2A672 Pre-test Edit Code 06

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2A672 Pre-test Edit Code 06 - Quiz

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) What is the simplest form of matter?    

    • A.

      Element

    • B.

      Mixture

    • C.

      Electrons

    • D.

      Compund

    Correct Answer
    A. Element
    Explanation
    An element is the simplest form of matter because it consists of only one type of atom. Elements cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means. They are the building blocks of all other substances and are represented on the periodic table. Examples of elements include hydrogen, oxygen, carbon, and gold.

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  • 2. 

    (001) In an atom, what electrons contain the most energy?    

    • A.

      The energy is shared equally by all electrons

    • B.

      Orbiting electrons

    • C.

      Valence electrons

    • D.

      K shell electrons

    Correct Answer
    C. Valence electrons
    Explanation
    Valence electrons contain the most energy in an atom. These are the electrons located in the outermost energy level or shell of an atom. They are involved in chemical reactions and bonding with other atoms. The energy of valence electrons is higher compared to the electrons in inner shells because they are further away from the positively charged nucleus and experience less attraction. This allows valence electrons to participate in chemical reactions and determine the atom's chemical properties.

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  • 3. 

    (001) If there are eight electrons in the outer most shell of an atom, then it is considered    

    • A.

      Complete

    • B.

      Unstable

    • C.

      Charged

    • D.

      Stable

    Correct Answer
    D. Stable
    Explanation
    If an atom has eight electrons in its outermost shell, it is considered stable. This is because the outermost shell, also known as the valence shell, is complete with the maximum number of electrons it can hold. A complete valence shell indicates that the atom has achieved a full octet, which is a stable electron configuration. Stable atoms are less likely to undergo chemical reactions or form bonds with other atoms.

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  • 4. 

    (001) Atoms having more than four electrons, but less than eight are known as    

    • A.

      Insulators

    • B.

      Conductors

    • C.

      Stable atoms

    • D.

      Semiconductors

    Correct Answer
    A. Insulators
    Explanation
    Atoms having more than four electrons, but less than eight are known as insulators. Insulators are materials that do not conduct electricity easily due to the arrangement of their electrons. In these atoms, the outermost energy level is not fully filled, making them less likely to share or transfer electrons with other atoms. This incomplete outer electron shell creates a large energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band, making it difficult for electrons to move freely and conduct electricity.

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  • 5. 

    (001) The electrostatic fields around a positive ion move    

    • A.

      Inward

    • B.

      Outward

    • C.

      Inward, then outward

    • D.

      Outward, then inward

    Correct Answer
    B. Outward
    Explanation
    The electrostatic fields around a positive ion move outward. This is because positive ions have a deficiency of electrons, resulting in an overall positive charge. As a result, the electrostatic field lines emanate from the positive ion and extend outward into the surrounding space. This movement of the electrostatic fields outward is a characteristic behavior of positive ions.

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  • 6. 

    (001) The force required to move free electrons through a conductor is known as    

    • A.

      Current

    • B.

      Voltage

    • C.

      Negative charge

    • D.

      Electrostatic force

    Correct Answer
    B. Voltage
    Explanation
    Voltage is the correct answer because it is the force or potential difference that pushes free electrons through a conductor. It is the driving force behind the flow of electric current.

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  • 7. 

    (002) What are factors that affect the resistance of a material?    

    • A.

      Area, weight, and state of material.

    • B.

      Area, temperature, and type of material.

    • C.

      Temperature, weight, and state of material.

    • D.

      Temperature, type of material, and state of material.

    Correct Answer
    B. Area, temperature, and type of material.
    Explanation
    The factors that affect the resistance of a material are the area of the material, the temperature, and the type of material. The area of the material affects resistance because a larger area allows for more current to flow through, resulting in lower resistance. The temperature of the material also affects resistance because as the temperature increases, the resistance of the material also increases. Finally, the type of material affects resistance because different materials have different resistivities, which determine how easily current can flow through them.

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  • 8. 

    (002) What is the resistance in a circuit if the power rating is 40 watts and total current is 2 amps?    

    • A.

      40 ohms

    • B.

      20 ohms

    • C.

      10 ohms

    • D.

      0.5 ohms

    Correct Answer
    C. 10 ohms
    Explanation
    The resistance in a circuit can be calculated using the formula: Resistance = Power / Current^2. In this case, the power rating is given as 40 watts and the total current is 2 amps. Plugging these values into the formula, we get: Resistance = 40 / (2^2) = 40 / 4 = 10 ohms. Therefore, the correct answer is 10 ohms.

