1W071 CDC Practice Test: Quiz!

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    During military planning, the strategic level is?

    • A.

      The only level of military echelon that uses strategy planning

    • B.

      The lowest level of decision making when planning for contingencies

    • C.

      The highest level of decision making when planning for contingencies

    • D.

      The second largest group of military strategists within the war planning echelon

    Correct Answer
    C. The highest level of decision making when planning for contingencies
    Explanation
    The strategic level in military planning refers to the highest level of decision making when planning for contingencies. This level involves making long-term decisions and setting overall objectives and goals for the military operation. It focuses on the overall strategy and direction of the operation and involves high-ranking military officials and political leaders. At this level, decisions are made based on the assessment of the overall situation and the desired outcomes, taking into consideration various factors such as resources, capabilities, and potential risks.

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  • 2. 

    Joint operations planning is primarily the responsibility of the

    • A.

      Commander in chief (CINC)

    • B.

      Deployed forces commander

    • C.

      Chairman of the joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS)

    • D.

      Ranking group-level expeditionary commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Chairman of the joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS)
    Explanation
    The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) is responsible for joint operations planning. This individual is the highest-ranking military officer in the United States Armed Forces and serves as the principal military advisor to the President of the United States and the Secretary of Defense. As such, they are in a position to oversee and coordinate the planning and execution of joint operations involving multiple branches of the military. The Commander in Chief (CINC) is a term used to refer to the President of the United States, who has ultimate authority over the military but is not directly responsible for joint operations planning. The deployed forces commander and ranking group-level expeditionary commander may have roles in executing joint operations, but the primary responsibility for planning lies with the Chairman of the JCS.

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  • 3. 

    Crisis action planning differs from deliberate planning in that it's based on

    • A.

      Input from the staff weather officer

    • B.

      The inputs of weather and intelligence personnel

    • C.

      Current and past events, without regard to data sensitivity

    • D.

      Current events and conducted in time-sensitive situations and emergencies

    Correct Answer
    D. Current events and conducted in time-sensitive situations and emergencies
    Explanation
    Crisis action planning is different from deliberate planning because it is conducted in time-sensitive situations and emergencies. Unlike deliberate planning, which involves careful consideration and analysis of various factors, crisis action planning focuses on immediate actions that need to be taken based on current events. It is designed to address urgent and critical situations, without the luxury of time for extensive data gathering and analysis. This type of planning is essential in managing and responding effectively to crisis situations.

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  • 4. 

    For what does deliberate planning help to prepare?

    • A.

      All types of natural disasters that accurate forecasts can prevent.

    • B.

      The types of contingencies that are recognized as long term threats

    • C.

      The most likely contingencies that may occur in the near term future.

    • D.

      Weather related products that could prevent lost operating hours during deployments

    Correct Answer
    C. The most likely contingencies that may occur in the near term future.
    Explanation
    Deliberate planning helps to prepare for the most likely contingencies that may occur in the near term future. This means that by engaging in deliberate planning, individuals and organizations can anticipate and prepare for the events or situations that are most likely to happen in the near future. This allows them to develop strategies, allocate resources, and take appropriate actions to mitigate the impact of these contingencies and ensure better preparedness.

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  • 5. 

    What type of planning is aimed at assembling and organizing national resources to support national objectives during a time of war or for operations other than war?

    • A.

      Deliberate planning

    • B.

      Mobilization Planning

    • C.

      Crisis Action planning

    • D.

      Joint Operations Planning

    Correct Answer
    B. Mobilization Planning
    Explanation
    Mobilization planning is the type of planning that is aimed at assembling and organizing national resources to support national objectives during a time of war or for operations other than war. This type of planning involves the coordination and preparation of military forces, equipment, and supplies to ensure a swift and efficient response to a crisis or conflict. It involves the activation and deployment of reserve forces, the acquisition and allocation of resources, and the establishment of command and control structures. Mobilization planning is crucial in ensuring the readiness and effectiveness of a nation's military in times of need.

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  • 6. 

    Commanders use the joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield (JIPB) process to support all of the following except

    • A.

      Targeting

    • B.

      Special operations

    • C.

      Natural disaster relief

    • D.

      Counter air operations

    Correct Answer
    C. Natural disaster relief
    Explanation
    The joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield (JIPB) process is a method used by commanders to gather and analyze intelligence in order to support their decision-making process. This process is primarily used in military operations, such as targeting and counter air operations, as it helps commanders understand the enemy's capabilities and intentions. However, it is not typically used for natural disaster relief, as this type of operation focuses on humanitarian efforts rather than military tactics. Therefore, natural disaster relief is the correct answer as it is the only option that does not align with the purpose of the JIPB process.

