New CDC Quiz Vol. 3 (3S051) Edit Code 03

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New CDC Quiz Vol. 3 (3S051) Edit Code 03 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The accurate accounting for all Air Force personnel at all times regardless of location is defined as what element of accountability?

    • A.

      Tasked wing.

    • B.

      Total force.

    • C.

      Transient.

    • D.

      Strength.

    Correct Answer
    B. Total force.
    Explanation
    The accurate accounting for all Air Force personnel at all times regardless of location is defined as the element of accountability known as "Total force." This term refers to the comprehensive tracking and management of all personnel within the Air Force, including active duty, reserve, and civilian members, ensuring that their whereabouts and status are accounted for at all times. This concept emphasizes the importance of maintaining a complete and accurate record of all personnel to ensure effective management and operational readiness.

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  • 2. 

    Regardless of status, personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) maintains accountability over all personnel on the ground, including transients at their deployed and designated geographically separated locations. Which element of accountability does this describe?

    • A.

      Tasked wing.

    • B.

      Total force.

    • C.

      Transient.

    • D.

      Strength.

    Correct Answer
    D. Strength.
    Explanation
    This question describes the element of accountability known as "Strength." Strength refers to the number of personnel present at a particular location or within a specific unit. In this case, personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) is responsible for maintaining accountability over all personnel on the ground, including transients at their deployed and designated geographically separated locations. Therefore, this element of accountability is related to keeping track of the total number of personnel or the strength of the force.

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  • 3. 

    Forces that spend at least one night in billeting at a location but their final duty location is elsewhere describes which element of accountability?

    • A.

      Replacement.

    • B.

      Total force.

    • C.

      Transient.

    • D.

      Strength.

    Correct Answer
    C. Transient.
    Explanation
    The term "transient" refers to forces that spend at least one night in billeting at a location but their final duty location is elsewhere. This means that these forces are temporarily staying at a location before moving on to their actual duty location. The other options, replacement, total force, and strength, do not accurately describe this specific situation of forces spending a night in billeting before moving on.

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  • 4. 

    The Air National Guard (ANG) is a very important component of the total force in these operations except

    • A.

      Relief.

    • B.

      Offensive.

    • C.

      Defensive.

    • D.

      Deterrence.

    Correct Answer
    D. Deterrence.
    Explanation
    The Air National Guard (ANG) is a crucial component of the total force in relief, offensive, and defensive operations. However, deterrence is not listed as one of the operations where the ANG plays a significant role. Deterrence typically involves the prevention of conflict or aggression through the display of military strength and capabilities. While the ANG may contribute to deterrence indirectly by maintaining a strong and capable air defense, it is not primarily focused on deterrence operations.

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  • 5. 

    The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both

    • A.

      Federal and overseas missions.

    • B.

      Federal and state missions.

    • C.

      State and community missions.

    • D.

      Overseas and community missions.

    Correct Answer
    B. Federal and state missions.
    Explanation
    The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution because it has responsibilities at both the federal and state levels. On the federal level, the ANG is a reserve component of the United States Air Force and can be called upon to support national defense missions. On the state level, the ANG can be activated by the governor to respond to emergencies and disasters within the state. This dual role allows the ANG to serve both the nation and their local communities.

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  • 6. 

    What force is composed of significant elements assigned or attached of two or more military departments under a single Joint Force Commander (JFC)?

    • A.

      Combined.

    • B.

      Joint.

    • C.

      Operational.

    • D.

      Strength.

    Correct Answer
    B. Joint.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Joint." In military operations, a Joint force is formed when significant elements from two or more military departments are assigned or attached to a single Joint Force Commander (JFC). This allows for better coordination and integration of resources and capabilities from different branches of the military, enhancing the effectiveness and efficiency of the force in achieving its objectives.

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  • 7. 

    Which system does the Air Force use to account for joint forces?

    • A.

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

    • B.

      Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C.

      Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD).

    • D.

      Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).
    Explanation
    The Air Force uses the Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) system to account for joint forces. This system is specifically designed for planning and executing military operations, providing real-time visibility and control over the deployment and sustainment of forces. It helps in managing resources, tracking personnel, and coordinating logistics across different branches of the military, ensuring effective joint operations.

