1.
Which of the following can be configured to restrict specific ports and IP addressees from accessing the internal network?
Correct Answer
B. Firewall
Explanation
A firewall can be configured to restrict specific ports and IP addresses from accessing the internal network. A firewall acts as a barrier between the internal network and the external network, allowing or blocking incoming and outgoing traffic based on predefined rules. By configuring the firewall, specific ports can be closed or opened, limiting access to certain services. Additionally, specific IP addresses can be blocked or allowed, restricting access to the internal network from specific locations. Therefore, a firewall is the correct answer for this scenario.
2.
Which of the following ports is the default telnet port?
Correct Answer
D. 23
Explanation
Port 23 is the default telnet port. Telnet is a network protocol used for remote login and command execution on a remote computer. It operates on TCP/IP network and uses port number 23 as the default port for communication.
3.
A bridge handles frames at which of the following layers of the OSI model?
Correct Answer
D. Data Link
Explanation
A bridge handles frames at the Data Link layer of the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for the reliable transmission of data between two directly connected devices. Bridges operate at this layer by examining the MAC addresses of incoming frames and forwarding them to the appropriate destination. They help to connect different network segments and improve network performance by reducing congestion and filtering unnecessary traffic.
4.
Zach, a technician; is checking newly installed CAT 5e cabling, and suspects that some of the ends were not properly terminated. Which of the following tools will verify this?
Correct Answer
A. Cable tester
Explanation
A cable tester is a tool used to verify the integrity and connectivity of network cables. It can detect faults such as open circuits, short circuits, and incorrect terminations. In this scenario, Zach suspects that some of the ends of the CAT 5e cabling were not properly terminated. By using a cable tester, he can check each end of the cable to ensure that they are terminated correctly and that there are no faults in the cabling. This tool will help him identify any issues with the terminations and ensure that the cabling is installed correctly.
5.
Which of the following BEST describes a switch port?
Correct Answer
D. Collision domain
Explanation
A switch port is best described as a collision domain. In networking, a collision domain is a network segment where collisions can occur when two devices transmit data at the same time. A switch port is responsible for connecting devices in a local area network (LAN) and manages the flow of data between them. By dividing the network into multiple collision domains, a switch helps to reduce the occurrence of collisions and improves network performance. Therefore, the term "collision domain" accurately represents the role and function of a switch port.
6.
Which wireless technology permits communication to run at 2.4 GHZ and up to 54Mbps?
Correct Answer
C. 802.11g
Explanation
The correct answer is 802.11g. This wireless technology operates at a frequency of 2.4 GHz and can support data transfer rates of up to 54 Mbps. It is backward compatible with the 802.11b standard and offers improved performance and range compared to its predecessor.
7.
What does the 10 stand for in 10Base-T?
Correct Answer
C. Resistance
Explanation
The 10 in 10Base-T stands for resistance. In networking, 10Base-T refers to an Ethernet standard that uses twisted pair copper cables for data transmission. The "10" represents the maximum data transfer rate of 10 megabits per second (Mbps). The term "Base" indicates baseband transmission, where only one signal is sent at a time. The "T" represents twisted pair cables, which are used for connecting devices. Therefore, the 10 in 10Base-T denotes the resistance value associated with the standard.
8.
A rollover cable will be used in which of the following situations?
Correct Answer
C. Connecting PC to a console port
Explanation
A rollover cable is used to connect a PC to a console port. Console ports are typically found on networking devices such as routers and switches, and they provide a direct connection to the device's command-line interface (CLI). By using a rollover cable, the PC can establish a serial connection to the console port and configure or troubleshoot the networking device. This type of cable is not used for connecting a PC to a printer or a switch, and it is not needed when connecting two switches back-to-back.
9.
Which media type is NOT susceptible to electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
Correct Answer
D. Fiber optic cable
Explanation
Fiber optic cable is not susceptible to electromagnetic interference (EMI) because it uses light signals to transmit data instead of electrical signals. Unlike UTP cable, STP cable, and coaxial cable, which rely on electrical signals that can be disrupted by EMI, fiber optic cables are made of glass or plastic fibers that are immune to electromagnetic interference. This makes fiber optic cables ideal for environments with high levels of electromagnetic interference, such as industrial settings or areas with a lot of electrical equipment.
10.
In telecommunication, connectionless describes communication between two network end points in which a message can be sent from one end point to another without prior arrangement. Which of the following is considered a connectionless-oriented protocol?
Correct Answer
D. UDP
Explanation
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is considered a connectionless-oriented protocol. Unlike TCP (Transmission Control Protocol), which requires a connection to be established before data transfer, UDP does not establish a connection before sending data. It simply sends data packets to the recipient without any prior arrangement or acknowledgment. This makes UDP faster and more efficient for applications that prioritize speed over reliability, such as real-time streaming or online gaming. However, because UDP does not guarantee delivery or order of packets, it is less reliable than TCP.