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  • 7. 

    To what level(s) does the joint intelligence preparation fo the battlefield (JIPB) process apply?

    • A.

      Tactical

    • B.

      Strategic and Operational

    • C.

      Operational and Tactical

    • D.

      Operational, Strategic, and Tactical

    Correct Answer
    D. Operational, Strategic, and Tactical
    Explanation
    The joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield (JIPB) process applies to all three levels: operational, strategic, and tactical. This means that it is used to gather and analyze intelligence for planning and decision-making at all levels of military operations. By applying the JIPB process, commanders and staff can assess the enemy's capabilities and intentions, identify potential threats and vulnerabilities, and develop effective courses of action to achieve mission objectives. This comprehensive approach ensures that intelligence is integrated across all levels of command, enabling effective and coordinated operations.

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  • 8. 

    What is the last major step in the joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield (JIPB) process?

    • A.

      Define the battle space environment

    • B.

      Describe the battle space effects

    • C.

      Determine the adversary potential course of actions(COA).

    • D.

      Determine the current adversary situation.

    Correct Answer
    C. Determine the adversary potential course of actions(COA).
    Explanation
    The last major step in the joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield (JIPB) process is to determine the adversary potential course of actions (COA). This step involves analyzing the information gathered during the earlier steps of the process and evaluating the various possible actions that the adversary may take. By determining the potential course of actions, military planners can develop effective strategies and countermeasures to mitigate the adversary's threats and achieve mission objectives.

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  • 9. 

    What is targeting, with respect to the air tasking cycle?

    • A.

      Identifying those persons or objects needing removal.

    • B.

      The process of eliminating targets from controlled operational air space.

    • C.

      The process of engaging all unfriendly targets within the area of operations.

    • D.

      The process of selecting targets and measuring the results or response of the target selection

    Correct Answer
    D. The process of selecting targets and measuring the results or response of the target selection
    Explanation
    Targeting, with respect to the air tasking cycle, refers to the process of selecting specific targets and evaluating the outcomes or reactions of the chosen targets. It involves identifying and prioritizing potential targets based on operational objectives and then assessing the effectiveness of the target selection through various means such as surveillance, reconnaissance, and intelligence gathering. This helps in determining the impact and success of the target selection and aids in making informed decisions for future operations.

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  • 10. 

    Over what period of time does the Notational Air Tasking Cycle take place?

    • A.

      Abbout 30 days

    • B.

      30 to 72 hours.

    • C.

      One to two weeks

    • D.

      Seven duty days

    Correct Answer
    B. 30 to 72 hours.
    Explanation
    The Notational Air Tasking Cycle takes place over a period of 30 to 72 hours. This means that the planning and execution of air tasks, including missions and operations, are organized and carried out within this timeframe. It suggests that there is a relatively short window of time for coordinating and executing air tasks effectively.

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  • 11. 

    What must be completed before moving into Phase Three of the Notational Air Tasking Cycle?

    • A.

      Target development phase

    • B.

      Target engagement phase

    • C.

      Target recognition phase

    • D.

      Target elimination phase

    Correct Answer
    A. Target development pHase
    Explanation
    Before moving into Phase Three of the Notational Air Tasking Cycle, the target development phase must be completed. This phase involves identifying and selecting specific targets based on the mission objectives and available intelligence. It includes gathering information, analyzing data, and determining the priority and feasibility of engaging each target. Once this phase is completed, the air tasking cycle can progress to the next phase, which is the target engagement phase.

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  • 12. 

    Effects at the strategic level of war include

    • A.

      Destruction of all enemy assets

    • B.

      Control of all weather reporting sites

    • C.

      Infiltration of the enemy's intelligence branch

    • D.

      Destruction or diruption of the enemy's center of gravity (COG).

    Correct Answer
    D. Destruction or diruption of the enemy's center of gravity (COG).
    Explanation
    At the strategic level of war, the focus is on achieving overall objectives and gaining an advantage over the enemy. Destruction or disruption of the enemy's center of gravity (COG) is a key effect at this level. The center of gravity refers to the source of an enemy's power or strength, and targeting and neutralizing it can severely weaken their ability to fight effectively. By destroying or disrupting the enemy's COG, an attacker can undermine their command and control, logistics, morale, or other critical factors that enable their military capability. This can ultimately lead to the enemy's defeat and the attainment of strategic goals.

