CDC Volume 5- Material Management System Trivia Quiz

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CDC Volume 5- Material Management System Trivia Quiz - Quiz

One of the core responsibilities of the purchase and supply team is ensuring that materials are available in the form, quantity and time they are required. This is why CDC Volume 5- Material Management System is an important course to pass in your hope of working in the supplies department. The quiz below is designed to help you review what you learnt. Give it a try!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    How many individual options do sats have built-in within the reports list?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      25

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    B. 25
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 25. This means that within the reports list, there are a total of 25 individual options that sats have built-in.

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  • 2. 

    WHICH TYPE OF HAND-HELD TERMINAL USES A SYMBOL TECHNOLOGIES HAND HELD FUZZY LOGIC SCANNER?

    • A.

      INTERMEC 2010

    • B.

      INTERMEC 2020

    • C.

      INTERMEC 5023

    • D.

      INTERMEC 5032

    Correct Answer
    A. INTERMEC 2010
    Explanation
    The correct answer is INTERMEC 2010. This hand-held terminal uses a Symbol Technologies hand-held fuzzy logic scanner.

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  • 3. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT CORRECT CONCERNING A COLD-BOOT?

    • A.

      CONFIGURATION SETTINGS AND FILES ARE RETAINED

    • B.

      THE NETWORK AND SCANNER PARAMETERS ARE RETAINED

    • C.

      SOME SETTINGS REVERT TO THE DEFAULT FACTORY SETTINGS

    • D.

      IT IS NECESSARY TO RE-FLASH THE SATS APPLICATION ONTO THE HHT.

    Correct Answer
    A. CONFIGURATION SETTINGS AND FILES ARE RETAINED
    Explanation
    A cold-boot refers to restarting a device from a completely powered-off state. In this context, the correct answer is that configuration settings and files are retained. During a cold-boot, the device starts fresh and does not retain any previous settings or files. The network and scanner parameters may be reset to their default settings, and it may be necessary to re-flash the SATS application onto the HHT (Hand Held Terminal) after a cold-boot.

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  • 4. 

    AT MINIMUM, WHAT OPERATING SYSTEM IS REQUIRED FOR FLASHING A HAND-HELD TERMINAL?

    • A.

      WINDOWS 95

    • B.

      WINDOWS 98

    • C.

      WINDOWS XP

    • D.

      WINDOWS 2000

    Correct Answer
    A. WINDOWS 95
    Explanation
    The correct answer is WINDOWS 95 because it is the minimum operating system required for flashing a hand-held terminal. This means that the hand-held terminal can be updated or reprogrammed using Windows 95 operating system.

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  • 5. 

    WHAT ARE TRACKED IN SATS WHILE AN ITEM IS IN ROUTE TO ITS WAREHOUSE LOCATION OR DELIVERY DESTINATION?

    • A.

      NO WAREHOUSE LOCATIONS

    • B.

      ASSIGNED LOCATIONS

    • C.

      PERMANENT LOCATIONS

    • D.

      TEMPORARY LOCATIONS

    Correct Answer
    D. TEMPORARY LOCATIONS
    Explanation
    When an item is in route to its warehouse location or delivery destination, it is tracked at temporary locations. These temporary locations refer to the various stops or checkpoints along the route where the item may be temporarily stored or processed before reaching its final destination. By tracking the item at these temporary locations, the logistics or shipping company can ensure that the item is moving along the intended route and can also provide updates to the sender or recipient regarding the progress of the shipment.

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  • 6. 

    WHAT PROCESS VERIFIES THAT THE USER HAS PLACED AN ITEM IN THE CORRECT LOCATION IN THE WAREHOUSE?

    • A.

      PUT AWAY

    • B.

      PULL

    • C.

      DELIVERY

    • D.

      MOVEMENT

    Correct Answer
    A. PUT AWAY
    Explanation
    The process of "put away" verifies that the user has placed an item in the correct location in the warehouse. This involves physically moving the item from its initial location to the designated storage area. By performing this process, the user ensures that the item is properly organized and stored in the appropriate location within the warehouse.

