused by exposure to asbestos fibers and can be a precursor to the development of mesothelioma. Pleural effusion refers to the buildup of fluid in the pleural space, while carbon soot and granuloma are not specific to mesothelioma.

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  • 26. 

    Which one of the following reqire dialysis?

    • Salicyclate poisioning

    • Digitalis toxcity

    • Barbiturate toxcity

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Salicyclate poisioning
    Explanation
    Salicylate poisoning requires dialysis because it is a condition caused by an overdose of salicylates, which are found in medications such as aspirin. Salicylate poisoning can lead to severe acid-base disturbances, electrolyte imbalances, and organ damage. Dialysis is a treatment option used to remove toxins and excess substances from the blood when the kidneys are unable to do so effectively. In the case of salicylate poisoning, dialysis is necessary to remove the toxic levels of salicylates from the bloodstream and restore the body's acid-base balance.

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  • 27. 

    Abdominal aorta bifurcate at which level

    • L1

    • L3

    • L4

    • L5

    Correct Answer
    A. L4
    Explanation
    The abdominal aorta bifurcates at the level of L4. This means that the abdominal aorta, which is the largest artery in the abdominal region, splits into two smaller arteries called the common iliac arteries at the fourth lumbar vertebra (L4).

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  • 28. 

    Upper end of esophagus is at which level?

    • T6

    • C6

    • T10

    • C5

    Correct Answer
    A. C6
    Explanation
    The upper end of the esophagus is located at the level of C6. This means that the esophagus begins at the sixth cervical vertebra in the neck.

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  • 29. 

    All of the following are electrocardiographic features of sever hyperkalemia except: 

    • Peaked T wave

    • Presence of u wave

    • Sine wave pattern

    • Loss of p wave

    Correct Answer
    A. Presence of u wave
    Explanation
    In severe hyperkalemia, electrocardiographic (ECG) changes include tall, peaked T waves, flattened or absent P waves, widening of QRS complexes, and eventually sine-wave patterns before cardiac arrest. U waves, however, are not typically seen in hyperkalemia. Instead, U waves are a hallmark of hypokalemia (low potassium), not high. Their presence would be more consistent with delayed repolarization due to insufficient potassium, the opposite scenario. Hence, the presence of a U wave is not characteristic of severe hyperkalemia and is rightly listed as an exception.

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  • 30. 

    The most disabling injury to hand is due to to injury to

    • Radial nerve

    • Ulnar nerve

    • Median nerve

    • Axillary nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Median nerve
    Explanation
    The median nerve is responsible for providing sensation and controlling movement in certain muscles of the hand. Injury to the median nerve can result in a condition called carpal tunnel syndrome, which causes pain, numbness, and weakness in the hand. This can greatly affect a person's ability to perform daily tasks and can be disabling. Therefore, injury to the median nerve is considered the most disabling injury to the hand.

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  • 31. 

    A patient has sciatica and loss ankle jerk the sement invole is

    • L5

    • S1

    • S2

    • S3 S4

    Correct Answer
    A. S1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is S1. Sciatica refers to pain that radiates along the path of the sciatic nerve, which is the longest nerve in the body. Loss of ankle jerk reflex is commonly associated with damage or compression of the S1 nerve root. The S1 nerve root is responsible for innervating the muscles that control ankle movement and reflexes. Therefore, in this case, the involvement of the S1 nerve root is likely causing the loss of ankle jerk reflex in the patient with sciatica.

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  • 32. 

    Serum sickness is

    • Type 1 hypersensitivty reaction

    • Type 2 HSR

    • Type 3 HSR

    • Type 4 HSR

    Correct Answer
    A. Type 3 HSR
    Explanation
    Serum sickness is a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction. Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions occur when there is an excessive immune response to an antigen, resulting in the formation of immune complexes. In serum sickness, these immune complexes are formed when antigens from foreign substances, such as medications or animal proteins, combine with antibodies in the bloodstream. These immune complexes then deposit in various tissues, leading to an inflammatory response and the activation of complement proteins. This can cause symptoms such as fever, rash, joint pain, and organ damage.

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  • 33. 

    Most common cause of cor pulmonale is

    • Pneumonia

    • Asthama

    • COPD

    • Pulmonary hypertension

    Correct Answer
    A. COPD
    Explanation
    COPD, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, is the most common cause of cor pulmonale. Cor pulmonale is a condition characterized by enlargement and dysfunction of the right side of the heart due to underlying lung disease. COPD is a progressive lung disease that causes airflow limitation and difficulty breathing. Over time, the decreased lung function in COPD can lead to increased pressure in the pulmonary arteries, causing strain on the right side of the heart and eventually leading to cor pulmonale.

