1.
A trading member shall be deemed guilty of misconduct if he fails to _______
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
A trading member can be deemed guilty of misconduct if they fail to submit their audited accounts to the Exchange, pay their subscription, fees, arbitration charges, or any other money due to the exchange, or if they submit false or misleading statements in their clearing forms. These actions or omissions go against the expected standards and responsibilities of a trading member and can be considered as misconduct.
2.
The Message Window in the NEAT system allows a user to view messages
broadcast by the Exchange such as, __________
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
The Message Window in the NEAT system allows a user to view messages broadcast by the Exchange such as corporate actions, market news, and auctions related information. This means that all of the given options are correct and can be viewed in the Message Window.
3.
100 share of Reliance Ltd. are purchased on Monday. Provided there are no
holidays in between, settlement should take place on ______ ?
Correct Answer
A. Wednesday (T+2)
Explanation
Settlement for the purchase of shares typically takes place on T+2, which means two business days after the trade date. In this case, the shares were purchased on Monday (T), so the settlement would occur on Wednesday (T+2).
4.
______ is a volume related order condition.
Correct Answer
C. An order with a Disclosed Quantity (DQ)
Explanation
An order with a Disclosed Quantity (DQ) is a volume related order condition. This means that when placing the order, the trader specifies the minimum quantity that should be displayed to the market. The remaining quantity is kept hidden. This allows the trader to disclose only a certain portion of the total order volume, while keeping the rest undisclosed.
5.
The branch manager receives End of Day reports for _________.
Correct Answer
C. All the dealers under that branch
Explanation
The branch manager receives End of Day reports for all the dealers under that branch. This means that the reports include information from all the dealers who work under the same branch as the manager.
6.
The following facility allows the user to have a drop down list of client codes at
the account field:
Correct Answer
D. Client Master Maintenance
Explanation
Client Master Maintenance is the correct answer because it is the facility that allows the user to have a drop down list of client codes at the account field. The other options, such as Client List Master, Client Database Master, and Client Code Master, do not specify that they provide this specific functionality.
7.
When the user invokes the order entry screen, the field(s) that are (is) taken as
default are (is) __________.
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
When the user invokes the order entry screen, all of the fields, including Symbol, Series, and Book Type, are taken as default values. This means that when the user opens the order entry screen, these fields will already have pre-filled values, which can be modified if needed.
8.
In case the security has not been traded on a particular day, ________ at the
NSE is to be considered as the closing price.?
Correct Answer
C. The latest available closing price
Explanation
If the security has not been traded on a particular day, the latest available closing price at the NSE is to be considered as the closing price. This means that if there is no trading activity for a security on a specific day, the closing price from the most recent day where trading occurred will be used as the closing price for that day. This ensures that there is still a closing price available for the security, even if there was no trading activity on a particular day.
9.
Auction is held in PQR for 10,000 shares.
The closing price of PQR on that day was Rs.259.00
The last traded price of PQR on that day was Rs.254.0
The close price of PQR last Friday was Rs.255.00
The previous day's close price of PQR was Rs.264.00
What is the maximum allowable price at which the member can put a sell order
in the auction for PQR? (Assume Price Band applicable for Auction market is +/ -
20%)
Correct Answer
A. Rs. 316.80
Explanation
The maximum allowable price at which the member can put a sell order in the auction for PQR is Rs. 316.80. This is calculated by applying the price band of +/- 20% to the previous day's close price of Rs. 264.00. Adding 20% to Rs. 264.00 gives Rs. 316.80, which is the maximum allowable price.
10.
A trading member on the NSE, has a branch order value of Rs. 950 lakh for his
Mumbai branch and Rs. 600 lakh for Delhi branch. Mumbai branch has two
users 'X' and 'Y' with user order value limits of Rs. 300 lakh and Rs. 400 lakh
respectively. Delhi branch has one user 'Z' with user order value limit of Rs.