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  • 8. 

    The air expeditionary force’s (AEF) primary purpose is to provide

    • A.

      Warfighter support.

    • B.

      Stability to Airmen.

    • C.

      Predictability to Airmen.

    • D.

      Fair share tempo band support.

    Correct Answer
    A. Warfighter support.
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of the air expeditionary force (AEF) is to provide warfighter support. This means that the AEF is responsible for ensuring that the needs of the warfighters, or those actively engaged in combat or military operations, are met. This could include providing them with necessary supplies, equipment, and logistical support to carry out their missions effectively. The AEF's focus is on supporting the warfighters and ensuring their success in the field.

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  • 9. 

    The air expeditionary force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how best to employ air and space power along with understanding the proper way to do all of these except

    • A.

      Deploy.

    • B.

      Sustain.

    • C.

      Present.

    • D.

      Organize.

    Correct Answer
    B. Sustain.
    Explanation
    The air expeditionary force (AEF) doctrine is a crucial aspect of comprehending the effective utilization of air and space power, as well as the appropriate methods for deploying, presenting, and organizing these forces. However, sustaining is not a part of the AEF doctrine. Sustaining refers to the ability to maintain and support deployed forces over an extended period, which is not directly addressed in the AEF doctrine.

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  • 10. 

    What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP)?

    • A.

      Air Staff.

    • B.

      Joint Staff.

    • C.

      HQ Air Force (HAF).

    • D.

      Department of Defense (DOD).

    Correct Answer
    B. Joint Staff.
    Explanation
    The Joint Staff is responsible for publishing a planning order that outlines the milestones needed to staff and publish the Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP). This indicates that the Joint Staff is the agency that oversees and coordinates the allocation of global forces, ensuring that the necessary planning and staffing processes are in place. The other options, such as Air Staff, HQ Air Force (HAF), and Department of Defense (DOD), do not specifically mention this responsibility. Therefore, the correct answer is Joint Staff.

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  • 11. 

    Which component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) is capable of establishing and operating an air base?

    • A.

      Air expeditionary wing (AEW).

    • B.

      Air expeditionary group (AEG).

    • C.

      Air expeditionary squadron (AES).

    • D.

      Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air expeditionary wing (AEW).
    Explanation
    The Air Expeditionary Wing (AEW) is capable of establishing and operating an air base. AEWs are the largest AETF component and are responsible for providing command and control, as well as support functions, for multiple squadrons and groups. They have the capability to deploy and set up a fully functional air base, including aircraft, personnel, and support infrastructure. AEWs are designed to be self-sustaining and can operate independently for extended periods of time.

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  • 12. 

    Which component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) normally consists of one or two operations squadrons, associated maintenance squadrons, and mission-specific expeditionary combat support (ECS) squadrons?

    • A.

      Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF).

    • B.

      Air expeditionary squadron (AES).

    • C.

      Air expeditionary group (AEG).

    • D.

      Air expeditionary wing (AEW).

    Correct Answer
    C. Air expeditionary group (AEG).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air expeditionary group (AEG). An air expeditionary group (AEG) typically consists of one or two operations squadrons, associated maintenance squadrons, and mission-specific expeditionary combat support (ECS) squadrons. This component is responsible for conducting and supporting air operations in a deployed environment as part of the air expeditionary task force (AETF). The AEG provides the necessary personnel and resources to execute a wide range of missions in support of combat operations or humanitarian efforts.

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  • 13. 

    What component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) is considered the basic war fighting organization and the building block of the AETF structure?

    • A.

      Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF).

    • B.

      Air expeditionary group (AEG).

    • C.

      Air expeditionary squadron (AES).

    • D.

      Air expeditionary wing (AEW).

    Correct Answer
    C. Air expeditionary squadron (AES).
    Explanation
    The air expeditionary squadron (AES) is considered the basic war fighting organization and the building block of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) structure. It is responsible for executing specific missions and tasks, and it typically consists of a headquarters element and various supporting units. The AES is designed to be rapidly deployable and self-sustaining, capable of operating independently or as part of a larger AETF. It serves as the foundation for the AETF's operational capabilities and provides the necessary command and control, logistics, and support functions to carry out its assigned mission.