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  • 34. 

    Regarding total pancreatecomy which one is a wrong observation?

    • Steatorhea

    • Wieght loss

    • No change or rise in glucogon level

    • No change or rise in insulin level

    Correct Answer
    A. No change or rise in insulin level
    Explanation
    A total pancreatectomy involves the complete removal of the pancreas, which is responsible for producing insulin. Therefore, it is expected that there would be a decrease or absence of insulin production after the surgery. Hence, the observation that there is no change or rise in insulin levels is incorrect.

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  • 35. 

    Anterior fontanelle closes at

    • 10 -12 months

    • 12-18 months

    • 18-24 months

    • 10-14 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 12-18 months
    Explanation
    The anterior fontanelle is the soft spot on a baby's skull that allows for the growth and development of the brain. It is typically open at birth and gradually closes as the baby grows. The correct answer is 12-18 months because this is the average timeframe for the anterior fontanelle to fully close. During this period, the bones of the skull fuse together, providing protection for the brain. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor the closure of the anterior fontanelle as a delayed closure may indicate an underlying medical condition.

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  • 36. 

    The skin overlying the region where a venous cut down is made to access great sephanus vien is supplied by

    • FEMORAL NERVE

    • SURAL NERVE

    • SEPHANUS NERVE

    • SUPERFECIAL PERONIAL NERVE

    Correct Answer
    A. SEPHANUS NERVE
  • 37. 

    All are branches of posterior cord of brachial plexuses except

    • Radial

    • Thoraco dorsal

    • Axillary

    • Suprascapular

    Correct Answer
    A. Suprascapular
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the branch that is not part of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. The posterior cord gives rise to the radial, thoracodorsal, and axillary nerves. Therefore, the suprascapular nerve is not a branch of the posterior cord, making it the correct answer.

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  • 38. 

    Venous drinage of urinary bladder is to

    • Internal illiac

    • External illiac

    • Common illiac

    • Both external and internal illiac

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal illiac
    Explanation
    The venous drainage of the urinary bladder is to the internal iliac veins. The internal iliac veins receive blood from the pelvic organs, including the bladder, and drain it back to the systemic circulation. The external iliac veins drain the lower limbs, while the common iliac veins receive blood from the internal and external iliac veins and further drain into the inferior vena cava. Therefore, the correct answer is the internal iliac veins.

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  • 39. 

    Type 1 respiratory failure occour in all except

    • ARDS

    • PNEUMONIA

    • DRUG OVERDOSE

    • BLUNT CHEST TRAUMA

    Correct Answer
    A. DRUG OVERDOSE
    Explanation
    Type 1 respiratory failure occurs when there is a failure in oxygenation due to inadequate gas exchange in the lungs. ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome), pneumonia, and blunt chest trauma can all lead to impaired gas exchange and therefore can cause type 1 respiratory failure. However, drug overdose does not directly cause respiratory failure. While certain drugs can depress the respiratory center in the brain and lead to respiratory depression, this would result in type 2 respiratory failure, where there is both inadequate oxygenation and inadequate removal of carbon dioxide. Therefore, drug overdose is the exception in this case.

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  • 40. 

    Which one do you like?

    • Option 1

    • Option 2

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
  • 41. 

    Lardecous spleen is due to 

    • Deposition of amyliod in white pulp

    • Deposition of amyliod in redpulp

    • Amyliod deposition in pancellary artery

    • Visceral lieshminasis

    Correct Answer
    A. Deposition of amyliod in redpulp
    Explanation
    Lardaceous spleen, also known as amyloidosis, is a condition characterized by the deposition of amyloid protein in various organs, including the spleen. In this case, the correct answer is "deposition of amyloid in red pulp" because the red pulp is one of the two main regions of the spleen where blood is filtered and old red blood cells are destroyed. The deposition of amyloid in the red pulp can lead to enlargement and dysfunction of the spleen.

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  • 42. 

    Central nervous system manifestation in chronic renal failure are the result of all except

    • Hyper osmolarity

    • Hypocalcemia

    • Acidosis

    • Hyponatremia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyper osmolarity
    Explanation
    The central nervous system manifestations in chronic renal failure are caused by various factors such as hypocalcemia, acidosis, and hyponatremia. However, hyperosmolarity is not typically associated with these manifestations. Hyperosmolarity refers to an increased concentration of solutes in the blood, which can lead to dehydration and altered mental status but is not a common cause of central nervous system manifestations in chronic renal failure.

