Pathopharmacology Test Quiz- Chapters 5 & 7
Pathopharmacology quiz for MSN students. Credit goes to Dr. Nmezi for creating the quiz. I simply put it in this format to make studying easier. This quiz covers chapters 5 & 7 from the McCance Pathophysiology -text.
- 1.
The data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 American blacks is an example of which concept?
- A.
Incidence
- B.
Prevalence
- C.
Ratio
- D.
Risk
Correct Answer
B. PrevalenceExplanation
Prevalence rate is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at a specific point in time. Prevalence is thus determined by both the incidence rate and the length of the survival period in affected individuals. (Incidence is the number of new cases)Rate this question:
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- 2.
The _____ risk of developing a disease is expressed as the ratio of the disease rate among the exposed population to the disease rate in an unexposed population.
- A.
Attributable
- B.
Contingency
- C.
Causal
- D.
Relative
Correct Answer
D. RelativeExplanation
A common measure of the effect of a specific risk factor is the relative risk.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases are based on:
- A.
Chromosomal testing
- B.
Direct observation
- C.
Liability thresholds
- D.
Relative Risk
Correct Answer
B. Direct observationExplanation
For most multifactorial diseases, empirical risks (i.e., risks based on direct observation of data) have been derived.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)?
- A.
A diet high in saturated fats
- B.
An increased production of cholesterol by the liver
- C.
A reduction in the number of LDL receptors on cell surfaces
- D.
An abnormal function of lipoprotein receptors circulating in the blood
Correct Answer
C. A reduction in the number of LDL receptors on cell surfacesExplanation
FH is caused by a reduction in the number of functional LDL receptors on cell surfaces. Lacking the normal number of LDL receptors, cellular cholesterol uptake is reduced and circulating cholesterol levels increase.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which risk factor for HTN is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle?
- A.
Sodium intake
- B.
Physical inactivity
- C.
Psychological stress
- D.
Obesity
Correct Answer
D. ObesityExplanation
The most important environmental risk factors for hypertension are increased sodium intake, decreased physical activity, psychosocial stress, and obesity (but, as discussed later, the latter factor is itself influenced by genes and environment).Rate this question:
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- 6.
An autosomal dominant form of breast cancer accounts for ___% of all cases.
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
20
Correct Answer
A. 5Explanation
An autosomal dominant form of breast cancer accounts for approximately 5% of breast cancer cases in the United States.Rate this question:
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- 7.
If a woman has one first-degree relative with breast CA, her risk of developing breast CA is ___ times what it would otherwise be.
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
6
- D.
10
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
If a woman has one affected first-degree relative, her risk of developing breast cancer doubles.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Cancers that cluster strongly in families include:
- A.
Breast and colon
- B.
Lung and ovarian
- C.
Brain and lung
- D.
Lung and brain
Correct Answer
A. Breast and colonExplanation
Lung and colon cancers have proven to show a strong familial tendency.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which genes are responsible for an autosomal dominant form of breast CA?
- A.
LCAT genes
- B.
CHK1 and CHK2 genes
- C.
BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes
- D.
TP53 and TP54 genes
Correct Answer
C. BRCA1 and BRCA2 genesExplanation
Women who inherit a mutation in BRCA1 or BRCA2 experience a 50% to 80% lifetime risk of developing breast cancer.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The BRCA and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women?
- A.
Ovarian
- B.
Lung and ovarian
- C.
Uterine
- D.
Pancreatic
Correct Answer
A. OvarianExplanation
BRCA1 mutations increase the risk of ovarian cancer among women (20% to 50% lifetime risk), and BRCA2 mutations also confer an increased risk of ovarian cancer (10% to 20% lifetime prevalence).Rate this question:
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- 11.
The primary characteristic that differentiates the immune response from other protective mechanisms is that the immune response is:
- A.
Similar each time it is activated
- B.
Specific to the antigen that activates it
- C.
A short term response to a specific pathogen
- D.