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  • 14. 

    An operations plan (OPLAN) includes all of these documents except

    • A.

      Supporting time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD).

    • B.

      Annexes.

    • C.

      Appendices.

    • D.

      Air Force instructions (AFI).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force instructions (AFI).
    Explanation
    An operations plan (OPLAN) is a comprehensive document that outlines the objectives, tasks, and resources required to execute a specific military operation. It includes various components such as annexes, which provide additional details on specific aspects of the plan, and appendices, which contain supplementary information. The supporting time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) is an essential part of the OPLAN as it outlines the timeline and sequence of deploying forces. However, Air Force instructions (AFI) are not typically included in an OPLAN, as they are separate documents that provide guidance and instructions specific to the Air Force.

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  • 15. 

    The War Mobilization Plan (WMP) consists of how many volumes?

    • A.

      2.

    • B.

      3.

    • C.

      4.

    • D.

      5.

    Correct Answer
    D. 5.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5 because the question asks about the number of volumes in the War Mobilization Plan (WMP). Therefore, the WMP consists of 5 volumes.

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  • 16. 

    Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      4.

    • D.

      5.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.
    Explanation
    Volume 1 of the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces.

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  • 17. 

    Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume is governed by AFI 25–101, Air Force War Reserve Material (WRM) Policies and Guidance?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      3.

    • D.

      4.

    Correct Answer
    D. 4.
  • 18. 

    The details of an operations plan (OPLAN) are found in its annexes. Each annex and appendix consists of how many sections?

    • A.

      2.

    • B.

      4.

    • C.

      6.

    • D.

      8.

    Correct Answer
    C. 6.
    Explanation
    The question asks about the number of sections in each annex and appendix of an operations plan (OPLAN). The correct answer is 6. This means that each annex and appendix contains 6 sections.

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  • 19. 

    What is the operations plan (OPLAN) Annex for Personnel?

    • A.

      Annex B.

    • B.

      Annex E.

    • C.

      Annex K.

    • D.

      Annex Q.

    Correct Answer
    B. Annex E.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Annex E. The operations plan (OPLAN) Annex for Personnel is Annex E.

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  • 20. 

    What is the operations plan (OPLAN) annex for Medical Services?

    • A.

      Annex B.

    • B.

      Annex E.

    • C.

      Annex H.

    • D.

      Annex Q.

    Correct Answer
    D. Annex Q.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Annex Q. The question is asking for the operations plan (OPLAN) annex specifically for Medical Services. Among the options provided, Annex Q is the most suitable choice as it is likely to contain the detailed plan and guidelines for medical services during operations.

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  • 21. 

    What is the Department of Defense (DOD) directed single integrated joint command and control (C2) system for conventional operations planning and execution?

    • A.

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

    • B.

      Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS).

    • C.

      Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • D.

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

    Correct Answer
    C. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES). This system is the Department of Defense (DOD) directed single integrated joint command and control (C2) system for conventional operations planning and execution. JOPES is used to support the planning and execution of military operations by providing a common framework and tools for joint force commanders to develop and coordinate operational plans. It helps in the coordination of resources, forces, and logistics, and facilitates communication and collaboration among different military branches and units.

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  • 22. 

    The objective of which system is to enable improved and streamlined operations planning and execution processes which include associated policy and procedures, along with organizational and technology improvements?

    • A.

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

    • B.

      Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C.

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

    • D.

      Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).
    Explanation
    The objective of the Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) system is to enable improved and streamlined operations planning and execution processes. This includes associated policy and procedures, as well as organizational and technology improvements. DCAPES helps in planning and executing crisis actions effectively, ensuring that all necessary resources and procedures are in place to handle the crisis situation. It helps in coordinating and managing military operations efficiently, enhancing the overall effectiveness of the military forces.

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  • 23. 

    Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) supports all phases of operations planning and execution at all of these levels except

    • A.

      Wing/squadron.

    • B.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • C.

      Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

    • D.

      Numbered Air Force (NAF).

    Correct Answer
    D. Numbered Air Force (NAF).
    Explanation
    DCAPES is a system that assists in planning and executing operations at various levels within the Air Force. It supports operations planning and execution at the wing/squadron, major command (MAJCOM), and Headquarters Air Force (HAF) levels. However, it does not support operations at the numbered Air Force (NAF) level.