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  • 13. 

    At what level of warfare are individuals battles or engagements fought?

    • A.

      Tactical

    • B.

      Global

    • C.

      Strategic

    • D.

      Operational

    Correct Answer
    A. Tactical
    Explanation
    Individual battles or engagements are fought at the tactical level of warfare. The tactical level involves the planning and execution of military operations on a small scale, such as individual battles, skirmishes, or engagements. It focuses on the immediate objectives and actions taken by individual units or small groups of forces. At this level, the emphasis is on the coordination of troops, weapons, and resources to achieve specific tactical goals and gain advantage over the enemy in a particular battle or engagement.

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  • 14. 

    At what level of war are campaigns and major operations planned, conducted, and sustained?

    • A.

      Tactical

    • B.

      Global

    • C.

      Strategic

    • D.

      Operational

    Correct Answer
    D. Operational
    Explanation
    Operational level of war is where campaigns and major operations are planned, conducted, and sustained. This level focuses on the coordination and execution of military forces in a theater of operations to achieve strategic objectives. Tactical level deals with the execution of specific engagements or battles, while strategic level involves long-term planning and decision-making at the national or international level. Therefore, operational level is the appropriate level for planning and conducting campaigns and major operations.

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  • 15. 

    Planning at the operational level of war determines all of the following except

    • A.

      What we will attack.

    • B.

      Exactly when we will attack.

    • C.

      In what order we will attack.

    • D.

      For what duration we will attack.

    Correct Answer
    B. Exactly when we will attack.
    Explanation
    Planning at the operational level of war involves determining the overall strategy and objectives of a military campaign. It includes decisions on what to attack, in what order, and for what duration. However, the exact timing of the attacks is typically determined at the tactical level, where commanders on the ground assess the specific conditions and opportunities. Therefore, planning at the operational level does not determine exactly when the attacks will occur.

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  • 16. 

    The Army's primary mission is to organize, train and equip forces to

    • A.

      Conduct prompt operations.

    • B.

      Add support to units calling air strikes.

    • C.

      Conduct prompt operations in foreign lands.

    • D.

      Prompt and sustained land combat operations.

    Correct Answer
    D. Prompt and sustained land combat operations.
    Explanation
    The Army's primary mission is to organize, train, and equip forces to conduct prompt and sustained land combat operations. This means that the Army's main goal is to prepare and deploy troops to engage in combat on land, ensuring that they are ready to act quickly and effectively in order to achieve their objectives. This mission does not involve providing support to units calling air strikes or conducting operations in foreign lands, as those may be secondary or supporting missions.

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  • 17. 

    What is the army's largest major command?

    • A.

      US Army Pacific.

    • B.

      US Army in Europe.

    • C.

      US Army Forces Command.

    • D.

      US Army South.

    Correct Answer
    C. US Army Forces Command.
    Explanation
    US Army Forces Command is the correct answer because it is the largest major command in the US Army. It is responsible for the training, readiness, and deployment of all Army forces. It oversees the operational readiness of units and ensures they are prepared to carry out their missions. US Army Pacific, US Army in Europe, and US Army South are also major commands, but they are not the largest.

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  • 18. 

    What is the US Army Forces Command (FORSCOM) mission?

    • A.

      To deploy and sustain air forces capable of responding rapidly to crises worldwide

    • B.

      To enhance combat ready forces capable of responding rapidly to crises worldwide

    • C.

      To train, mobilize, deploy, and sustain air forces capable of responding rapidly to crises worldwide.

    • D.

      To train, mobilize, deploy and sustain combat ready forces capable of responding rapidly to crises worldwide.

    Correct Answer
    D. To train, mobilize, deploy and sustain combat ready forces capable of responding rapidly to crises worldwide.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to train, mobilize, deploy and sustain combat ready forces capable of responding rapidly to crises worldwide. This answer accurately describes the mission of the US Army Forces Command (FORSCOM), which is to prepare and maintain combat-ready forces that can be quickly deployed and sustained in response to crises anywhere in the world.

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  • 19. 

    What rank of Army officer normally commands divisions?

    • A.

      Major generals

    • B.

      Brigadier generals

    • C.

      Colonels and above

    • D.

      Colonels or brigadier generals

    Correct Answer
    A. Major generals
    Explanation
    Major generals are the rank of Army officers who normally command divisions. They are typically responsible for overseeing and coordinating the operations of a division, which is a large military unit consisting of several brigades. Major generals hold a higher rank than brigadier generals and colonels, and their experience and leadership skills make them well-suited for commanding divisions.