An innate response, rather than acquired
Correct Answer
B. Specific to the antigen that activates itExplanation
Unlike inflammation, which is nonspecifically activated by cellular damage as well as pathogenic microorganisms, the immune response is primarily designed to afford long-term specific protection (i.e., immunity) against particular invading microorganisms, that is, it has a “memory” function.Rate this question:
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- 12.
B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells in the:
- A.
Thymus gland
- B.
Regional lymph nodes
- C.
Bone marrow
- D.
Spleen
Correct Answer
C. Bone marrowExplanation
This process is called the generation of clonal diversity and occurs in specialized (primary) lymphoid organs; the thymus for T cells and the bone marrow for B cells.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the term for the process in which lymphoid stem cells migrate from the bone marrow to the central lymphoid organs (thymus or bone marrow) where they undergo cellular changes into either immunocompetent T cells or immunocompetent B cells?
- A.
Generation of clonal diversity
- B.
Clonal differentiation
- C.
Clonal selection
- D.
Clonal competence
Correct Answer
A. Generation of clonal diversityExplanation
This process is called the generation of clonal diversity and occurs in specialized (primary) lymphoid organs: the thymus for T cells and the bone marrow for B cells.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen?
- A.
Passive acquired
- B.
Active acquired
- C.
Passive innate
- D.
Active innate
Correct Answer
B. Active acquiredExplanation
Active acquired immunity (active immunity) is produced by an individual after natural exposure to an antigen or after immunization, whereas passive acquired immunity (passive immunity) does not involve the host’s immune response at all.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
- A.
Passive acquired
- B.
Active acquired
- C.
Passive innate
- D.
Active innate
Correct Answer
A. Passive acquiredExplanation
Passive acquired immunity (passive immunity) does not involve the host’s immune response at all. Rather, passive immunity occurs when preformed antibodies or T lymphocytes are transferred from a donor to the recipient. This can occur naturally, as in the passage of maternal antibodies across the placenta to the fetus, or artificially, as in a clinic using immunotherapy for a specific disease.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is called an antigenic determinant or a(n):
- A.
Immunotope
- B.
Paratope
- C.
Epitope
- D.
Antigenitope
Correct Answer
C. EpitopeExplanation
The precise portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is called its antigenic determinant, or epitope.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The most important determinant of immunogenicity is the antigen's:
- A.
Size
- B.
Foreignness
- C.
Complexity
- D.
Quantity
Correct Answer
B. ForeignnessExplanation
Foremost among the criteria for immunogenicity is the antigen’s foreignness. A self-antigen that fulfills all these criteria except foreignness does not normally elicit an immune response. Thus most individuals are tolerant to their own antigens. The immune system has an exquisite ability to distinguish self (self-antigens) from non-self (foreign antigens).Rate this question:
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- 18.
When antigens are administered to individuals to produce immunity, why are different routes of administration used (IV, SQ, nasal)?
- A.
Different routes allow the speed of onset of the antigen to be varied, with the IV route being fastest
- B.
Some individuals appear to be unable to respond to an antigen by a specific route, thus requiring the availability of different routes for the same antigen
- C.
Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) are highly specialized and thus require stimulation by different routes
- D.
Each route stimulates a different lymphocyte-containing tissue resulting in different types of cellular and humoral immunity
Correct Answer
D. Each route stimulates a different lympHocyte-containing tissue resulting in different types of cellular and humoral immunityExplanation
Each route preferentially stimulates a different set of lymphocyte-containing (lymphoid) tissues and therefore results in the induction of different types of cell-mediated or humoral immune responses.Rate this question:
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- 19.
How are functions of the major histocompatibility molecules and CD1 molecules alike?
- A.
They are both antigen-presenting (APC) molecules
- B.
They both bind antigens to antibodies
- C.
They both secrete interleukins during the immune process
- D.
They are both capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Correct Answer
A. They are both antigen-presenting (APC) moleculesExplanation
An essential set of recognition molecules are members of the MHC. Most antibody and cellular immune responses are dependent on antigen presentation by APCs. Another set of antigen-presenting molecules are members of the CD1 group.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Antibodies are produced in:
- A.
Helper T lymphocytes
- B.
The thymus gland
- C.
Plasma cells
- D.