11.
Which of the following is the usual number of bits for the host identifier part of an IPv6 address?
Correct Answer
B. 64
Explanation
The usual number of bits for the host identifier part of an IPv6 address is 64. In an IPv6 address, the first 64 bits represent the network prefix, while the remaining 64 bits are used for the host identifier. This allows for a large number of unique host addresses within a single network, providing ample room for future growth and scalability.
12.
Which of the following is the broadcast address for a network defined as 192.168.0.0/24?
Correct Answer
A. 192.168.0.255
Explanation
The broadcast address for a network is the highest address in the range and is used to send a message to all devices on the network. In this case, the network is defined as 192.168.0.0/24, which means it has a subnet mask of 24 bits. Since the subnet mask determines the number of bits used for the network portion of the address, the remaining 8 bits are used for the host portion. In a /24 subnet, the host portion can range from 0 to 255. Therefore, the broadcast address for this network is 192.168.0.255.
13.
Lisa, a network technician, needs to introduce a few more cables to the existing patch panel. Which of the following tools would she used?
Correct Answer
C. Punch down tool
Explanation
Lisa, as a network technician, would use a punch down tool to introduce a few more cables to the existing patch panel. A punch down tool is commonly used to terminate and secure wires into a patch panel or keystone jack. It allows for quick and efficient installation of cables by punching them down into the appropriate slots. This tool ensures proper connectivity and organization of the network infrastructure.
14.
Management has decided that they want a high level of security. They do not want Internet request coming directly from users. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation?
Correct Answer
B. Proxy server
Explanation
A proxy server is the best recommendation in this scenario because it acts as an intermediary between users and the internet, allowing management to control and monitor internet access. It can filter and block certain content, as well as provide additional security measures such as authentication and encryption. This helps to prevent direct internet requests from users and adds an extra layer of protection to the network. A content filter, firewall, and layer 3 switch may provide some level of security, but a proxy server offers the most comprehensive solution for managing and securing internet traffic.
15.
A small office has asked to have six PCs networked together by Jeff, a consultant. The office Users want file sharing capability with no access to internet. Which of the following items will Jeff need?
Correct Answer
B. Switch
Explanation
Jeff will need a switch to network the six PCs together. A switch is a networking device that allows multiple devices to connect and communicate with each other within a local area network (LAN). It enables file sharing capability among the PCs without the need for internet access. A network bridge is used to connect two different types of networks, RG-59 patch cabling is used for video signals, and RJ 11 connector is used for telephone connections, so they are not necessary in this scenario.
16.
Which of the following is the correct representation of an IPv6 address?
Correct Answer
A. 2001::4860:800f::
17.
Which of the following is a reason to use dynamic DNS?
Correct Answer
B. The host IP address is assigned by DHCP.
Explanation
Dynamic DNS is used when the host IP address is assigned by DHCP. DHCP is a protocol that automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network. When a device's IP address is assigned dynamically, it means that the IP address can change over time. Dynamic DNS allows for the automatic updating of DNS records to reflect these changes in IP address, ensuring that the device can always be reached by its hostname regardless of its changing IP address.
18.
Which TCP/IP model layer does the OSI model layer named 'session' respond to?
Correct Answer
A. Application
Explanation
The OSI model layer named 'session' responds to the TCP/IP model layer named 'Application'. The session layer in the OSI model is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating sessions between applications. It provides services such as session establishment, synchronization, and checkpointing. The TCP/IP model combines the session layer functionality with the presentation and application layers into a single layer called the Application layer. Therefore, the correct answer is Application.
19.
John, a network administrator, is checking work on some new CAT5 LAN network cables installed at an organization. Multiples lines are receiving poor signals, and Zach finds the lengths of the runs to be sometimes over 350 feet (107 meters). Which of the following is the cause of the issue?
Correct Answer
B. CAT5 cabling is limited to single-run lines of 330 feet
Explanation
The correct answer is CAT5 cabling is limited to single-run lines of 330 feet. This means that the length of the cable run should not exceed 330 feet. In this case, the lengths of the runs are sometimes over 350 feet, which is beyond the limit for CAT5 cabling. This can result in poor signal quality and connectivity issues.
20.
Gideon, a network consultant, noticed that a new installation for a network backbone looked like this:
Which of the following is the BEST configuration for a properly setup environment?
Correct Answer
B. ISP->Firewall->Switch->PC
Explanation
The best configuration for a properly setup environment is ISP->Firewall->Switch->PC. This configuration ensures that the network traffic first goes through the ISP, then passes through the firewall for security measures, then reaches the switch for network connectivity, and finally reaches the PC for end-user access. This order of devices ensures that the network is protected by the firewall before reaching the internal network devices.