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  • 43. 

    A patient under went terminal ileum resection.which one of the following is most likely to occour in him?

    • Decrease iron absorbtion

    • Increase fat absorption

    • Increase enterohepatic recycling of bile

    • Decrease absorption of vitamn E

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease absorption of vitamn E
    Explanation
    After undergoing terminal ileum resection, the patient is most likely to experience a decrease in the absorption of vitamin E. The terminal ileum is responsible for the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, including vitamin E. Therefore, the removal of the terminal ileum would impair the absorption of vitamin E from the diet, leading to a decrease in its absorption.

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  • 44. 

    In case of hypertrophied pyloric stenosis the metabolic disorder that occour is

    • Hyperchlromic hypo kalemic metabolic alkalosis

    • Hypochloremic hyper kalemic metabolic alkalosis

    • Hypo chloremic hypokalemic hyponatremic metabolic alkalosis with alakaline urine

    • Hypo chloremic hypokalemic hyponatremic metabolic alkalosis with aciduria

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypo chloremic hypokalemic hyponatremic metabolic alkalosis with aciduria
    Explanation
    In case of hypertrophied pyloric stenosis, the metabolic disorder that occurs is hypo chloremic hypokalemic hyponatremic metabolic alkalosis with aciduria. This means that there is a decrease in chloride, potassium, and sodium levels in the blood, leading to a metabolic alkalosis. Additionally, aciduria indicates the presence of acidic urine.

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  • 45. 

    Patient feel pain on defecation the nrve involed is

    • Pudendal

    • Inferior rectal

    • Symphathetic plexuses

    • Non of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Inferior rectal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is inferior rectal. The patient feels pain during defecation, which suggests that there is involvement of the nerves in the area where the inferior rectal nerves are located. The inferior rectal nerves innervate the anal canal and are responsible for transmitting pain signals during bowel movements. Therefore, the involvement of the inferior rectal nerves is the most likely explanation for the patient's pain during defecation.

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  • 46. 

    In conginetal rubella termination of pregnancy is warranted if one of the following anibody is present

    • IgG

    • IgM

    • IgD

    • IgA

    Correct Answer
    A. IgG
    Explanation
    In congenital rubella, termination of pregnancy is warranted if IgG antibodies are present. IgG antibodies indicate a past or previous infection with rubella, and the presence of these antibodies in a pregnant woman suggests that she has been exposed to the virus. Rubella infection during pregnancy can cause severe birth defects and complications in the developing fetus, including deafness, blindness, heart defects, and intellectual disabilities. Therefore, if IgG antibodies are detected, it is recommended to terminate the pregnancy to prevent potential harm to the baby.

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  • 47. 

    Regarding salivary secreation all are true except

    • It is hypotonic secreation

    • Secreation is stimulated by parasympathetic system predominatly

    • Composition of saliva depend on flow rate

    • Secreation is decreased by symphathetic stimulation

    Correct Answer
    A. Secreation is decreased by symphathetic stimulation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "secreation is decreased by symphathetic stimulation". This is because sympathetic stimulation actually increases salivary secretion, rather than decreasing it. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response, which includes increased salivation to help with digestion and swallowing during times of stress or excitement. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that salivary secretion is decreased by sympathetic stimulation.

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  • 48. 

    Alpha hemolytic bacteria are

    • S.AUREUS

    • S.PNEUMONIA

    • S.AGALACTAE

    • S.PYOGENES

    Correct Answer
    A. S.PNEUMONIA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is S.PNEUMONIA. Alpha hemolytic bacteria are a group of bacteria that cause partial or incomplete hemolysis of red blood cells. S. pneumoniae is a type of alpha hemolytic bacteria that commonly causes pneumonia, as well as other infections such as sinusitis and meningitis. It is a gram-positive bacterium that is commonly found in the respiratory tract of healthy individuals but can cause infection when the immune system is compromised.

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  • 49. 

    THE HALF LIFE OF MONOCYTE IS

    • 4-6 DAYS

    • 7-10 DAYS

    • 1DAY

    • 1 MONTH

    Correct Answer
    A. 1DAY
    Explanation
    The half-life of a monocyte is the time it takes for half of the population of monocytes to decay or be removed from the body. In this case, the correct answer is 1 day, which means that after 1 day, half of the monocytes present will have decayed or been removed. This indicates that monocytes have a relatively short lifespan in the body, with a significant turnover rate.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jul 17, 2025 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 17, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 18, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Raj214794
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