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  • 9. 

    002) In a series-parallel circuit, find RT (total resistance) if series resistor R1 = 7 ohms, and parallel resistors R2 and R3 = 8 ohms.

    • A.

      23 ohms

    • B.

      15 ohms

    • C.

      11 ohms

    • D.

      8 ohms

    Correct Answer
    C. 11 ohms
    Explanation
    In a series-parallel circuit, the total resistance (RT) is calculated by adding the resistances in series and then adding the reciprocal of the resistances in parallel. In this case, the resistors R2 and R3 are in parallel, so their combined resistance is 1/(1/R2 + 1/R3) = 1/(1/8 + 1/8) = 1/(2/8) = 1/(1/4) = 4 ohms. The total resistance is then the sum of R1 and the combined resistance of R2 and R3, which is 7 + 4 = 11 ohms.

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  • 10. 

    (002) In a series-parallel circuit, the series current at I1 = 9 amps; in the two parallel branches, I2 = 5 amps; and the value of I3 is not listed. Use Ohm’s law to find the value of I3 and IT.

    • A.

      I3 = 5 amps and IT = 14 amps.

    • B.

      I3 = 4 amps and IT = 9 amps.

    • C.

      I3 = 4 amps and IT = 18 amps.

    • D.

      Not enough information to solve.

    Correct Answer
    B. I3 = 4 amps and IT = 9 amps.
    Explanation
    The value of I3 can be found by applying Kirchhoff's current law, which states that the total current entering a junction is equal to the total current leaving the junction. In this case, I1 = I2 + I3. Given that I1 = 9 amps and I2 = 5 amps, we can solve for I3, which is 4 amps. To find the total current (IT), we can simply add up the currents in the series and parallel branches, giving us IT = I1 = 9 amps. Therefore, the correct answer is I3 = 4 amps and IT = 9 amps.

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  • 11. 

    (002) In a series-parallel circuit, total voltage is 12 volts, the value of E1 in the series portion of the circuit is unknown. There are two parallel branches (E2 = 3 volts) and the value of E3 in the second parallel branch is unknown. Using Ohm’s law, find the value of E1 and E3.

    • A.

      E3 = 9 volts and E1 = 12 volts.

    • B.

      E3 = 9 volts and E1 = 3 volts.

    • C.

      E3 = 3 volts and E1 = 6 volts.

    • D.

      E3 = 3 volts and E1 = 9 volts.

    Correct Answer
    D. E3 = 3 volts and E1 = 9 volts.
    Explanation
    In a series-parallel circuit, the total voltage is divided between the series and parallel portions. Since the total voltage is given as 12 volts and the value of E2 in the parallel branch is given as 3 volts, the remaining voltage (12 - 3 = 9 volts) is divided between E1 and E3. Therefore, E1 is 9 volts and E3 is 3 volts.

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  • 12. 

    (002) What is the difference between an open and a short?

    • A.

      An open causes resistance to decrease; a short causes resistance to increase.

    • B.

      Excessive current flow in an open circuit; no current flow in a shorted component.

    • C.

      No current flow in an open circuit; excessive current flow in a shorted component.

    • D.

      Minimum voltage development across the open component; maximum voltage development across the shorted component.

    Correct Answer
    C. No current flow in an open circuit; excessive current flow in a shorted component.
    Explanation
    An open circuit refers to a break or discontinuity in the circuit, which prevents the flow of current. Therefore, there is no current flow in an open circuit. On the other hand, a short circuit occurs when there is a direct connection between two points in the circuit with very low resistance. This results in excessive current flow as the current takes the path of least resistance. Hence, the correct answer states that there is no current flow in an open circuit, while there is excessive current flow in a shorted component.

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  • 13. 

    (003) When voltage is induced into a conductor by a relative motion between the conductor and a magnetic field this principle is known as

    • A.

      Magnetism

    • B.

      Reluctance

    • C.

      Direct current

    • D.

      Electromagnetic induction

    Correct Answer
    D. Electromagnetic induction
    Explanation
    Electromagnetic induction is the principle where voltage is induced into a conductor by the relative motion between the conductor and a magnetic field. This phenomenon was first discovered by Michael Faraday in 1831. It is the basis for the operation of generators, transformers, and other electrical devices. When a conductor moves through a magnetic field or when the magnetic field around a conductor changes, an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor, resulting in the generation of an electric current. This principle is widely used in various applications in electrical engineering.

