Safety Management Trivia Quiz!
Safety management is an important quiz for people to understand when it comes to businesses. This course gives employers the chance to safeguard their employees from harm and minimize the risk of them happening. The quiz below is designed to test it out. Give it a try and get to see just how much you know about it from your training.
- 1.
The estimated precent of accidents caused by nature is
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
The correct answer is 2. This suggests that a very small percentage of accidents are caused by natural factors. It implies that the majority of accidents are likely caused by human error or other external factors rather than natural occurrences such as weather conditions or geological events.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What is the precentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards?
- A.
50
- B.
70
- C.
90
- D.
98
Correct Answer
D. 98Explanation
The correct answer is 98. This indicates that a high percentage of accidents are caused by both unsafe acts and physical hazards. It suggests that a large majority of accidents can be prevented by addressing these factors and implementing appropriate safety measures.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?
- A.
Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks
- B.
TOs, Manuals, and CDCs
- C.
Manuals, TOs, and handbooks
- D.
TOs, handbook, and CDCs
Correct Answer
C. Manuals, TOs, and handbooksExplanation
The correct answer is Manuals, TOs, and handbooks. These directives are used when performing maintenance procedures. Manuals provide detailed instructions and guidelines for specific tasks. TOs (Technical Orders) are official documents that provide specific instructions for maintenance, operation, and repair of equipment. Handbooks provide additional reference material and guidance for maintenance procedures. Together, these directives ensure that maintenance procedures are carried out accurately and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What Safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airmen?
- A.
Initial
- B.
General
- C.
Supervisor's
- D.
Sustained job safety
Correct Answer
A. InitialExplanation
The initial safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airmen. This phase is the first step in introducing new airmen to safety protocols and procedures. It helps them understand the importance of safety and instills good safety habits from the beginning of their careers. By providing comprehensive training during the initial phase, new airmen are equipped with the knowledge and skills necessary to prioritize safety throughout their time in the air force.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs if conventrations are greater than
- A.
-2.0%
- B.
-1.0%
- C.
.1%
- D.
1.0%
Correct Answer
C. .1%Explanation
In MSDSs (Material Safety Data Sheets), a chemical is identified as a carcinogen if its concentrations are greater than 0.1%. This indicates that the chemical has the potential to cause cancer in individuals exposed to it. It is important to identify and label carcinogens accurately in order to ensure proper handling and safety precautions are taken when working with these substances.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by
- A.
The USAF
- B.
Each MAJCOM
- C.
DOD
- D.
EPA
Correct Answer
D. EPAExplanation
The correct answer is EPA because the Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). The EPA is responsible for regulating and enforcing laws related to the management and disposal of hazardous waste in the United States. They establish guidelines and standards to ensure the safe handling, storage, transportation, and disposal of hazardous waste to protect human health and the environment.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed
- A.
30 Days
- B.
60 Days
- C.
90 Days
- D.
120 Days
Correct Answer
C. 90 DaysExplanation
Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed 90 days. This is because hazardous materials can pose significant risks to human health and the environment if not handled properly. By limiting the storage period to 90 days, it ensures that the materials are not stored for an extended period, reducing the potential for accidents, leaks, or other incidents. This time frame also allows for efficient management and disposal of the hazardous materials within a reasonable timeframe, minimizing the overall risk associated with their storage.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What Affects radiation hazards?
- A.
Strenght of emission, Time of day, and Input power
- B.
Strenght of emission, Time of Exposure, and Weather
- C.
Input power, weather and number of personnel in the area
- D.
Time of exposure. amount of training and number of operation units
Correct Answer
B. Strenght of emission, Time of Exposure, and WeatherExplanation
The strength of emission refers to the intensity of radiation being emitted. Higher levels of emission can result in greater radiation hazards. Time of exposure refers to the duration of time that individuals are exposed to radiation. Longer exposure times can increase the risk of radiation hazards. Weather conditions can also affect radiation hazards. Certain weather conditions, such as rain or fog, can cause radiation to disperse more quickly, reducing the risk of exposure. Conversely, calm weather conditions can allow radiation to linger in the area, increasing the risk of hazards.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then
- A.
Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air
- B.
Cool with high pressure compressed air
- C.
Cool with forced air from a blower
- D.
Spray with cold water
Correct Answer
A. Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient airExplanation
The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This is because allowing the assembly to cool naturally in the surrounding air is a safer method compared to using high pressure compressed air, forced air from a blower, or spraying with cold water. Using compressed air or water can potentially cause damage to the assembly or other components, while allowing it to cool in the ambient air ensures a gradual and controlled cooling process.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of
- A.
15
- B.
45
- C.
65
- D.
95
Correct Answer
B. 45Explanation
The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear and to either side at an angle of 45 degrees. This is because the sound waves produced by the engine propagate in a cone-like shape, with the apex of the cone being at the rear of the engine. As a result, the noise is most intense in the direction perpendicular to the axis of the engine, which is at a 45-degree angle from the rear.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?
- A.
Dizziness
- B.
Emotional irritability
- C.
A feeling of emptiness
- D.
Impaired mental concentration
Correct Answer
C. A feeling of emptinessExplanation
A feeling of emptiness is not a sign of noise fatigue because noise fatigue primarily affects the auditory system and can cause symptoms such as dizziness, emotional irritability, and impaired mental concentration. A feeling of emptiness is more commonly associated with emotional or psychological states rather than physical fatigue caused by noise.Rate this question:
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- 12.
When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing safety devices associated with these explosives?
- A.
Crew chief
- B.
Flight Engineer
- C.
Weapons Personnel
- D.
Only senior personnel on special orders
Correct Answer
C. Weapons PersonnelExplanation
Weapons Personnel are responsible for removing safety devices associated with live ammunition when launching an aircraft. They have the necessary training and expertise to handle and disarm explosives safely. The crew chief is responsible for overall maintenance and operation of the aircraft, while the flight engineer is responsible for monitoring and maintaining the aircraft's systems during flight. Senior personnel on special orders may have specific responsibilities, but it is the Weapons Personnel who are specifically trained for handling explosives in this context.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Before moving an explosives loaded aircraft into a hangar you must
- A.
Install Shorting plugs and clips
- B.
Install safing mechanical safety devices
- C.
Remove ammunition and explosives
- D.
Position all fire control switches to safe or off
Correct Answer
C. Remove ammunition and explosivesExplanation
Before moving an explosives loaded aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove ammunition and explosives. This is crucial for ensuring the safety of the hangar and its surroundings. By removing these hazardous materials, the risk of accidental detonation or ignition is minimized. It is a standard procedure to remove ammunition and explosives before bringing the aircraft into the hangar to prevent any potential accidents or incidents that could cause harm or damage.Rate this question:
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- 14.
All composite material-related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT(form)
- A.
55
- B.
457
- C.
623
- D.
1297
Correct Answer
A. 55Explanation
The correct answer is 55 because AF IMT 55 is the form used to document all composite material-related safety training. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that all necessary information is recorded and documented properly. It helps in maintaining a record of the training provided and ensures compliance with safety regulations.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The first step in developing an effective FOD precention program is to
- A.
Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly
- B.
Follow MAJCOM guidelines
- C.
Identify all possible sources of FOD
- D.
Educate all personnel
Correct Answer
C. Identify all possible sources of FODExplanation
In order to develop an effective FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention program, it is crucial to identify all possible sources of FOD. This step involves thoroughly examining the work environment, equipment, and processes to identify any potential sources of debris that could pose a risk. By identifying these sources, appropriate measures can be implemented to prevent FOD incidents, such as implementing proper storage and handling procedures, conducting regular inspections, and ensuring that all personnel are aware of the potential sources and how to mitigate them.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Who is responsible for FOD prevention?
- A.
Everyone
- B.
