1.
1. (Refer to figure 98 on page 2-102 and figure 99 on page 2-103 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond?
Correct Answer
C. C-19
2.
Select the ones you like.
(Refer to figure 103 on page 2-107.) On the basis of this information, the magnetic bearing TO the station would be
Correct Answer
C. C-355 degrees
3.
Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle
Correct Answer
B. B-deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale.
Explanation
In a CDI (Course Deviation Indicator), full scale deflection occurs when the course deviation bar or needle deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale. This means that the aircraft is deviating significantly from the desired course, and the CDI is indicating the maximum deviation possible.
4.
Where is DME required under IFR?
Correct Answer
B. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.
Explanation
DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) is required under IFR (Instrument Flight Rules) at or above 24,000 feet MSL (Mean Sea Level) if VOR (VHF Omnidirectional Range) navigational equipment is needed. This means that when flying at or above this altitude and relying on VOR navigation, pilots must have DME equipment to accurately determine their distance from a VOR station. DME provides distance information, which is crucial for navigation and maintaining situational awareness in the airspace.
5.
What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
Correct Answer
C. To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publications.
Explanation
FDC NOTAMs serve the purpose of notifying pilots and other aviation personnel about changes in flight data that may impact instrument approach procedures, aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions before they are officially published. This ensures that relevant parties are aware of any modifications or updates that may affect their operations and can make necessary adjustments accordingly.
6.
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
Correct Answer
B. B-Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.
Explanation
ATIS broadcasts are updated upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values. This means that even if there is no significant change in the weather conditions, the ATIS broadcasts will still be updated whenever new weather information is received. This ensures that pilots have the most up-to-date weather information available to them before they take off or during their flight.
7.
The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that
Correct Answer
B. The ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B,C, or D airspace.
Explanation
The correct answer is that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, or D airspace. This is because the operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours is an indication of poor visibility and low ceiling conditions. In Class E airspace, the in-flight visibility can be less than 3 miles and the ceiling less than 1,500 feet, but the beacon is not necessary to be operational during daylight hours in this case. An IFR clearance requirement is not mentioned in relation to the operation of the beacon.
8.
When are you require to establish communications with the tower, (Class E airspace) if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination?
Correct Answer
C. C-Before entering Class D airspace.
Explanation
When canceling an IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination in Class E airspace, you are required to establish communications with the tower before entering Class D airspace. This is because Class D airspace requires two-way radio communication with the control tower, and canceling your IFR flight plan does not automatically grant you permission to enter Class D airspace. Therefore, it is important to establish communication with the tower before entering Class D airspace to ensure compliance with airspace regulations and maintain safety.
9.
The vertical extent of the Class A airspace throughout the conterminous U.S. extends from
Correct Answer
B. B- 18,000 feet to and including FL600.
Explanation
The correct answer is B- 18,000 feet to and including FL600. This means that Class A airspace in the conterminous U.S. extends vertically from 18,000 feet up to and including FL600. FL450 and FL600 are both included within this range.
10.
Class G airspace is that airspace where
Correct Answer
A. A- ATC does not control air traffic.
Explanation
Class G airspace is uncontrolled airspace where air traffic control (ATC) does not provide services for managing air traffic. Pilots are responsible for their own separation and navigation in Class G airspace. This type of airspace is typically found in rural or remote areas where there is less air traffic and fewer navigation aids. In Class G airspace, pilots must rely on visual flight rules (VFR) and maintain appropriate separation from other aircraft.
11.
(Refer to figure 92 on page 3-14.)
What is the minimum in flight visibility and distance from clouds required for a VFR - on - Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours for area 3?
Correct Answer
C. C- 3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.
Explanation
The correct answer is C- 3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet. According to the information provided in figure 92 on page 3-14, for a VFR - on - Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours in area 3, the minimum in-flight visibility required is 3 miles, the minimum distance from clouds is 1,000 feet vertically, 2,000 feet horizontally, and the minimum distance from clouds when flying over an airport is 500 feet.
12.
(Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16.)
Which altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D airspace?
Correct Answer
B. B- 2,500 feet AGL.
Explanation
The correct answer is B- 2,500 feet AGL. According to Figure 93 on page 3-16, the normal upper limit for Class D airspace is 2,500 feet AGL.
13.
(Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16.)
What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP?
Correct Answer
B. B- 700 feet AGL
Explanation
The floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP is 700 feet AGL.
14.
(Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16)
Which altitude is the upper limit for Class A airspace?
Correct Answer
A. A- 14,500 feet MSL.
Explanation
The upper limit for Class A airspace is 14,500 feet MSL. This means that aircraft flying in Class A airspace must be at or above this altitude. Class A airspace is typically used for high-altitude, long-distance flights, and is controlled by air traffic control.
15.
(Refer to figure 93 on page 3-16)
What is generally the maximum altitude for Class B airspace?
Correct Answer
B. B- 10,000 feet MSL
Explanation
Class B airspace is generally defined as airspace surrounding the busiest airports, where there is a high volume of instrument flight rules (IFR) traffic. The maximum altitude for Class B airspace is typically 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL). This allows for separation of IFR traffic and provides a controlled environment for aircraft operating in and around the airport.