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  • 14. 

    (003) In an inductive circuit, what is meant by current lags voltage by 90 degrees?

    • A.

      Current is zero when voltage is zero; voltage is maximum when current is maximum.

    • B.

      Current is maximum when voltage is zero; voltage is maximum when current is zero.

    • C.

      If current decreases, voltage aids the decrease.

    • D.

      If current increases, voltage aids the increase.

    Correct Answer
    B. Current is maximum when voltage is zero; voltage is maximum when current is zero.
    Explanation
    In an inductive circuit, current lags voltage by 90 degrees means that the maximum value of current occurs when the voltage is at its minimum value, and the maximum value of voltage occurs when the current is at its minimum value. This is because in an inductive circuit, the current takes time to reach its maximum value after the voltage is applied. Therefore, there is a phase difference of 90 degrees between the current and voltage waveforms.

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  • 15. 

    (004) What is the basic principle of operation for transformers?    

    • A.

      Mutual induction

    • B.

      Magnetic induction

    • C.

      Counterelectromotive force

    • D.

      Primary and secondary induction

    Correct Answer
    A. Mutual induction
    Explanation
    The basic principle of operation for transformers is mutual induction. Mutual induction refers to the process in which a changing current in one coil induces a voltage in a nearby coil. In a transformer, this principle is used to transfer electrical energy from one circuit to another through electromagnetic induction. The primary coil, connected to a power source, creates a changing magnetic field which induces a voltage in the secondary coil, allowing for the transfer of energy.

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  • 16. 

    (004) What transformer winding acts as a conductor and provides the path into which the voltage is induced? 

    • A.

      Field

    • B.

      Primary

    • C.

      Secondary

    • D.

      Stationary

    Correct Answer
    C. Secondary
    Explanation
    The secondary winding of a transformer acts as a conductor and provides the path into which the voltage is induced. When an alternating current flows through the primary winding, it creates a changing magnetic field. This changing magnetic field induces a voltage in the secondary winding, which can then be used to power electrical devices or transmit electricity to a different location. The secondary winding is typically connected to the load or the electrical system that requires the transformed voltage.

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  • 17. 

    (005) If the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, how is capacitance affected?    

    • A.

      Capacitance increases.

    • B.

      Capacitance decreases.

    • C.

      Electrons are distorted and scattered.

    • D.

      Electrostatic force between the plates decreases.

    Correct Answer
    A. Capacitance increases.
    Explanation
    When the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, the distance between the plates also increases. This results in an increase in the capacitance of the capacitor. Capacitance is directly proportional to the area of the plates and inversely proportional to the distance between them. Therefore, when the size of the plates is increased, the capacitance also increases.

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  • 18. 

    (005) What statement best describes a capacitive circuit?

    • A.

      Current leads applied voltage by 90 degrees.

    • B.

      Applied voltage leads current by 90 degrees.

    • C.

      Has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other.

    • D.

      Has the ability to conduct in all directions when gated or discharged.

    Correct Answer
    A. Current leads applied voltage by 90 degrees.
    Explanation
    A capacitive circuit is characterized by the fact that the current flowing through it leads the applied voltage by 90 degrees. This means that the current reaches its maximum value before the voltage does. This behavior is due to the fact that a capacitor stores energy in an electric field, and as the voltage across it changes, the electric field charges or discharges, causing the current to flow. Therefore, the correct answer is that the current leads the applied voltage by 90 degrees.

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  • 19. 

    (005) In what type of circuit(s) does a capacitor oppose any change in voltage?    

    • A.

      Alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC).

    • B.

      Pulsating DC

    • C.

      Pure DC

    • D.

      AC

    Correct Answer
    D. AC
    Explanation
    A capacitor opposes any change in voltage in an AC circuit because it stores and releases electrical energy as the voltage alternates. In an AC circuit, the voltage continuously changes direction, causing the capacitor to charge and discharge repeatedly, which creates an opposition to any change in voltage. On the other hand, in a DC circuit, the voltage remains constant, so a capacitor does not oppose any change in voltage. Therefore, the correct answer is AC.

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  • 20. 

    (006) What statement best describes a diode?