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  • 20. 

    In what environments does the US seek to achieve its strategic objectives?

    • A.

      War

    • B.

      Conflict

    • C.

      War and Conflict

    • D.

      Peacetime, conflict, and war.

    Correct Answer
    D. Peacetime, conflict, and war.
    Explanation
    The US seeks to achieve its strategic objectives in a variety of environments, including peacetime, conflict, and war. This means that the US aims to pursue its goals and interests not only during times of peace but also during periods of conflict and war. By including all three options in the answer, it indicates that the US is actively working towards achieving its strategic objectives in different circumstances and situations.

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  • 21. 

    How does the Army classify its activities during conflict?

    • A.

      War

    • B.

      Peacetime battle

    • C.

      Real world exercise

    • D.

      Military operations other than war

    Correct Answer
    D. Military operations other than war
    Explanation
    The Army classifies its activities during conflict as "Military operations other than war." This term refers to a range of military activities that are conducted in situations other than traditional warfare, such as peacekeeping, humanitarian assistance, counterterrorism, and stability operations. These activities are aimed at achieving strategic objectives and maintaining peace and security, but do not involve direct combat or large-scale warfare.

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  • 22. 

    What does the US attempt to do during peacetime.

    • A.

      To influence world events by introducing actions that might unsettle nations.

    • B.

      To influence world events by introducing actions that might unsettle nations.

    • C.

      To influence world events through those actions that rarely occurs between nations.

    • D.

      To influence world events through those actions that routinely occurs between nations.

    Correct Answer
    D. To influence world events through those actions that routinely occurs between nations.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "To influence world events through those actions that routinely occur between nations." This means that during peacetime, the US tries to exert its influence on global events by engaging in actions that are commonly carried out between nations. These actions can include diplomacy, negotiations, trade agreements, alliances, and other forms of international cooperation.

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  • 23. 

    According to the US Army, what is war?

    • A.

      The use of ground troops in operations.

    • B.

      The use of ground troops in operations in hostile areas.

    • C.

      The use of force in combat operations against an armed enemy.

    • D.

      The use of force in combat operations against an enemy, armed or otherwise.

    Correct Answer
    C. The use of force in combat operations against an armed enemy.
    Explanation
    War is defined by the US Army as the use of force in combat operations against an armed enemy. This definition emphasizes the use of force and combat operations, indicating that war involves active engagement and conflict with an enemy. Additionally, the mention of an armed enemy highlights the presence of weapons and the potential for violence in a war situation.

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  • 24. 

    In what terms do commanders consider the battlefield?

    • A.

      The time necessary to defeat the enemy force.

    • B.

      The space necessary to complete the assigned mission.

    • C.

      The space necessary to defeat the enemy force or to complete the assigned mission.

    • D.

      The time and space necessary to defeat the enemy force or to complete the assigned mission.

    Correct Answer
    D. The time and space necessary to defeat the enemy force or to complete the assigned mission.
    Explanation
    Commanders consider the battlefield in terms of both time and space because these factors are crucial for defeating the enemy force or completing the assigned mission. Time is important for planning and executing operations efficiently, while space is essential for maneuvering troops and resources effectively. By considering both time and space, commanders can develop comprehensive strategies that take into account the dynamic nature of the battlefield and optimize their chances of success.

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  • 25. 

    Once deployed, a tactical unit works within the

    • A.

      Area of Interest (AI)

    • B.

      Area of Operations (AO)

    • C.

      Area of Responsibility (AOR)

    • D.

      Area of Tactical Responsibility (ATR)

    Correct Answer
    B. Area of Operations (AO)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Area of Operations (AO)". Once deployed, a tactical unit operates within a designated area known as the Area of Operations (AO). This area is defined and assigned to the unit for the purpose of conducting military operations. It includes the geographical area, airspace, and any other relevant factors necessary for the unit to fulfill its mission. The AO provides the tactical unit with a specific area where it can plan, coordinate, and execute its operations effectively.

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  • 26. 

    Regarding US military forces, the changing of one area of interest to another is most likely influenced by

    • A.

      Equipment shortfalls

    • B.

      Personnel shortfalls

    • C.

      Enemy intelligence

    • D.

      Political climate

    Correct Answer
    D. Political climate
    Explanation
    The changing of one area of interest to another for US military forces is most likely influenced by the political climate. This means that the decision to shift focus from one area to another is driven by the prevailing political situation, including factors such as national security priorities, diplomatic relationships, and international agreements. The political climate plays a crucial role in determining where the military's resources and attention are directed, as it reflects the government's strategic objectives and foreign policy goals.

