1.
A client is diagnosed with methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus pneumonia. What type of isolation is MOST appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer
D. Contact isolation
Explanation
Contact or Body Substance Isolation (BSI) involves the use of barrier protection (e.g. gloves, mask, gown, or protective eyewear as appropriate) whenever direct contact with any body fluid is expected. When determining the type of isolation to use, one must consider the mode of transmission. The hands of personnel continues to be the principal mode of transmission for methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Because the organism is limited to the sputum in this example, precautions are taken if contact with the patient”s sputum is expected. A private room and BSI, along with good hand washing techniques, are the best defense against the spread of MRSA pneumonia.
2.
A male client with pneumococcal pneumonia is admitted to an acute care facility. The client in the next room is being treated for mycoplasmal pneumonia. Despite the different causes of the various types of pneumonia, all of them share which feature?
Correct Answer
A. Inflamed lung tissue
Explanation
The common feature of all types of pneumonia is an inflammatory pulmonary response to the offending organism or agent. Although most types of pneumonia have a sudden onset, a few (such as anaerobic bacterial pneumonia and mycoplasmal pneumonia) have an insidious onset. Antibiotic therapy is the primary treatment for most types of pneumonia; however, the antibiotic must be specific for the causative agent, which may not be responsive to penicillin. A few types of pneumonia, such as viral pneumonia, aren’t treated with antibiotics. Although pneumonia usually causes an elevated WBC count, some types, such as mycoplasmal pneumonia, don’t.
3.
A male client admitted to an acute care facility with pneumonia is receiving supplemental oxygen, 2 L/minute via nasal cannula. The client’s history includes chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and coronary artery disease. Because of these history findings, the nurse closely monitors the oxygen flow and the client’s respiratory status. Which complication may arise if the client receives a high oxygen concentration?
Correct Answer
A. Apnea
Explanation
Hypoxia is the main breathing stimulus for a client with COPD. Excessive oxygen administration may lead to apnea by removing that stimulus. Anginal pain results from a reduced myocardial oxygen supply. A client with COPD may have anginal pain from generalized vasoconstriction secondary to hypoxia; however, administering oxygen at any concentration dilates blood vessels, easing anginal pain. Respiratory alkalosis results from alveolar hyperventilation, not excessive oxygen administration. In a client with COPD, high oxygen concentrations decrease the ventilatory drive, leading to respiratory acidosis, not alkalosis. High oxygen concentrations don’t cause metabolic acidosis.
4.
A male elderly client is admitted to an acute care facility with influenza. The nurse monitors the client closely for complications. What is the most common complication of influenza?
Correct Answer
B. Pneumonia
Explanation
Pneumonia is the most common complication of influenza. It may be either primary influenza viral pneumonia or pneumonia secondary to a bacterial infection. Other complications of influenza include myositis, exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and Reye’s syndrome. Myocarditis, pericarditis, transverse myelitis, and encephalitis are rare complications of influenza. Although septicemia may arise when any infection becomes overwhelming, it rarely results from influenza. Meningitis and pulmonary edema aren’t associated with influenza.
5.
A male client with pneumonia develops respiratory failure and has a partial pressure of arterial oxygen of 55 mm Hg. He’s placed on mechanical ventilation with a fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) of 0.9. The nursing goal should be to reduce the FIO2 to no greater than:
Correct Answer
C. 0.5
Explanation
An FO2 greater than 0.5 for as little as 16 to 24 hours can be toxic and can lead to decreased gas diffusion and surfactant activity. The ideal oxygen source is room air F IO 2 0.18 to 0.21.
6.
A 20-year-old patient is being treated for pneumonia. He has a persistent cough and complains of severe pain on coughing. What could you tell him to help him reduce his discomfort?