    • A.

      Is a five-terminal device.

    • B.

      Is a three-terminal device.

    • C.

      Has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other.

    • D.

      Has the ability to conduct in all directions when gated or discharged.

    Correct Answer
    C. Has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other.
    Explanation
    A diode is a two-terminal device that allows current to flow in one direction while blocking it in the opposite direction. This property is known as rectification and is achieved by the presence of a PN junction in the diode. When the diode is forward-biased, it conducts current, but when it is reverse-biased, it acts as an open circuit. This characteristic makes diodes useful in various applications such as rectifiers, voltage regulators, and signal demodulation.

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  • 21. 

    (006) What are the minority carriers in P-type material?    

    • A.

      Holes

    • B.

      Protons

    • C.

      Neutrons

    • D.

      Electrons

    Correct Answer
    D. Electrons
    Explanation
    In P-type material, the majority carriers are holes, which are positively charged. Therefore, the minority carriers would be the opposite charge, which are electrons. Electrons are negatively charged and are present in lower concentrations compared to holes in P-type material.

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  • 22. 

    (007) The area of a semiconductor where P-type material is joined to N-type material is known as    

    • A.

      Dielectric region.

    • B.

      Depletion region.

    • C.

      Depletion field.

    • D.

      PN region

    Correct Answer
    B. Depletion region.
    Explanation
    The area of a semiconductor where P-type material is joined to N-type material is known as the depletion region. In this region, the majority carriers from both types of materials recombine, creating a region depleted of free charge carriers. This depletion region acts as a barrier to the flow of current, creating a potential barrier. When a voltage is applied across the P-N junction, the depletion region width changes, allowing or blocking the flow of current.

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  • 23. 

    (007) A junction diode has how many PN junction(s)?    

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    A junction diode has only one PN junction. A PN junction is formed when a P-type semiconductor material is joined with an N-type semiconductor material. This creates a region where the free electrons from the N-type material combine with the holes from the P-type material, creating a depletion region. This depletion region acts as a barrier to the flow of current in one direction, allowing the diode to function as a one-way valve for electrical current. Therefore, a junction diode has only one PN junction.

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  • 24. 

    (007) If a negative potential is connected to the cathode and a positive potential is connected to the anode of a PN junction, the diode is

    • A.

      Not allowing current to flow

    • B.

      Forward biased

    • C.

      Reverse biased

    • D.

      Turned on

    Correct Answer
    B. Forward biased
    Explanation
    When a negative potential is connected to the cathode and a positive potential is connected to the anode of a PN junction, the diode is forward biased. In this configuration, the positive potential at the anode repels the majority charge carriers in the P-region towards the junction, while the negative potential at the cathode attracts the majority charge carriers in the N-region towards the junction. This creates a low resistance path for current to flow through the diode, allowing current to flow from the anode to the cathode.

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  • 25. 

    (008) In a circuit using a bridge rectifier, how many diodes are forward biased during the first cycle of alternating current (AC)?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      1

    Correct Answer
    C. 2
    Explanation
    In a bridge rectifier circuit, there are four diodes arranged in a bridge configuration. During the first cycle of AC, the two diodes on the same side of the bridge as the positive terminal of the AC source will be forward biased, allowing current to flow through them. The other two diodes will be reverse biased and will not conduct current. Therefore, only two diodes are forward biased during the first cycle of AC.

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  • 26. 

    (009) How is a zener diode connected in a circuit to regulate voltage?    

    • A.

      In parallel to the load

    • B.

      In series to the load

    • C.

      In parallel to the resistor

    • D.

      In series with the resistor

    Correct Answer
    D. In series with the resistor
    Explanation
    A zener diode is connected in series with the resistor in a circuit to regulate voltage. When the voltage across the zener diode exceeds its breakdown voltage, it starts conducting and maintains a constant voltage drop across itself. By connecting it in series with the resistor, the zener diode ensures that the voltage across the load remains constant, even if the input voltage fluctuates.

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  • 27. 

    (009) How is the zener diode connected in a circuit to protect the load?    

    • A.

      In parallel to the resistor.

    • B.

      In series with the load.

    • C.

      In parallel to the load.

    • D.

      Forward biased.

    Correct Answer
    C. In parallel to the load.
    Explanation
    The zener diode is connected in parallel to the load in order to protect it. When the voltage across the load exceeds the breakdown voltage of the zener diode, it starts conducting and limits the voltage to the breakdown voltage. This prevents any excessive voltage from reaching the load and protects it from damage.