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  • 7. 

    WHAT DOES THE PULL PROCESS INVOLVE?

    • A.

      DELIVERING PROPERTY TO THE CUSTOMER

    • B.

      ISSUING PROPERTY FROM THE WARE HOUSE

    • C.

      TRACKING AN ITERIM LOCATION FOR AN ITEM

    • D.

      PLACING AN ITEM IN THE PROPER STORAGE LOCATION

    Correct Answer
    B. ISSUING PROPERTY FROM THE WARE HOUSE
    Explanation
    The pull process involves issuing property from the warehouse. This means that when a customer requests a specific item, it is retrieved from the warehouse and given to the customer. This process ensures that the customer receives the requested item in a timely manner.

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  • 8. 

    THE REVIEW DELIVERIES FUNCTION ALLOWS THE USER TO VIEW DELIVERY ITEMS THAT HAVE....

    • A.

      NOT BEEN UPDATED IN THE SBSS

    • B.

      BEEN AWAITING DELIVERY TO THE CUSTOMER

    • C.

      NOT BEEN DELIVERED TO THE CUSTOMER

    • D.

      BEEN DELIVERED TO THE CUSTOMER

    Correct Answer
    B. BEEN AWAITING DELIVERY TO THE CUSTOMER
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "BEEN AWAITING DELIVERY TO THE CUSTOMER." The review deliveries function allows the user to view delivery items that are still pending and have not been updated in the SBSS (Small Business Server System). This feature helps the user keep track of deliveries that are yet to be made to the customer.

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  • 9. 

    HOW MANY PRE-SORTED REPORTS ARE AVAILABLE TO THE SATS USERS?

    • A.

      31

    • B.

      24

    • C.

      17

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    A. 31
    Explanation
    There are 31 pre-sorted reports available to the SATS users.

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  • 10. 

    WHEN PROCESSING REPORTS IN THE SATS , OPTIONS THAT ALLOW YOU TO FILTER DATA FOR YOU SPECIFIC REQUIREMENT ARE CALLED.....

    • A.

      SELECTION TYPE

    • B.

      PARAMETERS

    • C.

      DATA LISTS

    • D.

      SORTS

    Correct Answer
    A. SELECTION TYPE
    Explanation
    The options that allow you to filter data for your specific requirement in the SATS report processing are called "Selection Type". This means that you can choose specific criteria or conditions to filter the data and only display the information that meets those requirements. This helps in narrowing down the results and focusing on the specific data that is needed for analysis or reporting purposes.

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  • 11. 

    WHAT REPORTS PROVIDES A SNAPSHOT OF THE EFFECTIVENESS OF MEETING CUSTOMER REQUIREMENTS WITH ON THE SHELF ASSETS?

    • A.

      ITEM PULLED

    • B.

      ITEMS NOT RECIEVED BY THE CUSTOMER

    • C.

      ITEMS RECIEVED BY THE CUSTOMER

    • D.

      ITEMS NOT PULLED

    Correct Answer
    B. ITEMS NOT RECIEVED BY THE CUSTOMER
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ITEMS NOT RECEIVED BY THE CUSTOMER." This report provides a snapshot of the effectiveness of meeting customer requirements with on the shelf assets by highlighting the items that were not received by the customer. It helps identify any gaps or issues in the fulfillment process and allows for corrective actions to be taken to improve customer satisfaction and ensure that all customer requirements are met.

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  • 12. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REPORTS LISTS THE USER'S PRIVILEGES?

    • A.

      USER ACCESS

    • B.

      USER LIST

    • C.

      USER VERIFICATION

    • D.

      USER AUTHORIZATION

    Correct Answer
    A. USER ACCESS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "USER ACCESS" because this report specifically lists the user's privileges. It is likely a comprehensive report that outlines the specific permissions and access levels that each user has within a system or platform. This report is valuable for administrators or managers to review and ensure that users have the appropriate level of access to perform their tasks effectively and securely.

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  • 13. 

    THE BATCH HAND-HELD TERMINAL LOGIN PROCESS ALLOWS USER TO LOG INTO THE HAND-HELD TERMINAL WHEN NO

    • A.