550 lakh. The member applies for a new user at Mumbai. What is the maximum
user order value that can be set for the new user?
Correct Answer
C. Rs. 250 lakh
Explanation
The maximum user order value that can be set for the new user is Rs. 250 lakh. This is because the Mumbai branch has a total branch order value of Rs. 950 lakh, and the existing users 'X' and 'Y' have order value limits of Rs. 300 lakh and Rs. 400 lakh respectively. Therefore, the remaining order value that can be allocated to the new user is Rs. 250 lakh.
11.
Securities and funds pay out takes place on ______ working days after the
trade date
Correct Answer
C. ‘T+1’
Explanation
The correct answer is 'T+1'. In securities and funds trading, the term 'T+1' refers to the settlement period, which is the number of working days after the trade date when the pay out takes place. In this case, the pay out occurs one working day after the trade date.
12.
NSE has implemented ______________ in compulsory rolling settlement with
effect from July 02, 2001.
Correct Answer
B. Index-based market-wide circuit breakers
Explanation
The correct answer is "index-based market-wide circuit breakers". This means that the NSE (National Stock Exchange) has implemented circuit breakers that are triggered based on the movement of the overall market index. These circuit breakers are designed to temporarily halt trading in the event of significant market declines in order to prevent panic selling and provide time for investors to reassess their positions.
13.
The c lients introduced by an authorised person to a trading member, would
be required to deliver securities and make payments directly in the trade
name of the trading member. True or False?
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement is true because when clients are introduced by an authorized person to a trading member, they are required to deliver securities and make payments directly in the trade name of the trading member. This means that the clients cannot make the transactions in their own name but must use the trading member's name.
14.
Security wise User Order Quantity Limit (SUOQL) can be modified anytime
during trading hours. True or False?
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The given statement is true. Security wise User Order Quantity Limit (SUOQL) can be modified anytime during trading hours. This means that users have the flexibility to adjust their order quantity limit as per their requirements and market conditions. This allows them to effectively manage their trading activities and mitigate risks.
15.
______ can be traded in the Limited Physical Market?
Correct Answer
C. Odd lots
Explanation
Odd lots can be traded in the Limited Physical Market. Odd lots refer to a number of shares that is less than the standard trading unit or board lot. These odd lots are usually considered less liquid and may have difficulty finding buyers or sellers in the regular market. Therefore, a separate market, known as the Limited Physical Market, allows for the trading of odd lots. In this market, investors can buy or sell odd lots of shares, which provides them with the opportunity to trade smaller quantities that may not be available in the regular market.
16.
Securities Delivered Statement: This statement provides information on ______?
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
The Securities Delivered Statement provides information on all of the above options, including the delivering centre, the total number of shares to deliver for each security, and the quantity delivered and quantity of shares delivered short. This statement is comprehensive and includes all relevant information regarding the delivery of securities.
17.
If a client buys shares worth Rs. 5,25,000 and sells shares worth Rs. 4,75,000 , (Brokerage rate -2%)
through a broker, then the maximum brokerage payable to broker is ___.
Correct Answer
C. Rs. 10,500
Explanation
If a client buys shares worth Rs. 5,25,000 and sells shares worth Rs. 4,75,000 through a broker with a brokerage rate of 2%, the maximum brokerage payable is calculated based on the higher transaction value. In this case, the maximum brokerage would be 2% of the purchase transaction value, which amounts to Rs. 10,500. This is the highest amount the client would pay as brokerage for these transactions.
18.
An advertisement released by a trading member can contain a recommendation
regarding purchase or sale of any particular share or security of any company.
True or False?
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
False. An advertisement released by a trading member cannot contain a recommendation regarding the purchase or sale of any particular share or security of any company.
19.
No payment for transaction in which a Trading Member is taking position as a
principal will be allowed to be made from the client’s account?