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  • 28. 

    (010) What is the primary use of a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR)?    

    • A.

      Electronic switch.

    • B.

      Voltage regulator.

    • C.

      Circuit amplifier.

    • D.

      Spike protector.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic switch.
    Explanation
    A silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) is primarily used as an electronic switch. It is a semiconductor device that can control the flow of electric current in a circuit. When a small current is applied to the gate terminal of the SCR, it allows a larger current to flow through the main terminals, acting as a switch that can turn on and off the current flow. SCR switches are commonly used in applications such as motor control, power supplies, and lighting control.

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  • 29. 

    (010) The silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) has how many layers? 

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    D. 4
    Explanation
    The silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) has four layers. An SCR is a type of semiconductor device that acts as an electric switch. It consists of three P-N junctions, which form four layers: P-N-P-N. The four layers allow the SCR to control the flow of electric current by blocking or allowing it to pass through.

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  • 30. 

    (010) In order to turn off a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR), the current must drop below the    

    • A.

      Trigger current.

    • B.

      Holding current.

    • C.

      Variable current.

    • D.

      Breakdown current.

    Correct Answer
    B. Holding current.
    Explanation
    When turning off a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR), the current must drop below the holding current. The holding current is the minimum current required to keep the SCR in the "on" state. If the current drops below this threshold, the SCR will turn off and stop conducting. The holding current is an important parameter to consider when designing circuits using SCRs, as it determines the stability of the device and its ability to maintain the "off" state.

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  • 31. 

    (011) If the arrow in a bipolar transistor is pointing away from the base, what type of transistor is it? 

    • A.

      N-type.

    • B.

      P-type.

    • C.

      NPN.

    • D.

      PNP.

    Correct Answer
    C. NPN.
    Explanation
    If the arrow in a bipolar transistor is pointing away from the base, it indicates that the transistor is of NPN type. In an NPN transistor, the base is made of P-type material, while the emitter and collector are made of N-type material. The arrow represents the direction of conventional current flow, which is from the emitter to the base and then to the collector in an NPN transistor.

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  • 32. 

    (011) What is the major difference between an NPN transistor and a PNP transistor?    

    • A.

      A PNP transistor can only be used as a regulator.

    • B.

      An NPN transistor can only be used as a switch.

    • C.

      Direction of current flow.

    • D.

      Number of junctions.

    Correct Answer
    C. Direction of current flow.
    Explanation
    The major difference between an NPN transistor and a PNP transistor is the direction of current flow. In an NPN transistor, the current flows from the collector to the emitter, while in a PNP transistor, the current flows from the emitter to the collector. This difference in current flow direction is due to the arrangement and polarity of the semiconductor materials in the transistor.

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  • 33. 

    (011) The most positive point in a PNP bipolar transistor is the    

    • A.

      Load circuit.

    • B.

      Collector

    • C.

      Emitter

    • D.

      Base

    Correct Answer
    C. Emitter
    Explanation
    In a PNP bipolar transistor, the emitter is the most positive point. This is because the emitter is connected to the positive terminal of the power supply, while the base and collector are connected to the negative terminal. The emitter is responsible for injecting majority charge carriers (electrons in this case) into the base region, allowing current to flow through the transistor. Therefore, the emitter is considered the most positive point in the transistor.

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  • 34. 

    (011) The circuit in the bipolar transistor that carries 5 percent of the current flow is the    

    • A.

      Base circuit

    • B.

      Load circuit

    • C.

      Control circuit

    • D.

      Emitter-collector circuit

    Correct Answer
    C. Control circuit
    Explanation
    The control circuit in a bipolar transistor is responsible for regulating the flow of current through the transistor. It controls the base current, which in turn controls the collector current. The control circuit is crucial for the proper functioning of the transistor and ensures that the desired amount of current flows through it.

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  • 35. 

    (012) What happens if the emitter-base (E-B) current is increased in a transistor amplifier?    

    • A.

      Resistance decreases and current through the load circuit decreases.

    • B.

      Current decreases through the emitter-collector (E-C) circuit.

    • C.

      Resistance increases and current flow decreases.

    • D.

      Current increases through the E-C circuit.