      RF DEVICE IS AVAILABLE

    • B.

      WORKSTATION IS AVAILABE

    • C.

      SATS SESSIO IS AVAILABLE

    • D.

      COMMUNICATION DOCK IS AVAILABLE

    Correct Answer
    A. RF DEVICE IS AVAILABLE
    Explanation
    The given correct answer suggests that the batch hand-held terminal login process allows the user to log into the hand-held terminal only when an RF device is available. This implies that the login process is dependent on the availability of an RF device for communication. Without an RF device, the user will not be able to log into the hand-held terminal. The other options mentioned in the question, such as workstation availability, SATS session availability, and communication dock availability, are not relevant to the login process of the hand-held terminal.

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  • 14. 

    THE SATS AND SBSS INTERFACE INPUT SESSION DOES WHAT?

    • A.

      SENDS SBSS-GENERATED SATS TRANSACTION TO SATS

    • B.

      SEND THE SATS-GENERATED SBSS TRANSACTION TO SBSS

    • C.

      CAPTURE THE 1348-1A AND UPDATES SATS WITH THE DATA

    • D.

      PROCESSES THE OUTPUT DOCUMENTS SENT FROM SBSS TO SATS

    Correct Answer
    B. SEND THE SATS-GENERATED SBSS TRANSACTION TO SBSS
    Explanation
    The SATS and SBSS interface input session is responsible for sending the SATS-generated SBSS transaction to SBSS. This means that any transaction generated by the SATS system will be forwarded to the SBSS system for further processing. This allows for seamless communication and data transfer between the two systems, ensuring that all relevant information is shared and updated accurately.

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  • 15. 

    WHAT HAPPENS TO THE HAND-HELD TERMINAL AND WORKSTATION TRANSACTION WHEN THE SBSS AND SATS ARE UNABLE TO INTERFACE?

    • A.

      THE WORK STATION TRANSACTIONS ARE MAINTAINED, THE HHT TRANSACTIONS ARE HALTED

    • B.

      THE WORK STATION TRANSACTIONS ARE HALTED, THE HTT TRANSACTION ARE MAINTAINED

    • C.

      BOTH ARE MAINTAINED IN THE SATS DATABASE IN THE ORDER THEY ARE GENERATED

    • D.

      BOTH ARE HALTED UNTIL THE SATS ANS SBSS INTERFACE IS RESTORED

    Correct Answer
    C. BOTH ARE MAINTAINED IN THE SATS DATABASE IN THE ORDER THEY ARE GENERATED
    Explanation
    When the SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) and SATS (Standard Asset Tracking System) are unable to interface, both the hand-held terminal (HHT) and workstation transactions are maintained in the SATS database in the order they are generated. This means that even though the interface between SBSS and SATS is not functioning, the transactions from both the HHT and workstation are still recorded and stored in the SATS database. They will be processed and updated in the system once the interface is restored.

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  • 16. 

    SOFTWARE RELEASE INFORMATION IS PROVIDED USING WHICH AF FORM?

    • A.

      636

    • B.

      633

    • C.

      366

    • D.

      363

    Correct Answer
    A. 636
  • 17. 

    WHAT ITEM CONTAINS THE DEVELOPERS INSTRUCTIONS FOR SATS RELEASES?

    • A.

      RELEASE RATIONALE.

    • B.

      SBSS PROGRAM BANK INDEX.

    • C.

      SOFTWARE VERSION DESCRIPTION.

    • D.

      RAPID COMMUNICATION MESSAGE.

    Correct Answer
    C. SOFTWARE VERSION DESCRIPTION.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SOFTWARE VERSION DESCRIPTION. This is because the software version description contains the developers' instructions for SATS releases. It provides a detailed explanation of the changes and updates made in each version of the software, including any bug fixes, new features, and improvements. This document is essential for developers to understand the changes made and ensure the smooth release of the software.

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  • 18. 

    IN DISCOVERER, WHAT IS A LOGICAL GROUPING OF DATABASE TABLES OR VIEWS THAT APPLY TO YOUR SPECIFICE DATA REQUIREMENTS?