Correct Answer
D. "Splint your chest wall with a pillow for comfort."
Explanation
Showing this patient how to splint his chest wall will help decrease discomfort when coughing. Holding in his coughs will only increase his pain. Placing the head of the bed flat may increase the frequency of his cough and his work of breathing. Increasing fluid intake will help thin his secretions, making it easier for him to clear them.
7.
A firefighter who was involved in extinguishing a house fire is being treated for smoke inhalation. He develops severe hypoxia 48 hours after the incident, requiring intubation and mechanical ventilation. Which of the following conditions has he most likely developed?
Correct Answer
A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
Explanation
Severe hypoxia after smoke inhalation typically is related to ARDS. The other choices aren’t typically associated with smoke inhalation.
8.
An 80-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Nurse Oliver learns that the client lives alone and hasn’t been eating or drinking. When assessing him for dehydration, nurse Oliver would expect to find:
Correct Answer
D. Tachycardia
Explanation
With an extracellular fluid or plasma volume deficit, compensatory mechanisms stimulate the heart, causing an increase in heart rate.
9.
Nurse Betty is assessing tactile fremitus in a client with pneumonia. For this examination, nurse Betty should use the:
Correct Answer
D. Ulnar surface of the hand
Explanation
The nurse uses the ulnar surface, or ball, of the hand to asses tactile fremitus, thrills, and vocal vibrations through the chest wall. The fingertips and finger pads best distinguish texture and shape. The dorsal surface best feels warmth.
10.
The nurse is caring for four clients on a stepdown intensive care unit. The client at the highest risk for developing nosocomial pneumonia is the one who:
Correct Answer
B. is intubated and on a ventilator
Explanation
When clients are on mechanical ventilation, the artificial airway impairs the gag and cough reflexes that help keep organisms out of the lower respiratory tract. The artificial airway also prevents the upper respiratory system from humidifying and heating air to enhance mucociliary clearance. Manipulations of the artificial airway sometimes allow secretions into the lower airways. Whit standard procedures the other choices wouldn’t be at high risk.
11.
A client with pneumonia is receiving supplemental oxygen, 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The client’s history includes chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and coronary artery disease. Because of these findings, the nurse closely monitors the oxygen flow and the client’s respiratory status. Which complication may arise if the client receives a high oxygen concentration?
Correct Answer
A. Apnea
Explanation
Hypoxia is the main breathing stimulus for a client with COPD. Excessive oxygen administration may lead to apnea by removing that stimulus. Anginal pain results from a reduced myocardial oxygen supply. A client with COPD may have anginal pain from generalized vasoconstriction secondary to hypoxia; however, administering oxygen at any concentration dilates blood vessels, easing anginal pain. Respiratory alkalosis results from alveolar hyperventilation, not excessive oxygen administration. In a client with COPD, high oxygen concentrations decrease the ventilatory drive, leading to respiratory acidosis, not alkalosis. High oxygen concentrations don’t cause metabolic acidosis.
12.
The home health nurse is planning for the day’s visits. Which client should be seen first?
Correct Answer
D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter
Explanation
The client at highest risk for complications is the client with multiple sclerosis who is being treated with cortisone via the central line. The others are more stable. MRSA is methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus. Vancomycin is the drug of choice and is given at scheduled times to maintain blood levels of the drug.
13.
A client with bacterial pneumonia is admitted to the pediatric unit. What would the nurse expect the admitting assessment to reveal?
Correct Answer
A. High fever
Explanation
If the child has bacterial pneumonia, a high fever is usually present. Bacterial pneumonia usually presents with a productive cough, not a nonproductive cough, making answer B incorrect. Rhinitis is often seen with viral pneumonia, and vomiting and diarrhea are usually not seen with pneumonia,
14.
Braguda brought her 5-month old daughter in the nearest RHU because her baby sleeps most of the time, with decreased appetite, has colds and fever for more than a week. The physician diagnosed pneumonia. Based on this data given by Braguda, you can classify Braguda’s daughter to have:
Correct Answer
B. Severe pneumonia
Explanation
For a child aging 2months up to 5 years old can be classified to have severe pneumonia when he have any of the following danger signs:
• Not able to drink
• Convulsions
• Abnormally sleepy or difficult to wake
• Stridor in calm child or
• Severe under-nutrition
15.
