1.
Which of the following signs contraindicate nasopharyngeal airway insertion?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Battle's sign
C. CSF Rhinorrhoea
D. 'Panda eyes'
Explanation
Nasopharyngeal airway insertion is contraindicated in base of skull fracture, signs of which include Battle's sign (bruising over the mastoid area), 'Panda eyes' (periorbital bruising), CSF rhinorrhoea as well as bleeding from the ears and cranial nerve signs
2.
How can you quickly size an oropharyngeal (guedel) airway
Correct Answer
B. Measure from the angle of the jaw to the earlobe
Explanation
The correct answer is to measure from the angle of the jaw to the earlobe. This measurement is used to determine the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal (guedel) airway, which is a device used to maintain an open airway during resuscitation or anesthesia. The distance from the angle of the jaw to the earlobe is a reliable indicator of the correct size needed for the airway, ensuring proper fit and effectiveness.
3.
What level of Oxygen saturation would you aim to maintain in a patient with type 2 respiratory failure?
Correct Answer
B. 88-92%
Explanation
In type 2 respiratory failure, the patient's lungs are unable to adequately remove carbon dioxide from the body. Maintaining an oxygen saturation level of 88-92% is ideal because it allows for a balance between providing enough oxygen to meet the body's needs while avoiding the risk of oxygen toxicity. Oxygen saturation levels below 88% may indicate hypoxemia, while levels above 92% may lead to oxygen toxicity and other complications.
4.
Which of the following conditions may present with stridor?
Correct Answer(s)
C. Epiglottitis
D. AnapHylaxis
Explanation
Epiglottitis and anaphylaxis are conditions that may present with stridor. Epiglottitis is an inflammation of the epiglottis, which is a small flap of tissue that covers the entrance to the trachea during swallowing, and can cause obstruction of the airway. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can cause swelling of the airways, leading to difficulty in breathing and stridor. Pulmonary embolism, atypical pneumonia, acute exacerbation of COPD, and acute asthma are conditions that may present with other respiratory symptoms, but not typically with stridor.
5.
What is the correct dose of Adrenaline to treat Anaphylaxis?
Correct Answer
D. 0.5mg IM
Explanation
The correct dose of Adrenaline to treat Anaphylaxis is 0.5mg IM. This means that the recommended dose is 0.5 milligrams of adrenaline administered intramuscularly. This dosage is commonly used to counteract severe allergic reactions and can be administered quickly and effectively in emergency situations.
6.
How much Sodium is there in Hartmann's solution?
Correct Answer
B. 131mmol/l
Explanation
Hartmann's solution contains 131mmol/l of Sodium. This means that for every liter of Hartmann's solution, there are 131 millimoles of Sodium present.
7.
A young man is involved in a motorcycle crash. He opens his eyes in response to painful stimulus, he is speaking incoherently and extending his limbs to painful stimulus.
What is his GCS?
Correct Answer
A. 7
Explanation
A GCS below 8 is in indication for intubation
8.
Which of the following agents may result in a metabolic acidosis?
Correct Answer(s)
B. Paracetamol
D. Ethanol
E. Methanol
G. Carbon Monoxide
Explanation
Paracetamol, ethanol, methanol, and carbon monoxide may result in a metabolic acidosis. Paracetamol, when taken in overdose, can cause liver damage leading to metabolic acidosis. Ethanol and methanol can both be metabolized into toxic byproducts that can cause metabolic acidosis. Carbon monoxide, when inhaled, can bind to hemoglobin and reduce oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to tissue hypoxia and lactic acidosis, which contributes to metabolic acidosis.
9.
What is the correct dose of Naloxone to prescribe in Opiate overdose?
Correct Answer
A. 0.8 - 2mg IV
Explanation
The correct dose of Naloxone to prescribe in Opiate overdose is 0.8 - 2mg IV. This dosage range is considered effective in reversing the effects of opiate overdose by blocking the opiate receptors in the brain. It is important to administer the correct dose to avoid potential complications or inadequate reversal of the overdose.
10.
Which of the following groups of patients are more likely to present in Status Epilepticus?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Those with concurrent infection
C. Pregnant Women
D. Those with a history of alcohol abuse
Explanation
Patients with concurrent infection, pregnant women, and those with a history of alcohol abuse are more likely to present in Status Epilepticus. Status Epilepticus is a prolonged seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes or multiple seizures without full recovery in between. Infections can trigger seizures by causing inflammation in the brain. Pregnancy can increase the risk of seizures due to hormonal changes and physiological stress. Alcohol abuse can lead to withdrawal seizures, which can progress to Status Epilepticus if not managed properly.
11.
Which of the following can cause Papilloedema?
Correct Answer(s)
B. Brain Tumour
C. Venous sinus occlusion
E. Malignant Hypertension
Explanation
Papilloedema is the swelling of the optic disc caused by increased intracranial pressure. Brain tumor can cause papilloedema by exerting pressure on the brain and increasing the pressure inside the skull. Venous sinus occlusion can also lead to papilloedema as it obstructs the drainage of blood from the brain, resulting in increased intracranial pressure. Malignant hypertension, characterized by severely elevated blood pressure, can cause papilloedema due to the increased pressure in the blood vessels of the brain.