    • A.

      JOINS

    • B.

      SORTS

    • C.

      BUSINESS AREA

    • D.

      REPORTS

    Correct Answer
    C. BUSINESS AREA
    Explanation
    A business area is a logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to specific data requirements. It allows users to easily access and analyze data related to their specific area of interest or responsibility. By organizing tables and views into business areas, users can efficiently navigate and retrieve the data they need for reporting and analysis purposes.

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  • 19. 

    WHAT TYPE OF JOIN IS BASE ON A ONE TO ONE OR ONE TO MANY RELATIONSHIP?

    • A.

      OUTER

    • B.

      INNER

    • C.

      CROSS

    • D.

      MULTIPLE

    Correct Answer
    B. INNER
    Explanation
    INNER join is based on a one-to-one or one-to-many relationship. It returns only the matching rows from both tables involved in the join. It combines rows from two tables based on a related column between them. Only the rows with matching values are included in the result set.

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  • 20. 

    WHAT TYPE OF JOIN IS BASED ON ONE TO ONE, ONE TO-MANY RELATIONSHIP?

    • A.

      OUTER

    • B.

      CROSS

    • C.

      MULTIPLE

    • D.

      INNER

    Correct Answer
    A. OUTER
    Explanation
    An OUTER join is based on a one-to-one or one-to-many relationship. This type of join includes all the rows from one table and only the matching rows from the other table. It also includes the unmatched rows from one or both tables, depending on the type of OUTER join used. Therefore, an OUTER join is the correct answer as it allows for the inclusion of unmatched rows in the join result.

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  • 21. 

    WHICH WORKSHEET ITEM ENABLES YOU TO SUMMARIZE ROWS AND COLUMS QUICKLY AND EASILY?

    • A.

      SORTS

    • B.

      TOTALS

    • C.

      PARAMETERS

    • D.

      CALCULATIONS

    Correct Answer
    B. TOTALS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TOTALS. The TOTALS worksheet item enables you to summarize rows and columns quickly and easily. It allows you to calculate the total of a specific row or column by adding up the values in that row or column. This can be useful for creating summaries or performing calculations on a large dataset without manually adding up each individual value.

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  • 22. 

    WHAT IS USED TO PROCESS PRE-DEFINED REPORTS AND MODIFY THE DISPLAY OF RESULTS IN A WORKSHEET?

    • A.

      DISCOVERER REPORTER

    • B.

      DISCOVERER VIEWER

    • C.

      DISCOVERER QUERY

    • D.

      DISCOVER PLUS

    Correct Answer
    B. DISCOVERER VIEWER
    Explanation
    The Discoverer Viewer is used to process pre-defined reports and modify the display of results in a worksheet. It allows users to view and interact with pre-built reports, making it easier to navigate and analyze data. The Discoverer Viewer provides a user-friendly interface for modifying the layout, formatting, and filtering of data in a worksheet, providing a more customized and tailored view of the results.

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  • 23. 

    IN DISCOVERER, WHAT FUNCTION ALLOWS YOU TO TRANSFER DATA TO OTHER APPLICATION FORMATS?

    • A.

      REPORT

    • B.

      IMPORT

    • C.

      EXPORT

    • D.

      PRINT

    Correct Answer
    C. EXPORT
    Explanation
    The function in Discoverer that allows you to transfer data to other application formats is the EXPORT function. This feature enables users to extract and save data from Discoverer reports in various file formats, such as Excel, CSV, or PDF. By selecting the EXPORT option, users can easily transfer and share data with other applications, making it more convenient for analysis and reporting purposes.

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  • 24. 

    WHAT SYSTEM PROVIDES THE ABILITY TO MAKE REPAIR, DEPLOYMENT, SOURCING, MAINTENANCE, ACQUISTION, RE-DISTRIBUTION, FORCASTING, AND OTHER MANAGEMENT DECESION?

    • A.

      ESS

    • B.

      ORACLE DISCOVER PLUS

    • C.

      SATS

    • D.