For a 3-month old child to be classified to have Pneumonia (not severe), you would expect to find RR of:
Correct Answer
D. 50 pbm
Explanation
A child can be classified to have Pneumonia (not severe) if:
• the young infant is less than 2 months- 60 bpm or more
• if the child is 2 months up to less than 12 months- 50 bpm or more
• if the child is 12 months to 4 y/o- 40 bpm or more
16.
The nurse is preparing her plan of care for her patient diagnosed with pneumonia. Which is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient?
Correct Answer
C. Impaired gas exchange.
Explanation
Pneumonia, which is an infection, causes lobar consolidation thus impairing gas exchange between the alveoli and the blood. Because the patient would require adequate hydration, this makes him prone to fluid volume excess.
17.
Which of the following signs will indicate that a young child is suffering from severe pneumonia?
Correct Answer
D. Chest indrawing
Explanation
In IMCI, chest indrawing is used as the positive sign of dyspnea, indicating severe pneumonia.
18.
Using IMCI guidelines, you classify a child as having severe pneumonia. What is the best management for the child?
Correct Answer
B. Refer him urgently to the hospital.
Explanation
Severe pneumonia requires urgent referral to a hospital. Other options are done for a client classified as having pneumonia.
19.
You are evaluating an HIV-positive patient who is receiving IV pentamidine (Pentam) as a treatment for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. Which information is most important to communicate to the physician?
Correct Answer
D. Blood glucose is 55 mg/dL after the medication administration.
Explanation
Pentamidine can cause fatal hypoglycemia, so the low blood glucose level indicates a need for a change in therapy. The low blood pressure suggests that the IV infusion rate may need to be slowed. The other responses indicated need for independent nursing actions (such as obtaining a new IV site and encouraging oral intake) but are not associated with pentamidine infusion.
20.
While caring for an HIV-positive patient who is hospitalized with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, you note that all of these drug therapies are scheduled for 10:00 AM. Which nursing action is most essential to accomplish at the scheduled time?
Correct Answer
A. Administer the protease inhibitor indinavir (Crixivan) 800 mg PO.
Explanation
Taking antiretroviral medications such as indinavir on a rigid time schedule is essential for effective treatment of HIV infection and to avoid development of drug resistant-strains of the virus. The other medications should also be given within the time frame indicated in the hospital policy (usually within 30 minutes of the scheduled time).
21.
A client with AIDS develops bacterial pneumonia is admitted in the emergency department. The client’s arterial blood gases is drawn and the result is PaO2 80mmHg. then arterial blood gases are drawn again and the level is reduced from 80 mmHg to 65 mmHg. The nurse should;
Correct Answer
C. Notify the pHysician.
Explanation
This decrease in PaO2 indicates respiratory failure; it warrants immediate medical evaluation.
22.
Which of the following community-acquired pneumonias demonstrates the highest occurrence during summer and fall?
Correct Answer
A. Legionnaires’ disease
Explanation
Legionnaires’ disease accounts for 15% of community-acquired pneumonias. Streptococcal pneumonia demonstrates the highest occurrence in winter months.Mycoplasma pneumonia demonstrates the highest occurrence in fall and early winter.Viral pneumonia demonstrates the greatest incidence during winter months.
23.
Which of the following would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for a hospitalized client with bacterial pneumonia and shortness of breath?
Correct Answer
B. Risk for self-care deficit related to fatigue
Explanation
The appropriate nursing diagnosis for a hospitalized client with bacterial pneumonia and shortness of breath would be "Risk for self-care deficit related to fatigue." This is because the client may experience difficulty performing activities of daily living due to the fatigue caused by the pneumonia and shortness of breath. The client may require assistance with self-care tasks such as bathing, dressing, and eating.