Wing Commander
- C.
Immediate Supervisor
- D.
Logistics and operations group commander
Correct Answer
A. EveryoneExplanation
FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention is the responsibility of everyone in an organization. It is not limited to a specific role or position. Each individual, regardless of their rank or position, should actively participate in preventing FOD by following proper procedures, maintaining cleanliness, and being vigilant in identifying and reporting any potential FOD hazards. This collective effort ensures a safe and efficient working environment, reducing the risk of damage to equipment and potential accidents.Rate this question:
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- 17.
When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the
- A.
Wing vice commander
- B.
Group commander
- C.
Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent
- D.
Wing commander
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendentExplanation
The correct answer is Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. This individual is responsible for overseeing maintenance operations and has the authority to clear a red X, indicating that a lost tool cannot be located. The wing vice commander, group commander, and wing commander may have higher authority within the organization, but they may not have the specific knowledge or responsibility for maintenance operations to make a decision about a lost tool.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?
- A.
The FOD prevention office
- B.
The operations commander
- C.
The flight safety officer
- D.
QA
Correct Answer
D. QAExplanation
QA stands for Quality Assurance. In most units, the QA department is responsible for investigating dropped objects. QA is responsible for ensuring that processes and procedures are followed correctly to maintain quality and safety standards. Investigating dropped objects falls under their jurisdiction as it involves identifying the cause of the incident, implementing corrective measures, and preventing similar incidents in the future. The FOD prevention office, operations commander, and flight safety officer may have roles related to safety and prevention, but the specific task of investigating dropped objects is typically assigned to the QA department.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the
- A.
Red markings
- B.
Black markings
- C.
Green markings
- D.
Orange markings
Correct Answer
C. Green markingsExplanation
The green markings on the gauge of a fire extinguisher indicate the safe operating range of pressure. This means that when the gauge needle is within the green markings, the pressure inside the fire extinguisher is at an appropriate level for effective use. This is important because if the pressure is too low, the extinguisher may not work properly, and if it is too high, there is a risk of the extinguisher rupturing or malfunctioning. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the gauge needle is within the green markings to ensure the fire extinguisher is ready for use in case of an emergency.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a
- A.
15 ft radius
- B.
20 ft radius
- C.
25 ft radius
- D.
50 ft radius
Correct Answer
B. 20 ft radiusExplanation
The correct answer is 20 ft radius. This means that individuals who are not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should stay at least 20 feet away from the area. This distance is important to ensure their safety as nitrogen can be hazardous if not handled properly. Staying outside this radius reduces the risk of potential accidents or exposure to nitrogen.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?
- A.
Operations
- B.
The aircrew
- C.
Supervision
- D.
The ground crew
Correct Answer
B. The aircrewExplanation
The aircrew is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check. This means that the aircrew, which includes the pilots and other crew members on the aircraft, are in charge of conducting the preflight check before takeoff. This check is important to ensure that all systems are functioning properly and that the aircraft is safe for flight. It is a standard procedure that is carried out by the aircrew to minimize any potential risks or issues during the flight.Rate this question:
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- 22.
When serving as fireguard, you position yourself even with the
- A.
Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle inboard of the engine being started
- B.
Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle outboard of the engine being started
- C.
Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle inboard of the engine being started
- D.
Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started
Correct Answer
D. Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being startedExplanation
When serving as fireguard, you position yourself at the nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals
- A.
AFI 23-106
- B.
AFI 11-218
- C.
TO 00-25-172
- D.
TO 00-25-212
Correct Answer
B. AFI 11-218Explanation
AFI 11-218 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force instruction that covers internationally accepted hand signals. This reference provides guidance and standardization for the use of hand signals in various Air Force operations. It ensures that personnel across different countries and organizations can effectively communicate using universally recognized hand signals, promoting safety and efficiency in military operations.Rate this question:
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- 24.
During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?
- A.
Supervisor or Vehicle operator
- B.
Supervisor or brake operator
- C.