      WEAPONS SYSTEM MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEMS

    Correct Answer
    A. ESS
    Explanation
    The ESS (Executive Support System) provides the ability to make repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenance, acquisition, redistribution, forecasting, and other management decisions. ESS is a computer-based system that provides top-level executives with easy access to relevant information from various sources, allowing them to analyze data and make strategic decisions. It is designed to support the decision-making process by providing timely and accurate information that is essential for effective management.

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  • 25. 

    THE INTENT OF THE ENTERPRISE ASSET VISIBILITY COMPONENT IS TO PROVIDE COMPLETE VISIBLITY OF AIR FORCE.....

    • A.

      OWNED ASSETS

    • B.

      SOURCED ASSETS

    • C.

      ASSET SHORTAGES

    • D.

      REPAIRABLE ASSETS

    Correct Answer
    A. OWNED ASSETS
    Explanation
    The intent of the enterprise asset visibility component is to provide complete visibility of owned assets. This means that the component aims to give a comprehensive view of all the assets that belong to the Air Force. It allows for tracking and monitoring of these assets, ensuring that they are accounted for and properly managed. By having visibility of owned assets, the Air Force can make informed decisions regarding resource allocation, maintenance, and overall asset management.

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  • 26. 

    ONE OF THE PRIMARY FUNCTIONS THAT ES-S OFFERS IS THE ABILITY TO

    • A.

      UPDATE ORDERS IN THE SATS

    • B.

      MIGRATE ORDERS IN WMIS

    • C.

      TRANSFER ORDERS INTO DISCOVERER

    • D.

      INPUT ORDERS INTO THE LEGACY SBSS

    Correct Answer
    D. INPUT ORDERS INTO THE LEGACY SBSS
    Explanation
    ES-S offers the ability to input orders into the legacy SBSS system. This means that users can use ES-S to enter orders into the legacy SBSS system, which is a part of the primary functions of ES-S.

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  • 27. 

    IN ES-S WHICH IS NOT A TYPE OF  ORDER PROVIDED BY THE ORDER PLACEMENT PAGE?

    • A.

      REQUISTION

    • B.

      COMMON ISSUE

    • C.

      DEPOT RETAIL ISSUE

    • D.

      MAINTENANCE ISSUE

    Correct Answer
    D. MAINTENANCE ISSUE
    Explanation
    The question asks which type of order is not provided by the order placement page in ES-S. The options given are requisition, common issue, depot retail issue, and maintenance issue. The correct answer is "maintenance issue" because it is the only option that is not a type of order. Requisition, common issue, and depot retail issue are all types of orders that can be placed through the order placement page, but maintenance issue is not.

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  • 28. 

    ES-S PROVIDED THE CAPABILITY TO QUERY AND VIEW ORDERS IN WHAT THREE LEGACY SYSTEMS?

    • A.

      D035A,D035K,SBSS

    • B.

      SBSS, SATS, D043

    • C.

      D035A, SATS, SBSS

    • D.

      D035K,D043,D035A

    Correct Answer
    A. D035A,D035K,SBSS
    Explanation
    ES-S provided the capability to query and view orders in the D035A, D035K, and SBSS legacy systems.

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  • 29. 

    WHAT FUNCTION PROVIDED THE ABILITY TO QUERY ALL ES-S TRANSACTIONS FROM A SINGLE USER INTERFACE?

    • A.

      ASSET QUERY

    • B.

      AUDIT DATA QUERY

    • C.

      PROCESS ORDERS QUERY

    • D.

      PROCESS SBSS TRANSACTIONS

    Correct Answer
    B. AUDIT DATA QUERY
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AUDIT DATA QUERY. This function allows users to query all ES-S transactions from a single user interface. By using the audit data query, users can easily retrieve and analyze transaction data related to ES-S processes. This function provides a convenient way to access and review the audit trail of transactions, ensuring transparency and accountability in the system.

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  • 30. 

    THE AUDIT DATA QUERY ENHANCES YOUR ABILITY TO QUERY TRANSACTION INFORMATION FOR WHAT TYPES OF AUDITS?