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  • 27. 

    Who is responsible for maintaining and managing the database for temporary location (KQ) identifiers?

    • A.

      HQ Air Force Weather Agency (AFWA)

    • B.

      Unified Commands

    • C.

      Armed service representative

    • D.

      The tactical unit's supporting Operational Weather Squadrons (OWS)

    Correct Answer
    A. HQ Air Force Weather Agency (AFWA)
    Explanation
    The HQ Air Force Weather Agency (AFWA) is responsible for maintaining and managing the database for temporary location (KQ) identifiers. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that the database is up to date and accurate, and that any changes or updates to the temporary location identifiers are properly recorded and implemented. This responsibility falls under the purview of the AFWA, as they are the central authority for weather-related information and operations within the Air Force.

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  • 28. 

    Under which phase of the joint operational execution and planning system (JOPES) is an operation plan (OPLAN) created?

    • A.

      Deliberate planning

    • B.

      Crisis action planning

    • C.

      Emergency action planning

    • D.

      Psychological operations (PSYOPS) planning

    Correct Answer
    A. Deliberate planning
    Explanation
    Deliberate planning is the phase of JOPES where an operation plan (OPLAN) is created. This phase involves detailed and long-term planning, analysis, and coordination of military operations. It includes the development of strategic objectives, identification of required resources, and establishment of a timeline for execution. During deliberate planning, various factors such as threat assessment, intelligence gathering, and risk analysis are considered to create a comprehensive and effective OPLAN. This phase allows for thorough preparation and coordination to ensure the success of the operation.

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  • 29. 

    Which statement best describes the relationship between an operational plan (OPLAN) and operational order (OPORD)

    • A.

      OPLANS are usually derived from the OPORD.

    • B.

      An OPLAN is more time sensitive than an OPORD.

    • C.

      An OPORD is a directive to execute a military operation.

    • D.

      Weather units sometimes maintain more than on OPORD.

    Correct Answer
    C. An OPORD is a directive to execute a military operation.
    Explanation
    An operational order (OPORD) is a directive given to execute a military operation, while an operational plan (OPLAN) is usually derived from the OPORD. This means that the OPORD serves as the basis for creating the OPLAN. The OPLAN outlines the specific steps, resources, and timelines required to carry out the operation as directed in the OPORD. Therefore, the relationship between an OPLAN and OPORD is that the OPORD provides the overall direction and objective, while the OPLAN provides the detailed plan for execution.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following documents pertains to weather operations and is maintained in the weather unit's security  container?

    • A.

      Annex H of the joint operational execution and planning system

    • B.

      Annex H of the Operational plan (OPLAN)

    • C.

      Appendix H of the operational order (OPORD)

    • D.

      Appendix H of the OPLAN

    Correct Answer
    B. Annex H of the Operational plan (OPLAN)
  • 31. 

    What agency and action determines the security classification of an operation plan (OPLAN)?

    • A.

      The custodian of the document classifies the OPLAN as TOP SECRET.

    • B.

      The originator of the document classifies the OPLAN as TOP SECRET.

    • C.

      The custodian of the document classifies the OPLAN at a level commensurate with the highest classified portion of the document.

    • D.

      The originator of the document classifies the OPLAN at a level commensurate with the highest classified portion of the document.

    Correct Answer
    D. The originator of the document classifies the OPLAN at a level commensurate with the highest classified portion of the document.
    Explanation
    The originator of the document is responsible for determining the security classification of an operation plan (OPLAN) based on the highest classified portion of the document. This means that if any part of the document is classified as TOP SECRET, the entire OPLAN will be classified at that level. The custodian of the document does not have the authority to classify the OPLAN, but rather ensures that the classified document is properly stored and protected.

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  • 32. 

    Radio transmissions transfer data using?

    • A.

      Low frequency (LF) and frequently modulation (FM) radios.

    • B.

      High frequency (HF) and frequency modulation(FM) radios.

    • C.

      Ultra low frequency (ULF) and frequency modulation (FM) radios.

    • D.

      Ultra high frequency (UHF) and amplitude modulation (AM) radios.

    Correct Answer
    B. High frequency (HF) and frequency modulation(FM) radios.
  • 33. 

    Which tactical communication device employs programs that ingest, analyze, and integrate weather data in a deployed or garrison environment?

    • A.

      Iridium Satellite Phone

    • B.