Supervisor or wing walkers
- D.
Supervisor only
Correct Answer
D. Supervisor onlyExplanation
The correct answer is "Supervisor only." During an aircraft tow, the supervisor is the only authorized person to give the "all clear to move" order. This is because the supervisor has the overall responsibility for ensuring the safety of the operation and has the authority to make decisions regarding the movement of the aircraft. Other individuals mentioned in the options may have specific roles and responsibilities during the tow, but only the supervisor has the authority to give the final authorization to move the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?
- A.
Departmental, intermediate, and field
- B.
Organizational, field, and intermediate
- C.
Organizational, intermediate, and depot.
- D.
Departmental, organizational, and depot
Correct Answer
C. Organizational, intermediate, and depot.Explanation
The Air Force's maintenance capabilities are categorized into three levels: organizational, intermediate, and depot. Organizational maintenance refers to the basic level of maintenance performed by the unit or organization that operates the equipment. Intermediate maintenance involves more complex repairs and is typically performed by specialized maintenance units. Depot maintenance is the highest level and involves extensive repairs and overhauls that are conducted at centralized repair facilities. Therefore, the correct order of increasing capability is organizational, intermediate, and depot.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?
- A.
Unscheduled
- B.
Preventive
- C.
Corrective
- D.
Protective
Correct Answer
B. PreventiveExplanation
Preventive maintenance is the type of maintenance that ensures equipment is ready and available when needed. It involves regular inspections, cleaning, lubrication, and minor repairs to prevent breakdowns or failures. By proactively addressing potential issues, preventive maintenance helps to minimize downtime, increase equipment reliability, and extend its lifespan. This type of maintenance is essential for industries and organizations that rely heavily on their equipment to maintain productivity and efficiency.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Objectives od the MDD system include
- A.
Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data
- B.
Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data
- C.
Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data
- D.
Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data
Correct Answer
D. Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level dataExplanation
The objectives of the MDD system include collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data. This means that the system is designed to gather data, store it in a database, and make it easily accessible for review or retrieval when needed. This ensures that the system is able to effectively manage and utilize the base-level data for various purposes.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information systems database?
- A.
Damaged and spare items
- B.
Expired and outdated items
- C.
Recurring and repeat replacement items
- D.
Select serially controlled and time change items
Correct Answer
D. Select serially controlled and time change itemsExplanation
The configuration management subsystem ensures that select serially controlled and time change items are loaded properly into the maintenance information systems database. This means that the system ensures that items that are tracked by serial numbers and require regular time-based maintenance are accurately recorded and updated in the database. This helps in keeping track of these specific items and ensuring that they are properly maintained and serviced as required.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What AFTO 781 series form is used as a cource document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil?
- A.
781A
- B.
781F
- C.
781H
- D.
781J
Correct Answer
B. 781FExplanation
The AFTO 781F form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder?
- A.
Before the first flight of the day
- B.
Before each thruflight inspection
- C.
After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing
- D.
After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number
Correct Answer
C. After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefingExplanation
The AFTO 781 form is a maintenance form used to document aircraft maintenance actions and events. It is typically removed from the forms binder after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing. This ensures that the form is properly updated and completed before it is removed from the binder. Removing the form before the event number is entered could result in incomplete or inaccurate documentation. Therefore, it is important to remove the form after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Engine over-tempature conditions are recorded on an AFTO
- A.
781G
- B.
781J
- C.
781M
- D.
781P
Correct Answer
B. 781JExplanation
The AFTO 781J is the correct answer because it is the specific form used to record engine over-temperature conditions. The other forms listed (781G, 781M, 781P) are used for different purposes and not specifically for recording engine over-temperature conditions.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting?
- A.
Base supply soordinator
- B.
Critical item liaison
- C.
Equipment liaison
- D.