    • A.

      SBSS AND SATS

    • B.

      SINGLE AND MULTIPLE

    • C.

      INTERNAL AND EXTERNAL

    • D.

      ISSUE AND REQUISITION

    Correct Answer
    C. INTERNAL AND EXTERNAL
    Explanation
    The audit data query enhances your ability to query transaction information for both internal and external audits. This means that you can use this feature to retrieve and analyze transaction data for audits conducted within your organization as well as audits conducted by external entities such as regulatory bodies or external auditors. This allows you to have a comprehensive view of your organization's financial activities and ensure compliance with both internal policies and external regulations.

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  • 31. 

    WHAT ON-LINE SYSTEM COMBINES THE ISSUE,SHIPMENT,RECEIPT AND TRANSFER OF WHOLESALE AND RETAIL MATERIAL?

    • A.

      SCS

    • B.

      LINK

    • C.

      VLIPS

    • D.

      SAMMS

    Correct Answer
    A. SCS
    Explanation
    SCS stands for Supply Chain System. This system combines the issue, shipment, receipt, and transfer of wholesale and retail material. It is an online system that helps manage and track the movement of goods from suppliers to retailers. SCS streamlines the supply chain process, ensuring that materials are delivered efficiently and accurately. It helps businesses keep track of inventory, reduce costs, and improve customer satisfaction.

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  • 32. 

    WHAT AUTOMATED SYSTEMS PURPOSE IS TO MAINTAIN VISIBILITY OF AIR FORCE OWNED RECOVERABLE ASSETS AND LEVELS BY REPORTING WORLDWIDE LOCATION?

    • A.

      RECOVERABLE CONSUMPTION ITMES REQUISITION SYSTEMS

    • B.

      RECOVERABLE ITEM INPUT VALIDATION SYSTEM

    • C.

      RECOVERABLE ASSEMBLY PROCESS

    • D.

      RECOVERABLE ITEM SIMULATION CAPABILITY

    Correct Answer
    C. RECOVERABLE ASSEMBLY PROCESS
    Explanation
    The purpose of the automated system mentioned in the question is to maintain visibility of Air Force owned recoverable assets and levels by reporting their worldwide location. This suggests that the system is responsible for tracking and monitoring the location of these assets, ensuring that they can be easily located and accounted for when needed. The option "Recoverable Assembly Process" aligns with this purpose as it implies a system that oversees the assembly and maintenance of recoverable assets, which would require tracking their location.

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  • 33. 

    WHICH SYSTEM PROVIDES THE USER WITH INFORMATION ON THEIR REQUISITIONS, WITH EMpHASIS PLACED ON THE FLIGHT LINE BASE LEVEL USER?

    • A.

      TRACKER

    • B.

      RAMPS

    • C.

      LINK

    • D.

      SCS

    Correct Answer
    A. TRACKER
    Explanation
    Tracker is the system that provides the user with information on their requisitions, with emphasis placed on the flight line base level user.

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  • 34. 

    WHAT TYPE OF MATERIAL IS OBTAINED THROUGH THE DEFENSE REUTILIZATION AND MARKETING SERVICE?

    • A.

      FREE ISSUE

    • B.

      AUCTIONED

    • C.

      SMALL VALUED

    • D.

      SCRATCH AND DENT

    Correct Answer
    A. FREE ISSUE
    Explanation
    The material obtained through the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service is provided for free.

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  • 35. 

    WHAT SYSTEM GIVES YOU VISIBILITY OF WHOLESALE, RETAIL AND SURPLUS ASSETS IN THE SERVICE AND DLA INVENTORIES?

    • A.

      LINK

    • B.

      WEBCATS

    • C.

      VLIPPS

    • D.

      SAMMS

    Correct Answer
    A. LINK
    Explanation
    The correct answer is LINK. The LINK system provides visibility of wholesale, retail, and surplus assets in the Service and Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) inventories.

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  • 36. 

    WHAT SYSTEM PROVIDES REAL-TIME ACCESS TO TRANSACTIONAL INFORMATION THAT HAS PASSED THROUGH THE DEFENSE AUTOMATED ADDRESSING SYSTEMS?