The bone marrow
Correct Answer
C. Plasma cellsExplanation
An antibody, or immunoglobulin, is a serum glycoprotein produced by plasma cells in response to a challenge by an immunogen.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions?
- A.
IgA
- B.
IgE
- C.
IgG
- D.
IgM
Correct Answer
A. IgAExplanation
IgA can be divided into two subclasses, IgA1 and IgA2. IgA1 molecules are found predominantly in the blood, whereas IgA2 is the predominant class of antibody found in normal body secretions.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which antibody indicates a typical primary immune response?
- A.
IgG
- B.
IgM
- C.
IgA
- D.
IgE
Correct Answer
B. IgMExplanation
This is the initial response, or primary immune response. Typically, IgM is produced first, followed by IgG against the same antigen.Rate this question:
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- 23.
If a person had very low levels of Ig__, that individual is more susceptible to infections of the mucous membranes.
- A.
G
- B.
M
- C.
A
- D.
E
Correct Answer
C. AExplanation
The IgA molecules found in bodily secretions are dimers anchored together through a J-chain and “secretory piece.” This secretory piece is attached to the IgAs inside mucosal epithelial cells and may function to protect these immunoglobulins against degradation by enzymes also found in the secretions.Rate this question:
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- 24.
B-cell receptor (BCR) complex function differs from the function of circulating antibodies because the BCR complex:
- A.
Communicates information about the antigen to the helper T cell
- B.
Secretes chemical signals to communicate between cells
- C.
Recognizes the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte
- D.
Communicates information about the antigen to the cell nucleus
Correct Answer
D. Communicates information about the antigen to the cell nucleusExplanation
Its role is to recognize antigen, but unlike circulating antibody, the receptor must communicate that information to the cell’s nucleus.Rate this question:
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- 25.
During which phase of life does the generation of clonal diversity occur?
- A.
Fetus
- B.
Neonate
- C.
Infant
- D.
Ovum
Correct Answer
A. FetusExplanation
Although generation of clonal diversity primarily occurs in the fetus, it probably continues to a low degree throughout most of adult life.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What are characteristics of the generation of clonal diversity?
- A.
The process involves antigens selecting those lymphocytes with compatible receptors
- B.
The process allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-screening plasma cells or mature T cells
- C.
The process takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs (i.e. thymus and bone marrow)
- D.
The process causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations
Correct Answer
C. The process takes place in the primary (central) lympHoid organs (i.e. thymus and bone marrow)Explanation
Where does it occur? Central lymphoid organs: thymus for T cells, bone marrow for B cells.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which are characteristics of clonal selection?
- A.
The process is driven by hormones and does not require foreign antigens
- B.
The process involves antigens selecting those lymphocytes with compatible receptors
- C.
The process takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs (i.e. thymus and bone marrow)
- D.
The process generates immature but immunocompetent T and B cells with receptors
Correct Answer
B. The process involves antigens selecting those lympHocytes with compatible receptorsExplanation
Clonal selection, during which antigen selects those lymphocytes with compatible receptors, expands their population, and causes differentiation into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What is an example of an endogenous antigen?
- A.
Yeast
- B.
Cancer cells
- C.
Bacteria
- D.
Fungus
Correct Answer
B. Cancer cellsExplanation
Endogenous antigens are synthesized within a cell and also may include those uniquely produced by cancerous cells.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which cytokine is needed for the maturation of a functional helper T cell?
- A.
IL-1
- B.
IL-2
- C.
IL-4
- D.
IL-12
Correct Answer
B. IL-2Explanation
Without IL-2 production, the Th cell cannot efficiently mature into a functional helper cell.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Th2 cells produce IL-4 that suppresses:
- A.
B lymphocytes
- B.
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
- C.
Th1
- D.
Memory T lymphocytes
Correct Answer
C. Th1Explanation
Th2 cells produce IL-4, which suppresses Th1 and Th17 cells through their IL-4 receptors.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What are the characteristics of Th1 cells?
- A.
They are induced by antigens derived from allergens
- B.
They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells
- C.
They produce IL-4, IL-5, IL-6 and IL-13
- D.