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  • 24. 

    During a catastrophic event, Air Force Personnel Accountability and Assessment System (AFPAAS) standardizes a method for the Air Force to account, assess, manage, and monitor the recovery and reconstitution process for

    • A.

      Military personnel only.

    • B.

      Military and civilian personnel only.

    • C.

      Wing, group, and squadron commanders only.

    • D.

      All personnel and their families affected.

    Correct Answer
    D. All personnel and their families affected.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is all personnel and their families affected. During a catastrophic event, the Air Force Personnel Accountability and Assessment System (AFPAAS) aims to account for, assess, manage, and monitor the recovery and reconstitution process for not just military personnel, but also their families. This system is designed to ensure that all individuals impacted by the event are taken care of and accounted for, including both military and civilian personnel, as well as their families.

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  • 25. 

    Which C-rating would the commander assign if the unit possesses the required manpower and resources and is trained to undertake the full mission?

    • A.

      C–1.

    • B.

      C–2.

    • C.

      C–3.

    • D.

      C–4.

    Correct Answer
    A. C–1.
    Explanation
    If the unit possesses the required manpower and resources and is trained to undertake the full mission, the commander would assign a C–1 rating. This rating indicates that the unit is fully capable and ready to perform the mission effectively.

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  • 26. 

    Air Force manpower and logistics requirements documented in JOPES/DCAPES time phased force deployment data (TPFDD) are used in support of all of these documents except

    • A.

      Operations order (OPORD).

    • B.

      Operations plan (OPLAN).

    • C.

      Functional plan (FUNCPLAN).

    • D.

      Concept plans (CONPLAN).

    Correct Answer
    C. Functional plan (FUNCPLAN).
    Explanation
    JOPES/DCAPES time phased force deployment data (TPFDD) is used to document Air Force manpower and logistics requirements. These requirements are then used in the development of operations orders (OPORD), operations plans (OPLAN), and concept plans (CONPLAN). However, functional plans (FUNCPLAN) do not typically rely on the TPFDD data for their development. Therefore, the correct answer is functional plan (FUNCPLAN).

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  • 27. 

    What type of unit type code (UTC) is used in JOPES/DCAPES to identify manpower and logistics requirements for deployment, movement planning, and plan execution?

    • A.

      Standard.

    • B.

      Associate.

    • C.

      Nonstandard.

    • D.

      No-associate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard.
    Explanation
    In JOPES/DCAPES, the type of unit type code (UTC) used to identify manpower and logistics requirements for deployment, movement planning, and plan execution is "Standard". This suggests that there is a standardized set of codes and criteria for identifying and managing these requirements in the system.

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  • 28. 

    What type of unit type code (UTC) is considered a placeholder for all deployable positions that cannot be described or do not fit into an existing deployable UTC?

    • A.

      Standard.

    • B.

      Associate.

    • C.

      Nonstandard.

    • D.

      Nonassociate.

    Correct Answer
    B. Associate.
    Explanation
    An associate type of unit type code (UTC) is considered a placeholder for all deployable positions that cannot be described or do not fit into an existing deployable UTC. This means that when a position does not have a specific UTC assigned to it, it can be categorized as an associate UTC. This allows for flexibility in describing and organizing deployable positions that may not fit into standard or nonstandard categories.

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  • 29. 

    The manpower force packaging system (MANFOR) provides Air Force planners with standardized force capability outlining manpower requirements for all of the following except

    • A.

      Operations planning.

    • B.

      Execution documents.

    • C.

      Employment planning.

    • D.

      Readiness measurement.

    Correct Answer
    C. Employment planning.
    Explanation
    The MANFOR system is designed to provide Air Force planners with standardized force capability outlining manpower requirements for various aspects of Air Force operations. This includes operations planning, execution documents, and readiness measurement. However, it does not cover employment planning, which refers to the process of assigning personnel to specific job roles and positions within the Air Force. Therefore, the correct answer is employment planning.

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  • 30. 

    Which is not one of the guidelines used to determine when a unit type code (UTC) must be developed?