      Mobile subscriber equipment (MSE)

    • C.

      Weather effects workstation (WEW)

    • D.

      Integrated Meteorological System (IMETS)

    Correct Answer
    D. Integrated Meteorological System (IMETS)
    Explanation
    The Integrated Meteorological System (IMETS) is the correct answer because it is a tactical communication device that employs programs to ingest, analyze, and integrate weather data in both deployed and garrison environments. This system allows military personnel to have access to accurate and up-to-date weather information, which is crucial for planning and executing tactical operations effectively. The other options, such as the Iridium Satellite Phone, Mobile subscriber equipment (MSE), and Weather effects workstation (WEW), do not specifically mention the capability to ingest, analyze, and integrate weather data like the IMETS does.

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  • 34. 

    Tactical Meteorological Observing System (TMOS) can transfer data to locations in the near vicinity using?

    • A.

      A modem and high frequency (HF) transmitter.

    • B.

      A modem and radio frequency (RF) transmitter.

    • C.

      A secure modem and high frequency (HF) transmitter.

    • D.

      A secure modem and radio frequency (RF) transmitter.

    Correct Answer
    B. A modem and radio frequency (RF) transmitter.
    Explanation
    TMOS can transfer data to locations in the near vicinity using a modem and radio frequency (RF) transmitter. This means that TMOS utilizes a modem to convert the data into a format that can be transmitted and a RF transmitter to send the data wirelessly using radio waves. This allows for efficient and convenient data transfer over short distances, making it suitable for local communication within the near vicinity.

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  • 35. 

    The iridium Satellite phone set includes?

    • A.

      9505a handset, battery, secure sleeve and Radio Frequency (RF) antenna.

    • B.

      9505a handset, battery, secure sleeve and Ultra High Frequency (UHF) antenna.

    • C.

      9505a handset, battery, Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) card, secure sleeve and fixed antenna.

    • D.

      9505a handset, battery, Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) card, secure sleeve and mobile antenna.

    Correct Answer
    D. 9505a handset, battery, Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) card, secure sleeve and mobile antenna.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 9505a handset, battery, Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) card, secure sleeve and mobile antenna. This answer is correct because the iridium Satellite phone set typically includes a 9505a handset, which is the phone itself, a battery to power the phone, a Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) card for activating the phone and connecting to the satellite network, a secure sleeve to protect the phone, and a mobile antenna for transmitting and receiving signals from the satellite.

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  • 36. 

    What is the most important role of the AF weather (AWF) personnel?

    • A.

      To help the war fighter understand the effects of terrestrial and space weather.

    • B.

      To ensure that the accuracy of weather forecasts take precedence over timeliness of data.

    • C.

      To provide the war fighter tailored weather information that enhances combat effectiveness.

    • D.

      To collect and analyze terrestrial and space weather data without respect to war fighter relevance.

    Correct Answer
    C. To provide the war fighter tailored weather information that enhances combat effectiveness.
    Explanation
    The most important role of the AF weather (AWF) personnel is to provide the war fighter tailored weather information that enhances combat effectiveness. This means that their main responsibility is to gather and analyze weather data in order to provide specific and relevant information to the military personnel engaged in combat operations. By doing so, they help the war fighters understand the effects of terrestrial and space weather, allowing them to make informed decisions and improve their combat effectiveness.

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  • 37. 

    Air Force Weather (AFW) is most effective when a commander receives

    • A.

      Accurate weather forecast covering a global scale.

    • B.

      Accurate and relevant weather forecasts in a timely manner.

    • C.

      Timely weather forecast for all operations regardless of accuracy.

    • D.

      Accurate and relevant weather forecasts regardless of actual timeliness.

    Correct Answer
    B. Accurate and relevant weather forecasts in a timely manner.
    Explanation
    The most effective use of Air Force Weather (AFW) is when a commander receives accurate and relevant weather forecasts in a timely manner. This means that the forecasts must be both accurate and relevant to the specific operations and they must be delivered in a timely manner so that the commander can make informed decisions based on the current weather conditions. Without accurate and relevant forecasts, the commander may make decisions that could put personnel and equipment at risk. Additionally, if the forecasts are not delivered in a timely manner, the commander may not have enough time to adjust plans accordingly.

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  • 38. 

    Weather personnel tailor the information for specific applications so the war fighter can

    • A.

      Quickly, identify and correct any erroneous weather analysis.

    • B.

      Manipulate the weather data further to ensure relevancy to the war fighter.

    • C.