They assist in the development of humoral immunity
Correct Answer
B. They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cellsExplanation
Antigens derived from viral or bacterial pathogens and those derived from cancer cells are hypothesized to induce a greater number of Th1 cells relative to Th2 cells.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What are the characteristics of Th2 cells?
- A.
They are induced by antigens derived from allergens
- B.
They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells
- C.
They produce IL-2, TNF-B and IFN-
- D.
They assist in the development in cell-mediated immunity
Correct Answer
A. They are induced by antigens derived from allergensExplanation
For example, antigens derived from multicellular parasites and allergens are hypothesized as a result in production of more Th2 cells.Rate this question:
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- 33.
When a person is exposed to most antigens, how long does it take before an antibody can be detected in the circulation?
- A.
12 hours
- B.
24 hours
- C.
3 days
- D.
6 days
Correct Answer
D. 6 daysExplanation
After approximately 5 to 7 days, IgM antibody specific for that antigen can be detected in the circulation.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:
- A.
Strong response of IgM
- B.
Level of protection provided by IgG
- C.
Memory cells for IgE
- D.
Rapid response from IgA
Correct Answer
B. Level of protection provided by IgGExplanation
IgG production is increased considerably, making it the predominant antibody class of the secondary response. It is often present in concentrations several times larger than those of IgM, and levels of circulating IgG specific for that antigen may remain elevated for an extended period of time.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Some viruses, such as measles and herpes, are inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection because they:
- A.
Do not circulate in the blood
- B.
Do not have antibody receptors
- C.
Resist agglutination
- D.
Are soluble antigens
Correct Answer
A. Do not circulate in the bloodExplanation
Many viruses (e.g., measles, herpes) are inaccessible to antibodies after initial infection because they do not circulate in the bloodstream but instead remain inside infected cells, spreading by direct cell-to-cell contact.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which is an example of a bacterial toxin that has been inactivated, but still retains its immunogenicity to protect the person?
- A.
Poliomyelitis
- B.
Measles
- C.
Tetanus
- D.
Gonorrhea
Correct Answer
C. TetanusExplanation
The symptoms of tetanus or diphtheria are mediated by specific toxins. To prevent harming the recipient of immunization, bacterial toxins are chemically inactivated so that they have lost most of their harmful properties but still retain their immunogenicity. These are referred to as toxoids.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Antibodies protect the host from bacterial toxins by:
- A.
Lysing the cell membrane of the toxins
- B.
Binding to the toxins to neutralize their biologic effects
- C.
Inhibiting synthesis of DNA proteins needed for growth
- D.
Interfering with the DNA enzyme needed for replication
Correct Answer
B. Binding to the toxins to neutralize their biologic effectsExplanation
To cause disease, most toxins must bind to surface molecules on the individual’s cells. Protective antibodies can bind to the toxins, prevent their interaction with cells, and neutralize their biologic effects.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which T cell controls or limits the immune response to protect the host's own tissues against an autoimmune response?
- A.
Cytotoxic T cells
- B.
Th1 cells
- C.
Th2 cells
- D.
Regulatory T (Treg) cells
Correct Answer
D. Regulatory T (Treg) cellsExplanation
The role of Treg cells is to control or limit the immune response to protect the host’s own tissues against autoimmune reactions.Rate this question:
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- 39.
At birth, samples of blood from the umbilical cord indicate which immunoglobulin levels, if any, are near adult levels?
- A.
None
- B.
IgG
- C.
IgM
- D.
IgE
Correct Answer
B. IgGExplanation
At birth, total IgG levels in the umbilical cord are near adult levels.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Increased age may cause which of these changes in lymphocyte function?
- A.
Increased production of antibodies against self antigens
- B.
Decreased number of circulating T cells
- C.
Decreased production of autoantibodies
- D.
Increased production of helper T cells
Correct Answer
A. Increased production of antibodies against self antigensExplanation
B-cell function is altered with age as shown by decreases in specific antibody production in response to antigenic challenge, with concomitant increases in circulating immune complexes and in circulating autoantibodies (antibodies against self-antigens).Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 23, 2014Quiz Created by
Msnstudent
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