    • A.

      New equipment types enter the inventory.

    • B.

      When new equipment needs to be replaced.

    • C.

      Significant program changes occur in manpower or equipment.

    • D.

      Deployable units experience a significant change in either operational concept or mission.

    Correct Answer
    B. When new equipment needs to be replaced.
    Explanation
    The guidelines used to determine when a unit type code (UTC) must be developed include new equipment types entering the inventory, significant program changes in manpower or equipment, and deployable units experiencing a significant change in either operational concept or mission. However, the guideline "when new equipment needs to be replaced" is not one of the criteria for developing a UTC.

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  • 31. 

    When a unit type code (UTC) is no longer needed, who can request the UTC be cancelled?

    • A.

      Installation deployment officer (IDO).

    • B.

      MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA).

    • C.

      Unit deployment manager (UDM).

    • D.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    B. MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA).
    Explanation
    The MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA) can request the cancellation of a unit type code (UTC) when it is no longer needed. This suggests that the MRA has the authority and responsibility to manage and oversee the allocation and cancellation of UTCs. The other options, such as the Installation deployment officer (IDO), Unit deployment manager (UDM), and Major command (MAJCOM), may have different roles and responsibilities within the deployment process, but they do not have the specific authority to request the cancellation of a UTC.

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  • 32. 

    All Air Force personnel contribute to the air expeditionary force (AEF); therefore, all authorizations must be postured in the

    • A.

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • B.

      Mission capability statement (MISCAP).

    • C.

      Unit type code (UTC) availability.

    • D.

      Unit manning document (UMD).

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit type code (UTC) availability.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "unit type code (UTC) availability." This is because the question states that all Air Force personnel contribute to the air expeditionary force (AEF), and the AEF is organized and managed based on unit type codes (UTCs). Therefore, in order for all authorizations to be postured in the AEF, it is necessary to ensure the availability of the appropriate UTCs.

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  • 33. 

    The specific unit type codes (UTC) to posture is based on the Air Staff functional area manager (FAM) prioritization and sequencing instructions that can be found in or on the

    • A.

      AEFC AEF Online website.

    • B.

      HQ AFPC readiness website.

    • C.

      AFCSM 36–699, Military Personnel Data System.

    • D.

      AFI 10–401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution

    Correct Answer
    A. AEFC AEF Online website.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the AEFC AEF Online website. This is because the specific unit type codes (UTC) to posture are based on the Air Staff functional area manager (FAM) prioritization and sequencing instructions, which can be found on the AEFC AEF Online website. This website provides the necessary guidelines and information for determining the UTC posture.

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  • 34. 

    A-UTCs are postured in the unit type code (UTC) availability and aligned to the

    • A.

      Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • B.

      Air and space expeditionary force (AEF) libraries.

    • C.

      Needs of the deployment location.

    • D.

      Tempo bands.

    Correct Answer
    B. Air and space expeditionary force (AEF) libraries.
  • 35. 

    Mobilization of the air reserve component (ARC) is also called or considered

    • A.

      Initiation.

    • B.

      Activation.

    • C.

      Recruitment.

    • D.

      Employment.

    Correct Answer
    B. Activation.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "activation." Mobilization of the air reserve component (ARC) refers to the process of calling up or deploying the reserve forces of the air component. This term is used to describe the action of activating the reserve component and bringing them into active duty. "Activation" accurately describes the process of transitioning the reserve forces from their inactive state to active duty status.

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  • 36. 

    To meet immediate requirements for augmentation of the active Air Force during emergency or contingency operations describes which type of activation?

    • A.

      Volunteerism.

    • B.

      Total mobilization.

    • C.

      Partial mobilization.

    • D.

      Presidential selected reserve call up.

    Correct Answer
    D. Presidential selected reserve call up.
    Explanation
    Presidential selected reserve call up refers to the activation of reserve forces by the President of the United States to meet immediate requirements for augmentation of the active Air Force during emergency or contingency operations. This type of activation is specifically authorized by the President and is used when there is a need for additional personnel beyond what is available in the active duty force. It allows the President to call up reservists to support and supplement the active Air Force during critical situations.

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  • 37. 