24.
The priority is postoperative respiratory toilet. This client will quickly develop profound atelectasis and eventually pneumonia without adequate gas exchange. This will only be achieved with the appropriate pain management.
Correct Answer
C. Dyspnea
Explanation
Client’s having the insertion of a central venous catheter are at risk for tension pneumothorax. Dyspnea, shortness of breath and chest pain are indications of this complication.
25.
A client with pneumacystis carini pneumonia is receiving trimetrexate. The rationale for administering leucovorin calcium to a client receiving Methotrexate is to:
Correct Answer
D. Reverse drug toxicity.
Explanation
The rationale for administering leucovorin calcium to a client receiving Methotrexate is to reverse drug toxicity. Methotrexate is a medication that can cause toxic effects on the body, particularly in the bone marrow and gastrointestinal tract. Leucovorin calcium is a form of folic acid that helps to counteract the toxic effects of Methotrexate by providing the body with a source of folate. By administering leucovorin calcium, the drug toxicity caused by Methotrexate can be reversed, reducing the risk of side effects and improving the client's overall health.
26.
In a recumbent, immobilized patient, lung ventilation can become altered, leading to such respiratory complications as:
Correct Answer
A. Respiratory acidosis, ateclectasis, and hypostatic pneumonia
Explanation
Because of restricted respiratory movement, a recumbent, immobilize patient is at particular risk for respiratory acidosis from poor gas exchange; atelectasis from reduced surfactant and accumulated mucus in the bronchioles, and hypostatic pneumonia from bacterial growth caused by stasis of mucus secretions.
27.
Which order can be associated with the prevention of atelectasis and pneumonia in a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
Correct Answer
C. Chest pHysiotherapy twice a day
Explanation
These clients have a potential for an inability to have voluntary and involuntary muscle movement or activity.Thus, active and passive range of motion exercises twice a day and every 4 hours incentive spirometer are inadequate with this problem in mind. Repositioning every 2 hours around the clock is not specific for prevention of complications associated with the lung.
28.
Mr. Jose is admitted to the hospitalwith a diagnosis of pneumonia and COPD. The physician orders an oxygen therapy for him. The most comfortable method of delivering oxygen to Mr. Jose is by:
Correct Answer
B. Nasal Cannula
Explanation
The nasal cannula is the most comfortable method of delivering oxygen because it allows the patient to talk, eat and drink.
29.
A 65-year-old patient with pneumonia is receiving garamycin (Gentamicin). It would be MOST important for a nurse to monitor which of the following laboratory values in this patient?
Correct Answer
B. BUN and creatinine.
Explanation
Question: Which lab values should you monitor for a patient receiving Gentamicin?
Needed Info: Gentamicin: broad spectrum antibiotic. Side effects: neuromuscular blockage, ototoxic to eighth cranial nerve (tinnitus, vertigo, ataxia, nystagmus, hearing loss), nephrotoxic. Nursing responsibilities: monitor renal function, force fluids, monitor hearing acuity. Draw blood for peak levels 1 hr. after IM and 30 min – 1 hr. after IV infusion, draw blood for trough just before next dose.
-Hemoglobin and hematocrit — can cause anemia; less common
-BUN and creatinine — CORRECT: nephrotoxic; will see proteinuria, oliguria, hematuria, thirst, increased BUN, decreased creatine clearance
-Platelet count and clotting time — do not usually change
-Sodium and potassium — hypokalemia infrequent problem
30.
An elderly client with pneumonia may appear with which of the following symptoms first?
Correct Answer
A. Altered mental status and dehydration
Explanation
Fever, chills, hemoptysis, dyspnea, cough, and pleuric chest pain are the common symptoms of pneumonia, but elderly clients may first appear with only an altered mental status and dehydration due to a blunted immune response.