    Correct Answer
    D. Current increases through the E-C circuit.
    Explanation
    When the emitter-base (E-B) current is increased in a transistor amplifier, it causes the transistor to enter into the active region of operation. In this region, the transistor acts as an amplifier and allows a larger current to flow through the emitter-collector (E-C) circuit. Therefore, the correct answer is that the current increases through the E-C circuit.

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  • 36. 

    (013) The emitter in a unijunction transistor (UJT) always points toward the    

    • A.

      Base 1 lead

    • B.

      Collector

    • C.

      Emitter

    • D.

      Gate

    Correct Answer
    A. Base 1 lead
    Explanation
    The emitter in a unijunction transistor (UJT) always points toward the base 1 lead.

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  • 37. 

    (013) What are the three leads in a unijunction transistor (UJT) called?    

    • A.

      Anode, cathode, and gate.

    • B.

      Emitter, base 1, and base 2.

    • C.

      Emitter, collector, and base.

    • D.

      Common emitter, common collector, and common base.

    Correct Answer
    B. Emitter, base 1, and base 2.
    Explanation
    The three leads in a unijunction transistor (UJT) are called emitter, base 1, and base 2.

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  • 38. 

    (013) What controls the firing time of the unijunction transistor (UJT)?    

    • A.

      Intrinsic standoff ratio.

    • B.

      Resistance in the circuit.

    • C.

      Capacitance in the circuit.

    • D.

      Resistance and capacitance in the circuit.

    Correct Answer
    D. Resistance and capacitance in the circuit.
    Explanation
    The firing time of a unijunction transistor (UJT) is controlled by the resistance and capacitance in the circuit. The resistance determines the rate at which the capacitor charges, while the capacitance determines the time it takes for the capacitor to discharge. By adjusting the values of resistance and capacitance, the firing time of the UJT can be controlled.

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  • 39. 

    (013) A metal oxide varistor (MOV) is made up of how many semiconductors?    

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    A metal oxide varistor (MOV) is made up of two semiconductors. This is because a MOV is typically composed of a zinc oxide (ZnO) disc and a ceramic disc. The ZnO disc acts as a non-linear resistor and the ceramic disc acts as an insulator. When a voltage surge occurs, the ZnO disc conducts and absorbs the excess energy, protecting the circuit from damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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  • 40. 

    (014) What component of the voltage regulator compensates for losses in the power cable by sensing changes in current flow?

    • A.

      Load rheostat

    • B.

      No load rheostat

    • C.

      Line drop switch

    • D.

      Voltage adjustment rheostat

    Correct Answer
    A. Load rheostat
    Explanation
    The load rheostat is the component of the voltage regulator that compensates for losses in the power cable by sensing changes in current flow. It adjusts the resistance in the circuit to maintain a constant voltage output, compensating for any losses in the power cable by increasing or decreasing the current flow as needed. This ensures that the voltage remains stable and consistent, regardless of any losses in the power cable.

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  • 41. 

    (014) The portion of the voltage regulator that supplies exciter field voltage is transformer    

    • A.

      (T1) and rectifier (B3)

    • B.

      (T3) and rectifier (B2).

    • C.

      (T2) and rectifier (B1).

    • D.

      (T1) and rectifier (CR26).

    Correct Answer
    D. (T1) and rectifier (CR26).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is (T1) and rectifier (CR26). The exciter field voltage is supplied by the transformer (T1) and rectifier (CR26) in the voltage regulator. The transformer steps down the input voltage to the desired level for the exciter field, and the rectifier converts the AC voltage from the transformer into DC voltage. This combination of transformer and rectifier ensures that the exciter field receives the appropriate voltage for proper operation.

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  • 42. 

    (015) Refer to foldout 1. After performing an operational check of the A/M32A–86D generator set, you proceed to shut the unit down. After the generator stops, you notice the engine on light continues to glow. What is a probable cause of this trouble?

    • A.

      S46 open

    • B.

      S48 open

    • C.

      S46 closed

    • D.

      S48 closed

    Correct Answer
    D. S48 closed
    Explanation
    The probable cause of the engine on light continuing to glow after shutting down the generator set is that S48 is closed. When S48 is closed, it indicates that the engine is still receiving power and is not fully shut down.

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  • 43. 

    (015) Refer to foldout 1. During operation of the A/M32A–86D generator set, you get no response when you place S13 in the GENERATE position. A check of voltage at J8, terminal N, shows 12 volts direct current (VDC). What is a probable cause of this trouble?