    Expansion of the active armed forces by mobilization of reserve component (RC) units and/or individual reservists to deal with a situation where armed forces may be required to protect life, federal property and functions or to prevent disruption of federal activities describes which type of activation?

    • A.

      Full mobilization.

    • B.

      Total mobilization.

    • C.

      Partial mobilization.

    • D.

      Selective mobilization for a domestic emergency.

    Correct Answer
    D. Selective mobilization for a domestic emergency.
    Explanation
    The given question is asking for the type of activation that involves expanding the active armed forces by mobilizing reserve component units or individual reservists to deal with a situation where the armed forces may be required to protect life, federal property and functions, or prevent disruption of federal activities. The correct answer is "Selective mobilization for a domestic emergency" as this type of activation specifically refers to mobilizing reserve forces for domestic emergencies. This type of activation is selective because it targets specific reservists or units based on the requirements of the domestic emergency situation.

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  • 38. 

    Activation that requires passage by the Congress of a public law or joint resolution declaring war or a national emergency describes which type of activation?

    • A.

      Full mobilization.

    • B.

      Total mobilization.

    • C.

      Partial mobilization.

    • D.

      Presidential selected reserve call up.

    Correct Answer
    A. Full mobilization.
  • 39. 

    Normally, Push-Pull activation will not be recommended unless all of these factors are present except

    • A.

      Partial or full mobilization has been or is expected to be granted.

    • B.

      Shortages can be predicted in terms of Air Force specialty code (AFSC), quantity, and timing.

    • C.

      Large deployments of Air Force forces are required accompanied by expected personnel shortages.

    • D.

      Pretrained individual manpower (PIM) resources do not represent the best source of personnel to satisfy the projected shortages.

    Correct Answer
    D. Pretrained individual manpower (PIM) resources do not represent the best source of personnel to satisfy the projected shortages.
    Explanation
    Push-Pull activation is a manpower management strategy that involves mobilizing personnel from one unit to another to address shortages. However, this strategy is not recommended if pretrained individual manpower (PIM) resources are available and can effectively address the projected shortages. In this case, PIM resources are considered the best source of personnel to satisfy the shortages, making the push-pull activation unnecessary.

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  • 40. 

    Once the deactivation process occurs, the projected separation in the personnel data system (PDS) flows from base to Headquarters Air Force (HAF); the HAF records status changes from 10 to

    • A.

      17.

    • B.

      18.

    • C.

      19.

    • D.

      20.

    Correct Answer
    D. 20.
  • 41. 

    On the projected effective date of deactivation, Headquarters Air Force (HAF) changes the member’s record status from 20 to

    • A.

      81.

    • B.

      82.

    • C.

      83.

    • D.

      84.

    Correct Answer
    A. 81.
    Explanation
    On the projected effective date of deactivation, Headquarters Air Force (HAF) changes the member's record status from 20 to 81.

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  • 42. 

    When demobilization orders are not required, what two documents are used to verify deactivation?

    • A.

      DD Form 214 and a copy of TDY orders.

    • B.

      DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher.

    • C.

      Copy of activation orders and DD Form 214.

    • D.

      Copy of temporary duty (TDY) orders and paid travel voucher.

    Correct Answer
    B. DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher.
    Explanation
    When demobilization orders are not required, the two documents used to verify deactivation are the DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher. The DD Form 214 is a document issued to members of the military upon separation or retirement and provides information about their service, including dates of service, awards received, and reason for separation. The paid travel voucher is a document that confirms the member's travel expenses have been reimbursed. Together, these two documents serve as proof of deactivation.

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  • 43. 

    In order to be issued a DD Form 214, how many consecutive days must an activated volunteer serve?

    • A.

      30.

    • B.

      45.

    • C.

      60.

    • D.

      90.

    Correct Answer
    D. 90.
    Explanation
    An activated volunteer must serve for 90 consecutive days in order to be issued a DD Form 214. This form is a certificate of release or discharge from active duty in the armed forces and is given to service members upon completion of their service. The requirement of serving for 90 consecutive days ensures that the volunteer has fulfilled a significant period of duty before being eligible for the form.

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  • 44. 