    • A.

      WEB CUSTOMER ACCOUNT TRACKING SYSTEM

    • B.

      LOGISTICS PERFORMANCE ASSESSMENT SYSTEM

    • C.

      DYNA-METRICS MICROCOMPUTER ANALYSIS SYSTEM

    • D.

      VISUAL LOGISTICS INFORMATION PROCESSING SYSTEM (VLIPS)

    Correct Answer
    D. VISUAL LOGISTICS INFORMATION PROCESSING SYSTEM (VLIPS)
    Explanation
    The Visual Logistics Information Processing System (VLIPS) provides real-time access to transactional information that has passed through the Defense Automated Addressing Systems. This system allows users to track and manage customer accounts, assess logistics performance, and analyze data using microcomputers. It is designed to provide efficient and accurate information processing for logistics operations.

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  • 37. 

    WHAT HAS THE CAPABILITY TO SUPPORT MULTIPLE FULL SBSS ACCOUNTS?

    • A.

      DECC

    • B.

      HQ SSG

    • C.

      LSC

    • D.

      OSSG

    Correct Answer
    A. DECC
    Explanation
    DECC (Defense Enterprise Computing Center) has the capability to support multiple full SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) accounts. DECC is a centralized computing facility that provides information technology services to the Department of Defense. It is responsible for managing and maintaining the SBSS, which is a comprehensive automated supply system used by the military to manage and track supplies and inventory. DECC's infrastructure and resources allow it to handle multiple SBSS accounts efficiently, ensuring smooth operations and support for various military units and organizations.

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  • 38. 

    ESTABLISHING CONNECTIVITY BETWEEN A DESKTOP PC AND THE MAINFRAME COMPUTER IS DONE WITH WHAT KIND OF EMULATION PROGRAM

    • A.

      TERMINAL

    • B.

      INTRANET

    • C.

      INTERNET

    • D.

      PORTAL

    Correct Answer
    A. TERMINAL
    Explanation
    Establishing connectivity between a desktop PC and a mainframe computer is done with a terminal emulation program. A terminal emulation program allows the desktop PC to emulate a terminal, which enables it to connect to and interact with the mainframe computer. It provides the necessary protocols and interfaces to establish a connection and transfer data between the two systems.

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  • 39. 

    WHAT APPLICATION GIVES YOU ACCESS TO THE GREEN SCREENS COMMON IN THE DAYS BEFORE THE PERSONAL COMPUTER?

    • A.

      ACCESS TO THE INTERNET

    • B.

      INTERNET EXPLORER

    • C.

      INFOCONNECT

    • D.

      SBSS

    Correct Answer
    C. INFOCONNECT
    Explanation
    InfoConnect is the application that gives you access to the green screens commonly used before the personal computer era. Green screens were used in the early days of computing when computers were text-based and did not have graphical user interfaces. InfoConnect is a terminal emulation software that allows users to connect to mainframe systems and access green screen interfaces. It provides a way to interact with these legacy systems and perform tasks through a text-based interface.

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  • 40. 

    WHAT FEATURE INCLUDES THE SETTINGS NEEDED FOR UPLOAD AND DOWNLOAD OF FILES TO AND FROM THE UNISYS 2200 OPERATING SYSTEM?

    • A.

      IP

    • B.

      FTP

    • C.

      TCP

    • D.

      SMTP

    Correct Answer
    B. FTP
    Explanation
    FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is the correct answer because it is a standard network protocol that includes the necessary settings for uploading and downloading files to and from the Unisys 2200 operating system. FTP allows users to transfer files between their local system and a remote server, making it an essential feature for file management and sharing. IP (Internet Protocol), TCP (Transmission Control Protocol), and SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) are not specifically designed for file transfer and do not include the necessary settings for uploading and downloading files.

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  • 41. 

    WHAT IS IT CALLED WHEN DATA IS MOVED FROM SBSS TO OUR LOCAL PERSONAL COMPUTER

    • A.

      DOWNLOADING

    • B.