    • A.

      M4 is open

    • B.

      S53 is open

    • C.

      K23 is open

    • D.

      K16 is open

    Correct Answer
    B. S53 is open
    Explanation
    The probable cause of the trouble is that S53 is open.

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  • 44. 

    (015) Refer to foldout 1. You are operating an A/M32A–86D generator set at governed speed, but voltage doesn’t build up. What is a probable cause of this trouble?

    • A.

      S1 is in the automatic position.

    • B.

      R61 is turned fully clockwise.

    • C.

      K16 contacts are closing.

    • D.

      K23 contacts are open.

    Correct Answer
    D. K23 contacts are open.
    Explanation
    The probable cause of the voltage not building up in the generator set is that the K23 contacts are open.

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  • 45. 

    (015) During operation of the A/M32A–86D generator set, what position do you place control switch S13 in to move the fuel rack and increase the engine speed to 2,000 revolutions per minute (RPM)?

    • A.

      IDLE

    • B.

      GENERATE

    • C.

      BUILD UP VOLTS

    • D.

      AUTO TEST BANK

    Correct Answer
    B. GENERATE
    Explanation
    During operation of the A/M32A-86D generator set, you would place control switch S13 in the "GENERATE" position to move the fuel rack and increase the engine speed to 2,000 RPM.

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  • 46. 

    (015) Refer to foldout 1. During an operational check of the A/M32A–86D generator set, the shutdown solenoid energizes immediately after the engine run indicator illuminates. What is a probable cause of this trouble?

    • A.

      S48 open

    • B.

      S46 open

    • C.

      S49 shorted

    • D.

      S22 stuck open

    Correct Answer
    C. S49 shorted
    Explanation
    The probable cause of the shutdown solenoid energizing immediately after the engine run indicator illuminates is that S49 is shorted.

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  • 47. 

    (015) Refer to foldout 1. During operation of the A/M32A–86D generator set, the low coolant light (DS50) illuminates, but the unit does not shut down. What is a probable cause of this trouble?

    • A.

      A2

    • B.

      DS50

    • C.

      S55 is closed

    • D.

      S48 is closed

    Correct Answer
    A. A2
    Explanation
    The low coolant light (DS50) illuminates, but the unit does not shut down. This suggests that the low coolant switch (S55) and the low coolant relay (S48) are both closed. When the coolant level is low, the low coolant switch should open, causing the low coolant relay to open as well and shut down the unit. However, in this case, both the switch and relay are closed, indicating a malfunction in either one of them.

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  • 48. 

    (016) What component controls the strength of the A/M32A–86D generator exciter field L2?    

    • A.

      Excitation relay K16.

    • B.

      Time delay relay K14.

    • C.

      Voltage regulator VR1.

    • D.

      Automatic manual switch S1.

    Correct Answer
    C. Voltage regulator VR1.
    Explanation
    The component that controls the strength of the A/M32A-86D generator exciter field L2 is the voltage regulator VR1. The voltage regulator is responsible for regulating the output voltage of the generator. By adjusting the exciter field, it controls the strength of the field and ensures that the generator produces the desired voltage.

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  • 49. 

    (016) What component on an A/M32A–86D generator is used to manually increase output voltage? 

    • A.

      Voltage rheostat R61.

    • B.

      Excitation relay K16.

    • C.

      Test bank switch S202.

    • D.

      Auto/Manual switch S1.

    Correct Answer
    A. Voltage rheostat R61.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Voltage rheostat R61. A voltage rheostat is a device used to control or vary the voltage in a circuit. In the context of an A/M32A-86D generator, the voltage rheostat R61 is used to manually increase the output voltage. By adjusting the rheostat, the operator can increase or decrease the voltage being generated by the generator. This allows for fine-tuning of the output voltage to meet specific requirements or to compensate for variations in the electrical load.

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  • 50. 

    (016) Refer to foldout 1. Where is the best point to check voltage to the A/M32A–86D generator exciter field? 

    • A.

      J8, terminal D-F.

    • B.

      J8, terminal V-X.

    • C.

      VR1, terminal C-R.

    • D.

      Automatic-manual switch S1.

    Correct Answer
    A. J8, terminal D-F.
    Explanation
    The best point to check voltage to the A/M32A-86D generator exciter field is at J8, terminal D-F.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 04, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Delgadoi
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