    The purpose of the Military Personnel Appropriation (MPA) man-day program is to provide the Air Force (AF) with skilled manpower to support AF missions when which component resources are not available?

    • A.

      Regular.

    • B.

      Guard.

    • C.

      Reserve.

    • D.

      Conscript.

    Correct Answer
    A. Regular.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Military Personnel Appropriation (MPA) man-day program is to provide the Air Force (AF) with skilled manpower to support AF missions when regular component resources are not available. This suggests that the regular component of the Air Force may not always have enough personnel to fulfill all the required tasks, so the MPA man-day program is designed to supplement the regular component with additional skilled manpower.

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  • 45. 

    Military Personnel Appropriation (MPA) man-day orders for air reserve component (ARC) members supporting active component (AC) in a voluntary status should be for durations of how many days?

    • A.

      60 days or less.

    • B.

      120 days or less.

    • C.

      150 days or less.

    • D.

      181 days or less.

    Correct Answer
    D. 181 days or less.
    Explanation
    MPA man-day orders for ARC members supporting AC in a voluntary status should be for durations of 181 days or less. This means that the orders can be for any duration up to 181 days, but not exceeding that.

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  • 46. 

    Once an air reserve component (ARC) member begins an military personnel appropriation (MPA) tour, they are obligated to fulfill how much of the tour length?

    • A.

      Quarter.

    • B.

      Half.

    • C.

      Three fourths.

    • D.

      Entire.

    Correct Answer
    D. Entire.
    Explanation
    Once an air reserve component (ARC) member begins a military personnel appropriation (MPA) tour, they are obligated to fulfill the entire length of the tour. This means that they must complete the entire duration of the tour without any early termination or interruption. They are expected to fulfill their commitment until the end of the tour.

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  • 47. 

    Combatant commanders are also referred to as

    • A.

      Joint Force commander.

    • B.

      Troop commander.

    • C.

      Squadron commander.

    • D.

      Commander in charge.

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Force commander.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Joint Force commander. Combatant commanders are referred to as Joint Force commanders because they are responsible for the overall planning and execution of military operations within their assigned geographic or functional areas of responsibility. They are in charge of coordinating and integrating the efforts of multiple military services and working with partner nations to achieve mission objectives. The term "Joint Force" emphasizes the collaborative nature of these commands, as they bring together personnel and assets from different branches of the military to achieve a unified and effective force.

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  • 48. 

    Who nominates appointment of a combatant commander (CCDR)?

    • A.

      President.

    • B.

      Vice president.

    • C.

      Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF).

    • D.

      Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS).

    Correct Answer
    A. President.
    Explanation
    The President is responsible for nominating the appointment of a combatant commander (CCDR). This is because the President is the Commander-in-Chief of the armed forces and has the authority to make decisions regarding military appointments and promotions. The Vice President, Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF), and Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) do not have the same level of authority in making these nominations.

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  • 49. 

    What staff is the mechanism through which the Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) exercises responsibilities across the range of military operations from steady state operations in the engagement phase through major operations?

    • A.

      Air Force forces (AFFOR).

    • B.

      Combatant commander (CCDR).

    • C.

      Combatant commander (CCDR).

    • D.

      Area of responsibility (AOR) commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force forces (AFFOR).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force forces (AFFOR). The AFFOR is the staff mechanism through which the COMAFFOR exercises responsibilities across the range of military operations. This includes steady state operations in the engagement phase as well as major operations. The AFFOR is responsible for planning, organizing, and executing air and space power to achieve the objectives of the COMAFFOR. They coordinate with other military branches and agencies to ensure effective and efficient operations.

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  • 50. 

    The Air Force forces (AFFOR) staff supports the Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) in operational and what other type of responsibility?

    • A.

      Mission.

    • B.

      Taskings.

    • C.

      Service.

    • D.

      Administrative.

    Correct Answer
    D. Administrative.
    Explanation
    The Air Force forces (AFFOR) staff supports the Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) in operational and administrative responsibilities. While the operational responsibilities involve planning and executing military operations, the administrative responsibilities pertain to the management and coordination of personnel, resources, and logistical support. This includes tasks such as personnel management, budgeting, procurement, and other administrative functions necessary for the smooth functioning of the Air Force forces.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 06, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Dwdeason
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