Correct Answer
B. True
Explanation
In order to ensure transparency and protect the interests of clients, a trading member cannot use the client's account to make payments for transactions in which they are taking a position as a principal. However, if the client approves the payment, then it is allowed. Therefore, the statement "No payment for transaction in which a Trading Member is taking position as a principal will be allowed to be made from the client's account" is true.
20.
The Trading Members shall keep the dematerialised securities of Constituents
in a separate beneficiary account distinct from the beneficiary account
maintained for holding their own dematerialised securities. True or False?
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement is true because trading members are required to keep the dematerialised securities of constituents in a separate beneficiary account from their own dematerialised securities. This ensures that the securities of constituents are not mixed with the trading members' own securities and helps maintain transparency and accountability in the trading process.
21.
___________ assumes the counter party risk of each member and guarantees
financial settlement.
Correct Answer
D. The National Securities Clearing Corporation Ltd. (NSCCL)
Explanation
The National Securities Clearing Corporation Ltd. (NSCCL) assumes the counterparty risk of each member and guarantees financial settlement. This means that if a member fails to fulfill their financial obligations, NSCCL will step in and ensure that the settlement is completed. This provides a level of security and confidence to the members of the clearing corporation. SEBI is the Securities and Exchange Board of India, which is the regulatory body for the securities market in India. Central Depository Services Ltd. (CDSL) and The National Depository Services Ltd. (NSDL) are depository organizations that facilitate the holding and transfer of securities in electronic form.
22.
What does 'OM' indicate as an activity in the 'Activity Log' screen in the NEAT
system?
Correct Answer
D. Order Modified
Explanation
In the 'Activity Log' screen in the NEAT system, 'OM' indicates an activity of 'Order Modified'. This means that there has been a change or modification made to an existing order in the system. It could be a change in the quantity, price, or any other parameter of the order. This activity log helps in tracking and monitoring the changes made to orders for better transparency and record-keeping.
23.
One of the requirements for admission to membership on the NSE is to pass
an on-line examination under NSE’s Certification in Financial Markets (NCFM).
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The given statement is true because it states that passing an online examination under NSE's Certification in Financial Markets (NCFM) is one of the requirements for admission to membership on the NSE. This implies that individuals who want to become members of the NSE need to successfully complete the NCFM certification exam.
24.
Where a recognised stock exchange acting in pursuance of any power given to
it by its bye-laws, refuses to list the securities of any company, the company
shall be entitled to be furnished with reasons for such refusal and the company
may appeal to the _________ against such refusal.
Correct Answer
C. Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT)
Explanation
When a recognized stock exchange refuses to list the securities of a company, the company has the right to know the reasons for the refusal. In such cases, the company can appeal to the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) against the stock exchange's decision. SAT is an appellate body that hears and resolves appeals related to securities market regulations. Therefore, SAT is the appropriate authority for the company to approach and challenge the stock exchange's refusal to list their securities.
25.
Surveillance and Control (SURCON) is that period after market close during
which, the users have _______ only.
Correct Answer
D. Inquiry access
Explanation
During the period of Surveillance and Control (SURCON) after market close, users are only allowed to have inquiry access. This means that they can view and gather information about the market and their own trades, but they do not have the ability to enter new orders, cancel trades, or modify existing trades. This restriction is put in place to ensure that the market remains stable and secure during this time when trading is not actively taking place.
26.
A stock-broker shall not encourage sales or purchases of securities with the
sole object of generating brokerage or commission. Is the above statement
True or False, under the Code of Conduct Guidelines prescribed under SEBI
(Stock Brokers & Sub-brokers) Regulations, 1992.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement is true under the Code of Conduct Guidelines prescribed under SEBI (Stock Brokers & Sub-brokers) Regulations, 1992. According to these guidelines, a stock-broker is prohibited from encouraging sales or purchases of securities solely for the purpose of generating brokerage or commission. This ensures that stock-brokers prioritize the best interests of their clients rather than their own financial gain.