Item managers
Correct Answer
D. Item managersExplanation
Item managers are responsible for determining which items in the MDS specific -6 TO (Technical Order) need historical reporting. They have the knowledge and expertise regarding the items and their usage, and they are in the best position to assess the importance and relevance of historical reporting for each item. Item managers are typically responsible for the overall management and oversight of specific items or groups of items, including their procurement, inventory, and reporting requirements. Therefore, they play a crucial role in determining the need for historical reporting in the MDS specific -6 TO.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the
- A.
MAJCOM Level
- B.
Wing level
- C.
Base level
- D.
Unit level
Correct Answer
D. Unit levelExplanation
The correct answer is "unit level" because the IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) is a production-oriented, automated maintenance management system that provides managers with visibility and control of resources at the unit level. This means that the system is designed to track and manage maintenance activities, resources, and assets at the individual unit level, such as a specific squadron or department within an organization. It allows managers to monitor and allocate resources effectively, ensuring efficient maintenance operations at the unit level.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by
- A.
Selecting the proper NCOs for expediter duty
- B.
Selecting the correct personnel for cross-training
- C.
Helping evaluate the training of new personnel for training
- D.
Helping with forcasting and scheduling personnel for training
Correct Answer
D. Helping with forcasting and scheduling personnel for trainingExplanation
The training management subsystem helps with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training. This means that it assists in predicting and planning the needs for training personnel, as well as organizing and arranging their schedules accordingly. By doing so, the system ensures that the right individuals are assigned to the appropriate training programs at the right time, optimizing the effectiveness and efficiency of the training process.Rate this question:
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- 35.
When should you accomplish and initial evaluation in your training program?
- A.
Within 60 days of arrival
- B.
Upon duty postion assignment
- C.
When someone changes duty positions
- D.
30 days after in-processing new personnel
Correct Answer
A. Within 60 days of arrivalExplanation
An initial evaluation in a training program should be accomplished within 60 days of arrival. This allows enough time for the individual to settle in and get familiar with their new environment before undergoing an evaluation. It also ensures that the evaluation is conducted early enough to identify any areas that may need improvement or further training.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The GAS is normally sent out
- A.
90 days after graduation
- B.
6 months after graduation
- C.
Within 10 work days after graduation
- D.
Within 10 calendar days after graduation
Correct Answer
A. 90 days after graduationExplanation
The correct answer is "90 days after graduation." This means that the GAS (presumably referring to some document or form) is typically sent out to individuals 90 days after they have graduated. This could be a standard procedure for providing graduates with important information or updates after they have completed their studies.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC
- A.
CFETP, Part I
- B.
AFJQS
- C.
Command JQS
- D.
CFETP, Part II
Correct Answer
D. CFETP, Part IIExplanation
CFETP stands for Career Field Education and Training Plan, which is a comprehensive document that outlines the training requirements and career progression for a particular Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). Part II of the CFETP specifically provides a list of training courses available for that AFSC. Therefore, the correct answer is CFETP, Part II.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The TBA provides AIr Force personnel with global, real-time
- A.
Access to distance leraning courseware
- B.
Access to special certification roster criteria listings
- C.
Visibility of available formal training courses air force-wide
- D.
Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statues
Correct Answer
D. Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuesExplanation
The correct answer is visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statues. The TBA platform allows Air Force personnel to have access to information regarding their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that they can easily see and track their own progress and accomplishments in terms of their technical skills and training. This visibility is important for career development and ensuring that personnel are up to date with the necessary qualifications and certifications for their roles.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?
- A.
Training
- B.
Aircraft
- C.
Reference
- D.
Operational
Correct Answer
C. ReferenceExplanation
The reference library does not need to maintain publication currency because it primarily consists of books, journals, and other resources that provide background information and serve as a reference for specific topics. Unlike training, aircraft, and operational libraries which require up-to-date information to ensure safety and compliance, the reference library focuses on providing historical and foundational knowledge that does not change frequently. Therefore, it does not need to constantly update its publications to maintain currency.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
The correct answer is 1 because the question asks for the total number of Air Force TO catalogs, and the only option provided is 1. Therefore, there is only one Air Force TO catalog.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses?