      Quickly identify and apply relevant information without additional analysis.

    • D.

      Continue to manipulate and correct the data to ensure accuracy and timeliness.

    Correct Answer
    C. Quickly identify and apply relevant information without additional analysis.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "quickly identify and apply relevant information without additional analysis." This answer suggests that weather personnel are able to quickly identify and apply relevant information without the need for further analysis. This implies that the information they provide is already tailored and accurate, allowing the war fighter to make informed decisions without the need for additional manipulation or correction of the data.

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  • 39. 

    The overall effectiveness of Air Force Weather (AFW) is based on the

    • A.

      Succesful and efective accomplishment of specific military operations.

    • B.

      War fighter's ability to understand the weather's affects on the current mission.

    • C.

      The specifc degree to which the forecast is or is not accurate and relevant to the user.

    • D.

      How many times the weather forecast must be amended or corrected before the mission ends.

    Correct Answer
    A. Succesful and efective accomplishment of specific military operations.
    Explanation
    The overall effectiveness of Air Force Weather (AFW) is determined by the successful and effective accomplishment of specific military operations. This means that AFW's effectiveness is measured by how well it contributes to the success of military missions. It implies that accurate and relevant weather forecasts, as well as the warfighter's understanding of how weather affects the mission, are important factors in achieving successful outcomes. However, the ultimate measure of effectiveness lies in the accomplishment of military objectives.

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  • 40. 

    Air Force Weather (AFW) develops a coherent picture of the current state of the air and space environment as a result of performing

    • A.

      Forecasting and tailored application.

    • B.

      Dissemination

    • C.

      Integration

    • D.

      Analysis

    Correct Answer
    D. Analysis
    Explanation
    Air Force Weather (AFW) develops a coherent picture of the current state of the air and space environment through the process of analysis. This involves carefully examining and evaluating various data and information to understand the current conditions and trends. By conducting analysis, AFW can identify patterns, make predictions, and provide valuable insights for forecasting and tailored application. Analysis plays a crucial role in helping AFW to effectively understand and interpret the complex air and space environment.

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  • 41. 

    Weather information is of no operational use unless

    • A.

      It is accurate, no matter how long it takes to reach the user.

    • B.

      It is relevant to the mission at hand, regardless of timeliness.

    • C.

      It is in keeping with climatological values for known events.

    • D.

      It reaches the user in time to be of operational or planning value.

    Correct Answer
    D. It reaches the user in time to be of operational or planning value.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "it reaches the user in time to be of operational or planning value." This means that weather information is only useful if it is delivered to the user in a timely manner, allowing them to make informed decisions and take appropriate actions. Accuracy, relevance, and adherence to climatological values are important factors, but without timely delivery, the information loses its operational or planning value.

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  • 42. 

    Integration of weather information as decision aids into the planning process allows commanders to

    • A.

      Use the appropriate software application to obtain forecasts.

    • B.

      Ask the weather forecaster to make changes to the weather data.

    • C.

      Make informed decisions about the design and operation of a plan.

    • D.

      Create hard and fast war plans that will not require changes due to adverse weather.

    Correct Answer
    C. Make informed decisions about the design and operation of a plan.
    Explanation
    The integration of weather information as decision aids into the planning process allows commanders to make informed decisions about the design and operation of a plan. By using the appropriate software application to obtain forecasts, commanders can take into account the potential impact of weather conditions on the plan. This enables them to adjust the plan accordingly, taking proactive measures to mitigate any adverse effects that weather might have on the success of the operation. By considering weather information during the planning process, commanders can make more informed and strategic decisions, increasing the chances of a successful outcome.

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  • 43. 

    The term marginal implies that the impact of weather elements will cause

    • A.

      Large degradation to the mission.

    • B.

      A cancellation of any planned missions.

    • C.

      No degradation to the mission of any kind.

    • D.

      The occurence of some degradation to the mission.

    Correct Answer
    D. The occurence of some degradation to the mission.
    Explanation
    The term "marginal" suggests that there will be some level of degradation to the mission due to the impact of weather elements. While it may not be a complete cancellation of the mission, it implies that there will be some negative effects on the mission's performance or outcome. Therefore, the correct answer is "the occurrence of some degradation to the mission."

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  • 44. 

    What must you understand in order for your weather flight (WF) to fully support aerial operations?

    • A.

      The limitations and capabilities of each airframe and the scope of the operation

    • B.

      The physical geography of the regions your customer will operate in and around.

    • C.

      The necessity of intelligence gathering operations performed by your customer.