27.
At the end of the trade cycle, the trades are _______ to determine the
obligations of the trading members to deliver securities/funds as per
settlement schedule.
Correct Answer
C. Netted
Explanation
At the end of the trade cycle, the trades are "netted" to determine the obligations of the trading members to deliver securities/funds as per the settlement schedule. Netting refers to the process of offsetting the buy and sell transactions of the trading members to determine the net position, which reduces the overall number of transactions and simplifies the settlement process.
28.
The NSCCL interposes itself as a central counterparty between the
counterparties to trades and nets the positions so that a member has security
wise net obligation to receive or deliver a security and has to either pay or
receive funds. True or False?
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The explanation for the correct answer "True" is that the NSCCL (National Securities Clearing Corporation Limited) acts as a central counterparty between the counterparties involved in trades. It helps to streamline the process by netting the positions, meaning that it calculates the overall position of each member and determines their net obligation to either receive or deliver a security. Additionally, it ensures that the necessary funds are either paid or received by the member. Therefore, the statement is true.
29.
For liquid securities, the VaR margins are based on the ________ of the
Security.
Correct Answer
A. Volatility
Explanation
The VaR (Value at Risk) margins for liquid securities are based on the volatility of the security. Volatility refers to the degree of variation or fluctuation in the price or value of a security over time. Higher volatility indicates greater potential for price swings, which increases the risk associated with the security. Therefore, using volatility as a basis for VaR margins helps to account for the potential losses that may occur due to price fluctuations in liquid securities.
30.
The stamp duty on transfer of demat securities has been waived. True or
False?
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement is true. The stamp duty on transfer of demat securities has been waived, meaning that there is no longer a fee or tax imposed on the transfer of securities held in dematerialized form. This is a beneficial development for investors as it reduces the cost associated with transferring securities and encourages more trading activity in the market.
31.
No person shall be admitted as trading member of a recognized stock exc hange
if he has been adjudged bankrupt or a receiver order in bankruptcy has been
made against him or he has been proved to be insolvent even though he has
obtained his final discharge. True or False?
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
According to the given statement, a person cannot be admitted as a trading member of a recognized stock exchange if they have been adjudged bankrupt or a receiver order in bankruptcy has been made against them, or if they have been proved to be insolvent even if they have obtained their final discharge. This implies that the statement is true, as it states a condition that must be met for someone to be admitted as a trading member.
32.
The stop loss orders are prioritised in the stop loss book with the __________________
Correct Answer
A. Most likely order to trigger first and the least likely to trigger last.
Explanation
The correct answer is "most likely order to trigger first and the least likely to trigger last." This means that the stop loss orders are organized in a way where the orders that are most likely to be triggered are given priority and will be executed first, while the orders that are less likely to be triggered are placed lower in the priority and will be executed last.
33.
The orders with ______ attribute disclose only a part of the total order quantity
to the market.
Correct Answer
C. Disclosed Quantity (DQ)
Explanation
The correct answer is Disclosed Quantity (DQ). When an order has the Disclosed Quantity attribute, it means that only a portion of the total order quantity is revealed to the market. The remaining quantity is kept hidden. This allows traders to disclose a specific quantity to the market while keeping the rest of their order size confidential. By using the DQ attribute, traders can control the amount of information they reveal to the market, which can be useful in certain trading strategies.
34.
Two buy orders enter into the system and are unmatched :
1) 200 shares @ Rs. 72.75 at time 10:30 a.m.
2) 300 shares @ Rs. 72.75 at time 10:31 a.m.
Which order will get a priority for getting executed.
Correct Answer
A. Order no. 1.
Explanation
Order no. 1 will get a priority for getting executed because it entered into the system first, at 10:30 a.m., while Order no. 2 entered at 10:31 a.m. Since both orders have the same price, the order that enters the system first is given priority.
35.