      COPYING

    • C.

      UPLOADING

    • D.

      TRANSFERRING

    Correct Answer
    A. DOWNLOADING
    Explanation
    When data is moved from SBSS to our local personal computer, it is referred to as downloading. This process involves retrieving data from a remote server or database and saving it onto our personal computer for offline access or further use.

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  • 42. 

    IN ORDER FOR A PROGRAM TO INTERFACE VIA INTERACTIVE COMMUNICATIONS INTERFACE (ICI), HOW MANY SYSTEMS MUST RESIDE ON EACH HOST?

    • A.

      ONE

    • B.

      TWO

    • C.

      THREE

    • D.

      FOUR

    Correct Answer
    A. ONE
    Explanation
    In order for a program to interface via Interactive Communications Interface (ICI), only one system must reside on each host. This means that each host only needs to have a single system in order to establish communication and interact with other programs.

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  • 43. 

    WHAT TYPE OF VARIABLE BEGINS WITH A DOLLAR ($) SIGN AND HAVE PRESET NAMES?

    • A.

      SYSTEM

    • B.

      SET

    • C.

      USER

    • D.

      NOTATION

    Correct Answer
    A. SYSTEM
    Explanation
    Variables that begin with a dollar sign ($) and have preset names are commonly referred to as system variables. These variables are predefined and typically used to store information related to the system or environment in which the program is running. They often provide important information or control certain aspects of the system's behavior.

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  • 44. 

    WHAT INTERACTIVE PROCESSING FACILITY COMMANDS ALLOWS YOU TO ADD IMAGES SAVED IN OTHER FILES TO YOUR JOB STREAM?

    • A.

      IN

    • B.

      ADD

    • C.

      CALL

    • D.

      ACCEPT

    Correct Answer
    A. IN
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "IN". The IN command in Interactive Processing Facility allows you to add images saved in other files to your job stream. This command is used to include or insert the contents of another file into the current job stream, allowing you to incorporate images or data from external sources into your processing.

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  • 45. 

    WHICH INTERACTIVE PROCESSING FACILITY COMMAND CHANGES THE NAME OF THE WORKSPACE?

    • A.

      XQT

    • B.

      NAME

    • C.

      ACCEP

    • D.

      CHANGE

    Correct Answer
    B. NAME
    Explanation
    The command "NAME" is used to change the name of the workspace in the interactive processing facility.

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  • 46. 

    IN INTERACTIVE PROCESSING FACILITY, WHAT ARE THE TWO EDITING MODES WITHIN THE FULLSCREEN MODE?

    • A.

      EDIT,UPDATE

    • B.

      INPUT, EDIT

    • C.

      INPUT, OUTPUT

    • D.

      UPDATE,INPUT

    Correct Answer
    B. INPUT, EDIT
    Explanation
    The two editing modes within the fullscreen mode in Interactive Processing Facility are INPUT and EDIT. In the INPUT mode, users can enter data or information into the system, while in the EDIT mode, users can modify or make changes to the existing data or information. These two modes provide users with the ability to interactively process and manipulate data within the fullscreen mode of the system.

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  • 47. 

    WHICH COMMAND ALLOWS YOU TO PRINT ALL OR PART OF THE SPECIFIED IMAGES IN YOUR WORKSPACE AT THE ONSITE OR REMOTE PRINTER?

    • A.

      RECALL

    • B.

      PRINT

    • C.

      SITE

    • D.

      XQT

    Correct Answer
    B. PRINT
    Explanation
    The command "PRINT" allows you to print all or part of the specified images in your workspace at the onsite or remote printer.

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  • 48. 

    THE SUPPLY INTERFACE SYSTEM RESIDUE IMAGES ARE CONSIDERED DELIQUENT AFTER HOW MANY HOURS

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      36

    • C.

      48

    • D.

      72

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    The supply interface system residue images are considered delinquent after 24 hours. This means that if the residue images are not addressed or resolved within 24 hours, they are considered overdue or late. It is important to promptly attend to these residue images to ensure the smooth functioning of the supply interface system.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 13, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Mcdynasti2
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