- A.
Trouble
- B.
Remedy
- C.
Section II
- D.
Probable cause
Correct Answer
B. RemedyExplanation
The Remedy column in the TS manual provides instructions that require an action to be taken and lists two possible responses. It is likely that this column offers solutions or steps to resolve a specific problem or issue mentioned in the manual. By following the instructions in the Remedy column, users can address the identified problem and choose one of the two suggested responses to effectively resolve the issue.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What TCTO is indentified by a series of Red diagonals alternately spaced with Red Xs around the border of the first page?
- A.
Record
- B.
Urgent action
- C.
Routine action
- D.
Immediate action
Correct Answer
B. Urgent actionExplanation
The TCTO identified by a series of Red diagonals alternately spaced with Red Xs around the border of the first page is "Urgent action". This indicates that immediate attention and action are required in order to address the issue or problem mentioned in the TCTO. The red diagonals and Xs serve as visual indicators to highlight the urgency and importance of the action needed.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which To outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22?
- A.
00-1-01
- B.
00-5-1
- C.
00-20 series
- D.
00-25 series
Correct Answer
B. 00-5-1Explanation
The correct answer is 00-5-1. The AFTO Form 22 is used for maintenance and inspection records. The 00-5-1 series outlines the procedures for entries on this form.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completeing them but cannot enforce what's on the form?
- A.
Directiory
- B.
Pamphlet
- C.
Instruction
- D.
Supplement
Correct Answer
B. PampHletExplanation
A pamphlet is a type of nondirective publication that may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form. Pamphlets are usually informational materials that provide general information or instructions on a specific topic. They can provide guidance on how to fill out forms correctly, but they do not have the authority to enforce the information provided on the form. Therefore, a pamphlet is the correct answer to the question.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency, which if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency?
- A.
Waiver
- B.
Urgent
- C.
Routine
- D.
Emergency
Correct Answer
B. UrgentExplanation
The correct answer is "Urgent." This report type requires action on a TO deficiency that, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency. It suggests that immediate attention and corrective measures are necessary to prevent any negative impact on operational efficiency.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?
- A.
B-1
- B.
B-2
- C.
B-4
- D.
B-5
Correct Answer
B. B-2Explanation
The correct answer is B-2. The B-2 maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which of these is a Scissor-type maintenance stand?
- A.
B-1
- B.
B-2
- C.
B-4
- D.
C-1
Correct Answer
C. B-4Explanation
The correct answer is B-4. A scissor-type maintenance stand is a type of equipment used in aircraft maintenance to provide elevated access to different parts of the aircraft. It is designed with a scissor-like mechanism that allows it to be easily adjusted to different heights. B-4 is the only option listed that indicates a scissor-type maintenance stand. B-1, B-2, and C-1 do not specify the type of maintenance stand they represent.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What is the mazimum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support?
- A.
7,000
- B.
8,000
- C.
9,000
- D.
10,000
Correct Answer
B. 8,000Explanation
The maximum load that the model 4000 engine trailer can support is 8,000 pounds.Rate this question:
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- 49.
On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the model 3000 engine trailer is
- A.
10 MPH
- B.
15 MPH
- C.
20 MPH
- D.
25 MPH
Correct Answer
C. 20 MpHExplanation
The maximum towing speed for the model 3000 engine trailer on straightaways is 20 MPH.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?
- A.
Tail
- B.
Axle
- C.
Nose
- D.
Fixed-Height
Correct Answer
B. AxleExplanation
The correct answer is Axle. When changing a tire on an aircraft, an axle jack is typically used. This type of jack is designed to lift the aircraft by its axle, allowing for easy removal and replacement of the tire. The axle jack provides stability and support to safely lift the aircraft off the ground, making it the most suitable option for this task.Rate this question:
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Quiz Review Timeline +
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Feb 26, 2014Quiz Created by
Specs1
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