Statement 1 : An active buy order matches with the best passive sell order if
the price of the passive sell order is less than or equal to the price of the active
buy order.
Statement 2 : An passive buy order matches with the best active sell order if
the price of the passive buy order is less than or equal to the price of the active
sell order.
Which of the above statements is True?
Correct Answer
B. Statement 1
Explanation
Statement 1 is true because it states that an active buy order will match with the best passive sell order if the price of the passive sell order is less than or equal to the price of the active buy order. This means that the buyer is willing to pay the same or a higher price than the seller is offering, resulting in a successful match.
36.
The pre-set Market price protection percentage is by default set to _____ of
the LTP
Correct Answer
D. 5%
Explanation
The pre-set Market price protection percentage is set to 5% of the Last Traded Price (LTP). This means that if the LTP of a stock is $100, the market price protection will ensure that the stock cannot be traded at a price lower than $95 (5% lower than the LTP). This protection mechanism helps prevent sudden and drastic price drops, providing a certain level of stability and security for investors.
37.
A user can simultaneously view a regular inquiry (e.g. MBP) and the Snap
Quote display on the trading screen. True or False?
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
A user can simultaneously view a regular inquiry (e.g. MBP) and the Snap Quote display on the trading screen. This means that the user can have both the regular inquiry and the Snap Quote display open at the same time, allowing them to view both pieces of information simultaneously.
38.
Fixed Deposit Receipts (FDRs) issued by approved banks can be submitted as
a(n) ___________ to NSCCL by trading members.
Correct Answer
D. Additional base capital
Explanation
Trading members can submit Fixed Deposit Receipts (FDRs) issued by approved banks as additional base capital to NSCCL. This means that FDRs can be used as a form of collateral or security to increase the capital base of trading members.
39.
A trading member on the NSE, has set the branch order value unlimited for his
Chennai branch and Rs. 800 lakh for Kolkata branch. Chennai branch has two
users 'X' and 'Y' with user order limits of Rs. 550 lakh and Rs. 500 lakh
respectively. Kolkata branch has one user 'Z' with user order value limit of Rs.
550 lakh. The member applies for a new user at Kolkata. What is the maximum
user order value that can be set for the new user?
Correct Answer
D. Rs. 250 lakh
Explanation
The maximum user order value that can be set for the new user is Rs. 250 lakh. This is because the trading member has set the branch order value for Kolkata branch to be Rs. 800 lakh, and there is already one user 'Z' with a user order value limit of Rs. 550 lakh. Since the branch order value is not unlimited for Kolkata branch, the new user cannot have a user order value limit higher than the remaining branch order value, which is Rs. 250 lakh.
40.
Upfront margin rates applicable for all securities in Trade for Trade - segment
(TT) is ______.
Correct Answer
B. 100%
Explanation
The upfront margin rate applicable for all securities in the Trade for Trade (TT) segment is 100%. This means that traders are required to deposit 100% of the value of the securities they wish to trade as margin before placing the trade. This ensures that there is sufficient collateral to cover any potential losses in the trade.
41.
Penalties are charged to members for _____________
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
Penalties are charged to members for all of the above reasons. This means that members can be penalized for failing to fulfill their funds obligations, failing to fulfill their securities deliverable obligations, and for margin shortages. In other words, any failure to meet their financial and contractual obligations can result in penalties being imposed on members.
42.
Rahul is supposed to receive Rs. 1,00,000 from Chandra after 3 years. If the
interest rate is 8%, what is the present value of the amount due from
Chandra?
Correct Answer
B. 79,383.22
Explanation
The present value of the amount due from Chandra can be calculated using the formula for present value of a future amount. The formula is: Present Value = Future Value / (1 + Interest Rate)^n, where n is the number of years. In this case, the future value is Rs. 1,00,000, the interest rate is 8%, and the number of years is 3. Plugging in these values into the formula, the present value is calculated to be Rs. 79,383.22.
43.