    • D.

      The experience level of your customer and how long they need for acclimatization.

    Correct Answer
    A. The limitations and capabilities of each airframe and the scope of the operation
    Explanation
    In order for your weather flight (WF) to fully support aerial operations, it is essential to understand the limitations and capabilities of each airframe. This knowledge allows you to provide accurate and tailored weather forecasts and recommendations to ensure safe and efficient flight operations. Additionally, understanding the scope of the operation helps in determining the specific weather parameters and forecasts that need to be considered. This knowledge enables the WF to provide valuable support and contribute to the overall success of the aerial operations.

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  • 45. 

    The ability for ground forces to maneuver and traverse across terrain refers to

    • A.

      Trafficability.

    • B.

      Bridging capability.

    • C.

      Operations capability.

    • D.

      Reconnaissance capability.

    Correct Answer
    A. Trafficability.
    Explanation
    Trafficability refers to the ability of ground forces to move and traverse across different types of terrain. It includes factors such as the condition of the terrain, the presence of obstacles or barriers, and the ability of vehicles to navigate through these obstacles. Bridging capability refers to the ability to construct temporary bridges for crossing obstacles, operations capability refers to the overall ability to conduct military operations, and reconnaissance capability refers to the ability to gather information about the enemy. Therefore, the correct answer is trafficability, as it specifically addresses the ability to maneuver and traverse across terrain.

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  • 46. 

    In operational terms, what can be expected if two objects are identical in every physical way except emissivity?

    • A.

      Lower emissivity heats or cools faster than the other.

    • B.

      Higher emissivity heats or cools faster than the other.

    • C.

      Lower radiative temperature heats or cools faster than the other.

    • D.

      Higher radiative temperature heats or cools faster than the other.

    Correct Answer
    B. Higher emissivity heats or cools faster than the other.
    Explanation
    Higher emissivity means that an object is better at emitting thermal radiation. Therefore, if two objects are identical in every physical way except emissivity, the object with higher emissivity will be able to release more thermal energy through radiation, causing it to heat or cool faster than the object with lower emissivity.

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  • 47. 

    What term is used to express the difference between the thermal energy of the target and that of the background?

    • A.

      Thermal crossover.

    • B.

      Inherent contrast.

    • C.

      Thermal contrast.

    • D.

      Thermal clutter.

    Correct Answer
    C. Thermal contrast.
    Explanation
    Thermal contrast is the term used to express the difference between the thermal energy of the target and that of the background. It refers to the variation in temperature between the object of interest and its surroundings. This difference in thermal energy is what allows thermal imaging systems to detect and distinguish objects based on their heat signatures.

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  • 48. 

    The moment when the target and the background are at the same temperature is referred to as

    • A.

      Thermal crossover.

    • B.

      Thermal contrast.

    • C.

      Inherent contrast.

    • D.

      Thermal clutter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Thermal crossover.
    Explanation
    Thermal crossover refers to the moment when the target and the background have the same temperature. This term is used in thermal imaging technology to describe the point at which the target becomes indistinguishable from the background due to the absence of thermal contrast. It is an important concept in thermal imaging as it affects the ability to detect and identify objects based on their temperature differences.

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  • 49. 

    Why does a beam of light traveling through air bend once it hits water?

    • A.

      Speed of light is faster in water

    • B.

      Speed of light is slower in water.

    • C.

      Apparent contrast of water is lower than air.

    • D.

      Apparent contrast of water is higher than air.

    Correct Answer
    B. Speed of light is slower in water.
    Explanation
    When light travels from one medium to another, it changes speed due to the difference in the optical density of the two mediums. In this case, the speed of light is slower in water compared to air. This change in speed causes the light to bend or refract as it enters the water. This phenomenon is known as refraction.

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  • 50. 

    The greatest potential for large solar flares is

    • A.

      During the solar maximum.

    • B.

      During the solar minimum.

    • C.

      Two to three years immediately following a solar maximum.

    • D.

      Two to three years immediately following a solar minimum.

    Correct Answer
    C. Two to three years immediately following a solar maximum.
    Explanation
    During a solar maximum, the sun is at its most active phase in its 11-year solar cycle, with increased sunspot activity and higher chances of solar flares. The energy buildup during this period can lead to larger solar flares. However, immediately following a solar maximum, the sun's activity starts to decrease, and the energy buildup from the previous maximum can still trigger solar flares for the next two to three years. Therefore, the greatest potential for large solar flares is two to three years immediately following a solar maximum.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 16, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Daronwilli
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