Institutional transactions are identified by the use of the ________ at the time
of order entry.
Correct Answer
C. Participant code
Explanation
Institutional transactions are identified by the use of the participant code at the time of order entry. This code helps to distinguish and track transactions made by different participants within an institution. It is used to ensure accurate and efficient processing of orders and to maintain a record of the transactions made by each participant.
44.
Two sell orders enter into the system and are unmatched :
1) 200 shares @ Rs. 72.75 at time 10:30 a.m.
2) 300 shares @ Rs. 72.70 at time 10:31 a.m.
Which order will get a priority for getting executed.
Correct Answer
B. Order no. 2
Explanation
Order no. 2 will get a priority for getting executed because it was entered into the system later than order no. 1. In a first-come-first-serve system, the order that is entered first has a higher priority for execution. Therefore, since order no. 2 was entered at 10:31 a.m., after order no. 1 was entered at 10:30 a.m., it will have a higher priority and will be executed first.
45.
In NSCCL, a _______ is a clearing member but not a trading member.
Correct Answer
D. Custodian
Explanation
A custodian in NSCCL is a clearing member but not a trading member. A custodian is responsible for holding and safeguarding assets on behalf of clients. They do not engage in trading activities but instead focus on the safekeeping and administration of securities. Custodians play a crucial role in the clearing and settlement process by ensuring the smooth transfer of securities between trading members and maintaining accurate records of ownership.
46.
What does ‘AUI’ indicate as a message code in 'Full Message window' in the
NEAT system?
Correct Answer
A. Auction Initiation Messages
Explanation
AUI in the Full Message window in the NEAT system indicates Auction Initiation Messages. This means that the messages displayed in the Full Message window are specifically related to initiating auctions.
47.
Two buy orders enter into the system and are unmatched :
1) 200 shares @ Rs. 72.75 at time 10:30 a.m.
2) 300 shares @ Rs. 72.80 at time 10:31 a.m.
Which order will get a priority for getting executed.
Correct Answer
A. Order no. 1.
Explanation
In a stock exchange, the priority for order execution is typically determined by the time of entry into the system. The order that arrives first has higher priority.
In the given scenario:
1. The first buy order is for 200 shares at Rs. 72.75, entered at 10:30 a.m.
2. The second buy order is for 300 shares at Rs. 72.80, entered at 10:31 a.m.
Since the first order was entered into the system at an earlier time (10:30 a.m.), it will have a higher priority for execution compared to the second order entered at a later time (10:31 a.m.).
Therefore, the order with 200 shares at Rs. 72.75, entered at 10:30 a.m., will get priority for execution over the order for 300 shares at Rs. 72.80, entered at 10:31 a.m.
48.
NSCCL becomes the legal counterparty to the net settlement obligations of
every member. This principle is called ______.
Correct Answer
C. ‘novation
Explanation
The principle described in the question is called "novation." Novation refers to the substitution of a new party or obligation for an existing one. In this case, NSCCL becomes the legal counterparty to the net settlement obligations of every member, replacing the original parties involved.
49.
The trading members can participate in the Exchange initiated auctions by
entering orders as a ______.
Correct Answer
C. Solicitor
Explanation
In the context of the question, a solicitor is someone who actively participates in the Exchange initiated auctions by entering orders. The other options, participant and initiator, do not accurately describe the role of the trading members in these auctions. Therefore, the correct answer is solicitor.
50.
One of the Custodial Trade Reports is the ___________
Correct Answer
B. Custodial Trade Pending Confirmation
Explanation
The correct answer is "Custodial Trade Pending Confirmation". This report is one of the Custodial Trade Reports that provides information about trades that are awaiting confirmation from the custodian. It helps in tracking and managing trades that are in the confirmation process, ensuring timely settlement and reducing the risk of trade errors or discrepancies. The report is important for custodial institutions and investment managers to monitor and reconcile their trade activities.